精品解析：河南省郑州市郑州中学初中部2024-2025学年上学期期中考试九年级英语试卷

郑州中学初中部2024-2025学年上期期中综合调研 九年级英语 命题人：杜慧杰 宋宜蔓 审题人：董园园 （考试时间：100分钟 满分：120分） 一、听力理解（20小题，第小题1分，共20分） 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。 1. Where has Linda been these days? A. She’s been to Xi’an. B. She’s been to Shanghai. C. She’s been to Beijing. 2. Why can’t Miss Lee come to the food festival? A. She has to do the housework. B. She has to prepare the lessons. C. She has to look after her grandma. 3. What kind of music does the woman like? A. Pop music. B. Classical music. C. Country music. 4. How often does the boy go swimming? A. Once a week B Twice a week. C. Once a month. 5. What color was Kathy’s bedroom before?. A. Green. B. Yellow. C. Blue. 第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。 6. What is Sam busy with? A. His plans. B. His lessons C. His exams. 7. Where will Sam live when he travels to Mount Tai? A. In the hotel. B. In Emma’s grandparents’ home. C. In Sam’s grandparents’ home. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。 8. Who is talking to Della? A. Her father. B Her classmate. C. Her teacher. 9. Why did Della go back home? A. To get her book. B. To borrow a book. C. To see her classmates. 听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。 10. Where did Donny want to stay that night? A. In the Rose Hotel. B. In the old man’s house. C. In his friend’s house. 11 How far is the old man's house to the hotel? A.20 miles. B.10 miles. C.5 miles. 12. What do you think of the old man? A. Clever. B. Rude. C. Stupid. 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。 13. What does Mrs. Miller want to buy for her son? A. A Christmas present. B.A birthday present. C. A New Year present. 14. How old is Mrs. Miler's son? A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven. 15. When did Mr. Allen buy the toy monkey? A. Last week. B. Last month. C. Last year. 第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。 16.________ 17.________ 18.________ 19.________ 20.________ 二、阅读理解（20小题，第小题2分，共40分） 阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。 A Dear students, We would like to introduce new rules about our canteen to reduce overcrowding. Students in different grades will go to the canteen at different times. The following timetable will be used from October of this year to March of next year. Please make a note about when you can go to the canteen for lunch. Time Oct. 1st, 2024—Nov. 30th, 2024 Dec. 1st, 2024—Jan. 31st, 2025 Feb. 1st, 2025—Mar. 31st, 2025 11:00 am. Grade 9 11:10 a.m. Grade 6 Grade 7 Grade 8 11:20 a.m. Grade 7 Grade 8 Grade 6 11:30 am. Grade 8 Grade 6 Grade 7 In order to create a comfortable environment in the dining hall, please follow these rules: *Please do not cut in line. *Please throw trash in the bins, and stack cutlery and plates on the shelves *Please leave the canteen as soon as you return your cutlery. Leave space for those who have not yet eaten. 1. According to the passage, how will the canteen do to reduce overcrowding? A. Only offer one meal to students every day. B. Provide some food for the students who are busy. C Open more dining windows for students in Grade 9. D. Offer lunch to students in different grades at different times. 2. What time should Cindy, a student in Grade 6 go for lunch on December 24th, 2024? A. At 11:30 p.m. B. At 11:10 a.m. C. At 11:10 p.m. D. At 11:30 a.m. 3. What should students do according to the new rules? A. Leave at once after returning cutlery. B. Go for lunch as soon as the bell rings after class. C. Take notes about when going to the canteen for lunch. D. Place all cutlery and rubbish in different bins. 4. How long will the timetable last? A. 4 months. B. 5 months. C. 6 months. D. 7 months. 5. Where can you read this passage? A. A website about meals. B. The local newspaper. C. The school notice board. D. A guide book for students. B In the village in Kentucky, there lived a young girl named Amanda. She had moved here only two weeks earlier. Her closest friends were far from her. Amanda kept herself busy for hours by walking around the grassy fields nearby, enjoying the natural beauty around them. On the weekend, Amanda would even volunteer on farms to help take care of sheep, cows and horses. Still, it was easy for Amanda to feel lonely in her big house. One day, just as Amanda was about to leave and spend time walking around, she saw a cat jumping at the door. Even though the cat looked dirty, it was beautiful, with bright blue eyes. Amanda’s feeling of surprise quickly gave way to a feeling of pity. Thinking of what she could offer the cat, Amanda hurried to the kitchen and prepared two bowls: one filled with fish and the other with water. After sniffing (嗅) them carefully, the cat began to hungrily eat them. Once it finished its meal, the cat ran away into the thick grass and disappeared. From that day, the cat would appear at the door every day in the morning and Amanda would always be there. Their relationship started to deepen as Amanda enjoyed seeing her new “furry (毛茸茸的) neighbor” every day. The cat was too nervous to be taken indoors, but it gradually became comfortable with Amanda. However, one day, everything changed. In the morning, Amanda brought a bowl of fish near the door and waited for the cat as usual, but it didn’t appear. The next day, and the day after that, the cat didn’t show up either. She stepped into the grass where the cat usually went and searched carefully. At that time, she heard the sounds of kittens meowing. She was surprised to find her “furry neighbor” lying in the grass with four kittens. The kittens were very cute. Amanda quickly rushed back home to prepare some food and water for them. 6. The first paragraph is written to ________. A. show the character of Amanda B. create a picture of the beautiful village C. explain why people are busy D. introduce why Amanda moved 7. Which of the following shows Amanda’s feelings when she first met the cat? A. Surprised→happy. B. Surprised→pity. C. Worried→satisfied. D. Worried→happy. 8. What did the cat do when Amanda fed it? A. It sniffed the food carefully. B. It waited patiently. C. It refused to eat the food. D. It ran away quickly. 9. In Amanda’s eyes, what role did the cat play in her life? A. A pet that needed her so much. B. A friend who always helped her. C. A neighbor that she met every day. D. A family member that was kind to her. 10. What is the possible ending of the story? A. From then on, Amanda hid the kittens in the grass. B. From then on, Amanda made new friends at school. C. From then on, Amanda had four more furry neighbors. D. From then on, Amanda sent the little kittens to her neighbors. C Many of us spent our childhoods dreaming of becoming astronauts. However, only a few would make it. But does that mean you’ll never get the chance to work in space? Not necessarily. In fact, some of the space jobs are not only for astronauts and they all sound just cool. One of the most interesting space jobs is “chief sniffer (嗅探员)”. NASA has already had a sniffer named George Aldrich, whose job is to smell materials before they are used in spaceships. Using your nose at work might sound a little strange, but the job is actually important. A spaceship is of small size and high temperature, which makes smells inside stronger. And once a spaceship is sent, astronauts have no way to run away from unpleasant smells. More importantly, smelling objects can help find things that could do harm to astronauts’ health. Another job, the “space tour guide”, may seem a little ahead of its time—after all, there aren’t any tourists there. But now, many companies are starting to provide space trips and some rich space lovers have ordered the tours. It may not be long before space becomes one of the top travel places. Being a space tour guide requires rich knowledge to help passengers get the most out of their journey. Space tour guides also need to be excellent storytellers so that passengers can experience the true beauty of space travel. Astronauts often spend a long time in space with the same group of people, which is why a “space psychologist (心理学家)” is also needed to help astronauts overcome bad feelings. “We’re crossing the boundaries (界限) between science fiction and reality,” said Rohit Talwar, director of the US company Fast Future Research, “Things we’ve seen in movies are now becoming reality!” 11. How many space jobs are mentioned in the text? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five. 12. What’s George Aldrich’s job at NASA mainly about? A. Cheering astronauts up with excellent stories. B. Cleaning up dangerous things found in spaceships. C. Checking the size and temperature of the spaceships. D. Keeping astronauts safe from things with unpleasant smells. 13. What does Rohit Talwar think of future research in space? A. It’s relaxing. B. It’s moving. C. It’s exciting. D. It’s worrying. 14. Which is the right structure of the passage? (①=Paragraph 1 ②=Paragraph 2,…) A. B. C. D. 15. What is the best title for the text? A. True beauty of space travel B. Bright future of space research C. Dangerous life of being a sniffer D. More choices of working in space D Do you know a large number of young people are influenced by all kinds of choices today? ____16____ Scientists look on “mental internal friction” as the confusion that happens when people have to change their thoughts from “old ideas” to “new ideas”. ____17____ For example “Are the new ideas good?”, “Do they fit me?” or “Will they make me feel happy?” It is certainly not easy to discover the answers to these questions, especially when you are still too young to have enough life experience to make proper decisions. ____18____First, face yourself. As the saying goes, “Knowing yourself is the beginning of all wisdom.” You have to honestly think about your own personal habits, even fears and worries. ____19____ A friend of mine decided to learn Beijing Opera. This may sound strange, but he said learning about “old things” made it easier for him to deal with the “new things” of modern life and all those changes. And the third thing is to spend time with nature. ____20____ Being with nature takes some time, but it will help you know yourself and forget the pressure of your “mental internal friction”. 根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使文章意思通顺、内容完整。 A. Second, develop new interests. B. They have to ask themselves questions. C. Society and technology may change, but nature remains the same. D. It leads some young people to experience “mental internal friction”. E. So there is some advice to help you cut down “mental internal friction”. 三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。 On August 14, Greta Thunberg set sail for the United States The 16-year-old girl is traveling across the Atlantic Ocean on a sailboat. She is ____21____ New York City. She will ____22____ a United Nations climate-change summit there in September. Greta lives in Sweden. She ____23____ to fly because airplanes produce carbon emissions that harm the planet. Big ships are also big polluters. In July, the team behind the Malizia II ____24____ to bring Greta to the United States. The Malizia is a high-tech racing sailboat. It produces ____25____ using solar panels and underwater turbines. Greta hopes to ____26____ zero carbon emissions on her journey across the Atlantic. The 60-foot boat was designed ____27____ ocean races. It’s not comfortable. It has no toilet or shower. ____28____ will eat freeze-dried food. The trip is ____29____ to last two weeks. “It’s not very comfortable,” Greta says. “It’s not very fancy,____30____ I don’t need that. I need only a bed and just the ____31____ things.” Greta will be joined by her father and by a filmmaker, who will record the ____32____. Two members of the boat’s team, Boris Herrmann and Pierre Casiraghi, will ____33____ be on the boat. Greta has become famous for promoting climate sense. Months ago, Greta got the Nobel Peace Prize. The ____34____ won’t be known until October. If Greta wins, she will become the ____35____ winner ever of the prize. 21. A. standing for B. looking for C. heading for D. fighting for 22. A. prepare B. produce C. afford D. attend 23. A. decides B. chooses C. refuses D. stops 24. A. began B. offered C. realized D. happened 25. A. energy B. waste C. carbon D. air 26. A. avoid B. create C. discover D. invent 27. A. like B. with C. for D. of 28. A. Patients B. Customers C. Guests D. Passengers 29. A. trusted B. expected C. controlled D. guided 30. A. so B. but C. if D. though 31. A. exact B. special C. cheap D. basic 32. A. weather B. food C. members D. trip 33. A. also B. even C. just D. still 34. A. fact B. story C. result D. report 35. A. youngest B. least C. best D. most 四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 第一节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。 sit sudden if produce like good leaf plant doubt success One day, the weather was fine. An engineer, Jerome Michaud-Lariviere, was ____36____ in a park. While he was enjoying the soft wind, he ____37____ noticed the leaves were moving. He thought ____38____ he could use the wind to provide something useful. An idea came to his mind, “That’s energy. Why not make use of it?” He decided to use a tree to produce electricity. Many people ____39____ whether he could make it. They thought that making this ____40____ was impossible because it might waste much time and money. However, Jerome didn’t give up. He organized a team and the members were all engineers. After three years’ hard work, they were ____41____ in developing a nearly eight-meter-tall “Wind Tree”. It looks ____42____ a tree but its plastic leaves can produce electricity. Each year, one “Wind Tree” can produce nearly 18,000 kWh, which is enough to support a family of four. Even ____43____, the trees make little noise in the process of work. This isn’t harmful to humans or animals. Jerome also made three different colors of ____44____ including the green, blue and orange in order to meet different people’s needs. So far, 130 “Wind Trees” have been ____45____ around the world. The “Wind Tree” not only is a meaningful invention for providing clean energy but also helps protect the environment. 第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺，意思完整。每空限填一词。 As we all know, the music continues to change. More ____46____ more people are fond of music. Not very long ago, pop singers and rock musicians were the kings and queens of music. Friends used ____47____ argue about the best band and they saved up their pocket money to buy their favourite bands’ latest records. In the past, DJs simply played the song ____48____ was ordered by people, but today they create the music. DJs had become popular in the music industry by the end of the 20th century. Plenty ____49____ young people were more interested in the beat or rhythm of the song than in the words. Now, DJs have become one of ____50____ most popular musicians in the world. They have thousands of fans around the world. 五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分） 根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 A: Hi, Mike! Congratulations! You have won the first prize in the Chinese Writing Competition! B: Thanks a lot. A: Could you tell me how to improve writing skills quickly? B: ________51________. A: I do agree with you. Reading is really useful. I also like reading books with beautiful bookmarks. Look at this one! B: How beautiful! ________52________? A: It is made of silk. I think special bookmarks can help me become more interested in reading. By the way, when did you begin to write stories? B: ________53________. A: That’s really early. I’m sure you will be a great writer. B: But my parents don’t want me to write more. A: Why? B: ________54________. They think it’s a good job. A: In fact, it’s not easy to be a doctor. B: I think so. But what should I do to change their ideas? A: ________55________? B: Sounds good. Thanks a lot. 六、书面表达（20分） 56. 成长的道路上，我们努力改变以提升自我。假如你是李华，你校英语广播站正在开展主题为“The change made me…”（改变让我……）的征文活动。请参考图文信息，积极投稿。 要求： 1.补全标题； 2.内容积极向上，不少于100词； 3.文中不得出现真实的人名和校名。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 郑州中学初中部2024-2025学年上期期中综合调研 九年级英语 命题人：杜慧杰 宋宜蔓 审题人：董园园 （考试时间：100分钟 满分：120分） 一、听力理解（20小题，第小题1分，共20分） 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。 1. Where has Linda been these days? A. She’s been to Xi’an. B. She’s been to Shanghai. C. She’s been to Beijing. 2. Why can’t Miss Lee come to the food festival? A. She has to do the housework. B. She has to prepare the lessons. C. She has to look after her grandma. 3. What kind of music does the woman like? A. Pop music. B. Classical music. C. Country music. 4. How often does the boy go swimming? A. Once a week B Twice a week. C. Once a month. 5. What color was Kathy’s bedroom before?. A. Green. B. Yellow. C. Blue. 第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。 6. What is Sam busy with? A. His plans. B. His lessons C. His exams. 7. Where will Sam live when he travels to Mount Tai? A. In the hotel. B. In Emma’s grandparents’ home. C. In Sam’s grandparents’ home. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。 8. Who is talking to Della? A. Her father. B Her classmate. C. Her teacher. 9. Why did Della go back home? A. To get her book. B. To borrow a book. C. To see her classmates. 听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。 10. Where did Donny want to stay that night? A. In the Rose Hotel. B. In the old man’s house. C. In his friend’s house. 11. How far is the old man's house to the hotel? A.20 miles. B.10 miles. C.5 miles. 12. What do you think of the old man? A. Clever. B. Rude. C. Stupid. 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。 13. What does Mrs. Miller want to buy for her son? A. A Christmas present. B.A birthday present. C. A New Year present. 14. How old is Mrs. Miler's son? A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven. 15. When did Mr. Allen buy the toy monkey? A. Last week. B. Last month. C. Last year. 第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。 16.________ 17.________ 18.________ 19.________ 20.________ 二、阅读理解（20小题，第小题2分，共40分） 阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。 A Dear students, We would like to introduce new rules about our canteen to reduce overcrowding. Students in different grades will go to the canteen at different times. The following timetable will be used from October of this year to March of next year. Please make a note about when you can go to the canteen for lunch. Time Oct. 1st, 2024—Nov. 30th, 2024 Dec. 1st, 2024—Jan. 31st, 2025 Feb. 1st, 2025—Mar. 31st, 2025 11:00 a.m. Grade 9 11:10 a.m. Grade 6 Grade 7 Grade 8 11:20 a.m. Grade 7 Grade 8 Grade 6 11:30 a.m. Grade 8 Grade 6 Grade 7 In order to create a comfortable environment in the dining hall, please follow these rules: *Please do not cut in line. *Please throw trash in the bins, and stack cutlery and plates on the shelves *Please leave the canteen as soon as you return your cutlery. Leave space for those who have not yet eaten. 1. According to the passage, how will the canteen do to reduce overcrowding? A. Only offer one meal to students every day. B. Provide some food for the students who are busy. C. Open more dining windows for students in Grade 9. D. Offer lunch to students in different grades at different times. 2. What time should Cindy, a student in Grade 6 go for lunch on December 24th, 2024? A. At 11:30 p.m. B. At 11:10 a.m. C. At 11:10 p.m. D. At 11:30 a.m. 3. What should students do according to the new rules? A. Leave at once after returning cutlery. B. Go for lunch as soon as the bell rings after class. C. Take notes about when going to the canteen for lunch. D. Place all cutlery and rubbish in different bins. 4. How long will the timetable last? A. 4 months. B. 5 months. C. 6 months. D. 7 months. 5. Where can you read this passage? A. A website about meals. B. The local newspaper. C. The school notice board. D. A guide book for students. 【答案】1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. C 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇应用文，主要介绍了学校食堂为了减少拥挤，针对不同年级学生制定了不同的午餐时间表，并列出了一些用餐规则。 【1题详解】 细节理解题。根据文章第一段“Students in different grades will go to the canteen at different times.”可知，食堂为了减少拥挤，会让不同年级的学生在不同的时间去食堂。故选D。 【2题详解】 细节理解题。根据表格中“Dec.1st, 2024—Jan. 31st, 2025”这一时间段，6年级学生的午餐时间是11:30 a.m.，所以Cindy在2024年12月24日应该在11:30 a.m.去吃午餐。故选D。 【3题详解】 细节理解题。根据文章最后一段“Please leave the canteen as soon as you return your cutlery.”可知，根据新规定，学生归还餐具后应立即离开食堂。故选A。 【4题详解】 细节理解题。根据表格中的时间范围“Oct. 1st, 2024—Mar. 31st, 2025”可知，这个时间表将持续6个月。故选C。 【5题详解】 推理判断题。根据文章开头“Dear students”以及整体内容是关于学校食堂的新规定，可以推断这篇文章最可能出现在学校的公告栏上。故选C。 B In the village in Kentucky, there lived a young girl named Amanda. She had moved here only two weeks earlier. Her closest friends were far from her. Amanda kept herself busy for hours by walking around the grassy fields nearby, enjoying the natural beauty around them. On the weekend, Amanda would even volunteer on farms to help take care of sheep, cows and horses. Still, it was easy for Amanda to feel lonely in her big house. One day, just as Amanda was about to leave and spend time walking around, she saw a cat jumping at the door. Even though the cat looked dirty, it was beautiful, with bright blue eyes. Amanda’s feeling of surprise quickly gave way to a feeling of pity. Thinking of what she could offer the cat, Amanda hurried to the kitchen and prepared two bowls: one filled with fish and the other with water. After sniffing (嗅) them carefully, the cat began to hungrily eat them. Once it finished its meal, the cat ran away into the thick grass and disappeared. From that day, the cat would appear at the door every day in the morning and Amanda would always be there. Their relationship started to deepen as Amanda enjoyed seeing her new “furry (毛茸茸的) neighbor” every day. The cat was too nervous to be taken indoors, but it gradually became comfortable with Amanda. However, one day, everything changed. In the morning, Amanda brought a bowl of fish near the door and waited for the cat as usual, but it didn’t appear. The next day, and the day after that, the cat didn’t show up either. She stepped into the grass where the cat usually went and searched carefully. At that time, she heard the sounds of kittens meowing. She was surprised to find her “furry neighbor” lying in the grass with four kittens. The kittens were very cute. Amanda quickly rushed back home to prepare some food and water for them. 6. The first paragraph is written to ________. A. show the character of Amanda B. create a picture of the beautiful village C. explain why people are busy D. introduce why Amanda moved 7. Which of the following shows Amanda’s feelings when she first met the cat? A. Surprised→happy. B. Surprised→pity. C. Worried→satisfied. D. Worried→happy. 8. What did the cat do when Amanda fed it? A. It sniffed the food carefully. B. It waited patiently. C. It refused to eat the food. D. It ran away quickly. 9. In Amanda’s eyes, what role did the cat play in her life? A. A pet that needed her so much. B. A friend who always helped her. C. A neighbor that she met every day. D. A family member that was kind to her. 10. What is the possible ending of the story? A. From then on, Amanda hid the kittens in the grass. B. From then on, Amanda made new friends at school. C. From then on, Amanda had four more furry neighbors. D. From then on, Amanda sent the little kittens to her neighbors. 【答案】6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. C 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，讲述了刚搬到肯塔基乡村的女孩阿曼达，从孤独到遇见一只猫并建立友谊的故事。后来猫妈妈生下四只小猫，阿曼达的生活因这些“毛茸茸的邻居”而充满温暖，体现了陪伴与关怀的主题。 【6题详解】 推理判断题。根据“Her closest friends were far from her...Amanda kept herself busy...Still, it was easy for Amanda to feel lonely”可知，本段介绍了阿曼达搬来后孤独的生活状态，为后文遇见猫做铺垫，故选A。 【7题详解】 细节理解题。根据“feeling of surprise quickly gave way to a feeling of pity”可知，阿曼达初见猫时先是惊讶，而后转为怜悯，故选B。 【8题详解】 细节理解题。根据“After sniffing them carefully, the cat began to hungrily eat them”可知，猫先是仔细闻了食物，然后开始吃，故选A。 【9题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Amanda enjoyed seeing her new ‘furry neighbor’ every day”可知，在阿曼达眼中，猫是每天见面的“毛茸茸的邻居”，故选C。 【10题详解】 推理判断题。根据最后一段阿曼达发现猫妈妈生下四只小猫，并急忙回家为它们准备食物和水可知，她接纳了这些小猫，从此她有了“四个更多的毛茸茸邻居”，故选C。 C Many of us spent our childhoods dreaming of becoming astronauts. However, only a few would make it. But does that mean you’ll never get the chance to work in space? Not necessarily. In fact, some of the space jobs are not only for astronauts and they all sound just cool. One of the most interesting space jobs is “chief sniffer (嗅探员)”. NASA has already had a sniffer named George Aldrich, whose job is to smell materials before they are used in spaceships. Using your nose at work might sound a little strange, but the job is actually important. A spaceship is of small size and high temperature, which makes smells inside stronger. And once a spaceship is sent, astronauts have no way to run away from unpleasant smells. More importantly, smelling objects can help find things that could do harm to astronauts’ health. Another job, the “space tour guide”, may seem a little ahead of its time—after all, there aren’t any tourists there. But now, many companies are starting to provide space trips and some rich space lovers have ordered the tours. It may not be long before space becomes one of the top travel places. Being a space tour guide requires rich knowledge to help passengers get the most out of their journey. Space tour guides also need to be excellent storytellers so that passengers can experience the true beauty of space travel. Astronauts often spend a long time in space with the same group of people, which is why a “space psychologist (心理学家)” is also needed to help astronauts overcome bad feelings. “We’re crossing the boundaries (界限) between science fiction and reality,” said Rohit Talwar, director of the US company Fast Future Research, “Things we’ve seen in movies are now becoming reality!” 11. How many space jobs are mentioned in the text? A Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five. 12. What’s George Aldrich’s job at NASA mainly about? A. Cheering astronauts up with excellent stories. B. Cleaning up dangerous things found in spaceships. C. Checking the size and temperature of the spaceships. D. Keeping astronauts safe from things with unpleasant smells. 13. What does Rohit Talwar think of future research in space? A. It’s relaxing. B. It’s moving. C. It’s exciting. D. It’s worrying. 14. Which is the right structure of the passage? (①=Paragraph 1 ②=Paragraph 2,…) A. B. C. D. 15. What is the best title for the text? A. True beauty of space travel B. Bright future of space research C. Dangerous life of being a sniffer D. More choices of working in space 【答案】11. B 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. D 【解析】 【导语】本文为说明文，主要介绍了除宇航员外，太空中的三种工作，分别是“首席嗅探员”、“太空导游”和“太空心理学家”。 【11题详解】 细节理解题。根据文章“One of the most interesting space jobs is ‘chief sniffer’.” “Another job, the ‘space tour guide’...” “which is why a ‘space psychologist’ is also needed...”可知，文中提到了三种太空工作：气味检测员、太空导游和太空心理学家。故选B。 【12题详解】 细节理解题。根据文章“NASA has already had a sniffer named George Aldrich, whose job is to smell materials before they are used in spaceships... And once a spaceship is sent, astronauts have no way to run away from unpleasant smells. More importantly, smelling objects can help find things that could do harm to astronauts’ health.”可知，George Aldrich的工作是通过嗅觉检测太空船中可能对宇航员健康造成危害的物品。故选D。 【13题详解】 推理判断题。根据文章“‘We’re crossing the boundaries between science fiction and reality,’ said Rohit Talwar... ‘Things we’ve seen in movies are now becoming reality!’”可知，Rohit Talwar认为太空研究正在从科幻走向现实，这一过程令人兴奋。故选C。 【14题详解】 篇章结构题。第一段引出话题，说明除了宇航员，还有其他太空工作；第二、三、四段分别介绍三种太空工作；第五段总结。属于“总-分-总”结构，对应选项A。故选A。 【15题详解】 最佳标题题。全文围绕太空领域的新型职业展开，强调未来在太空工作将有更多选择，而非仅限宇航员。选项D“更多太空工作的选择”最贴合文章主旨。故选D。 D Do you know a large number of young people are influenced by all kinds of choices today? ____16____ Scientists look on “mental internal friction” as the confusion that happens when people have to change their thoughts from “old ideas” to “new ideas”. ____17____ For example, “Are the new ideas good?”, “Do they fit me?” or “Will they make me feel happy?” It is certainly not easy to discover the answers to these questions, especially when you are still too young to have enough life experience to make proper decisions. ____18____First, face yourself. As the saying goes, “Knowing yourself is the beginning of all wisdom.” You have to honestly think about your own personal habits, even fears and worries. ____19____ A friend of mine decided to learn Beijing Opera. This may sound strange, but he said learning about “old things” made it easier for him to deal with the “new things” of modern life and all those changes. And the third thing is to spend time with nature. ____20____ Being with nature takes some time, but it will help you know yourself and forget the pressure of your “mental internal friction”. 根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使文章意思通顺、内容完整。 A. Second, develop new interests. B. They have to ask themselves questions. C. Society and technology may change, but nature remains the same. D. It leads some young people to experience “mental internal friction”. E. So there is some advice to help you cut down “mental internal friction”. 【答案】16. D 17. B 18. E 19. A 20. C 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要探讨了当代年轻人因面临过多选择而产生的“精神内耗”现象，并提供了三条应对建议。 【16题详解】 根据“Do you know a large number of young people are influenced by all kinds of choices today?”可知，此处应承接上文，说明这种影响带来的结果，选项D“这导致一些年轻人经历‘精神内耗’”符合语境。故选D。 【17题详解】 根据“For example, ‘Are the new ideas good?’, ‘Do they fit me?’ or ‘Will they make me feel happy?’”可知，此处是在举例说明人们会问自己问题，选项B“他们必须问自己问题”符合语境。根据“‘Are the new ideas good?’, ‘Do they fit me?’ or ‘Will they make me feel happy?’”可知结论是人们会问自己问题，选项B“他们不得不问自己一些问题”符合语境。故选B。 【18题详解】 根据“First, Face yourself...A friend of mine decided to learn Beijing opera...And the third thing is to spend time with nature.”可知，此处是引出应对“精神内耗”的建议，选项E“所以有一些建议可以帮助你减少‘精神内耗’”符合语境。故选E。 【19题详解】 根据“First, Face yourself...the third thing is to spend time with nature.”可知，第一条建议已阐述完毕，此处应转入第二条建议，选项A“第二，培养新的兴趣”符合语境。故选A。 【20题详解】 根据“And the third thing is to spend time with nature.”可知，此处是在阐述第三条建议“亲近自然”的具体理由，选项C“社会和技术可能会改变，但自然保持不变”符合语境。故选C。 三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。 On August 14, Greta Thunberg set sail for the United States The 16-year-old girl is traveling across the Atlantic Ocean on a sailboat. She is ____21____ New York City. She will ____22____ a United Nations climate-change summit there in September. Greta lives in Sweden. She ____23____ to fly because airplanes produce carbon emissions that harm the planet. Big ships are also big polluters. In July, the team behind the Malizia II ____24____ to bring Greta to the United States. The Malizia is a high-tech racing sailboat. It produces ____25____ using solar panels and underwater turbines. Greta hopes to ____26____ zero carbon emissions on her journey across the Atlantic. The 60-foot boat was designed ____27____ ocean races. It’s not comfortable. It has no toilet or shower. ____28____ will eat freeze-dried food. The trip is ____29____ to last two weeks. “It’s not very comfortable,” Greta says. “It’s not very fancy,____30____ I don’t need that. I need only a bed and just the ____31____ things.” Greta will be joined by her father and by a filmmaker, who will record the ____32____. Two members of the boat’s team, Boris Herrmann and Pierre Casiraghi, will ____33____ be on the boat. Greta has become famous for promoting climate sense. Months ago, Greta got the Nobel Peace Prize. The ____34____ won’t be known until October. If Greta wins, she will become the ____35____ winner ever of the prize. 21. A. standing for B. looking for C. heading for D. fighting for 22. A. prepare B. produce C. afford D. attend 23. A. decides B. chooses C. refuses D. stops 24. A. began B. offered C. realized D. happened 25. A. energy B. waste C. carbon D. air 26. A. avoid B. create C. discover D. invent 27. A. like B. with C. for D. of 28. A. Patients B. Customers C. Guests D. Passengers 29. A. trusted B. expected C. controlled D. guided 30. A. so B. but C. if D. though 31. A. exact B. special C. cheap D. basic 32. A. weather B. food C. members D. trip 33. A. also B. even C. just D. still 34. A. fact B. story C. result D. report 35. A. youngest B. least C. best D. most 【答案】21. C 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. B 31. D 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. A 【解析】 【导语】本文为记叙文，主要讲述16岁的Greta Thunberg乘坐帆船横渡大西洋前往美国纽约参加联合国气候变化峰会的故事，介绍了她的出行方式、帆船特点以及相关背景。 【21题详解】 句意：她正前往纽约市。 standing for代表；looking for寻找；heading for前往；fighting for为……而战。根据“On August 14, Greta Thunberg set sail for the United States”可知她是前往美国纽约，故选C。 【22题详解】 句意：她将在九月参加那里的联合国气候变化峰会。 prepare准备；produce生产；afford负担得起；attend参加。根据文章“a United Nations climate-change summit”可知，她要去参加联合国气候峰会，“attend a summit”表示“参加峰会”，故选D。 【23题详解】 句意：她拒绝坐飞机，因为飞机产生的碳排放会危害地球。 decides决定；chooses选择；refuses拒绝；stops停止。根据“because airplanes produce carbon emissions that harm the planet”可知，她飞机排放问题而拒绝坐飞机，故选C。 【24题详解】 句意：七月，Malizia II号背后的团队主动提出带Greta去美国。 began开始；offered主动提出；realized意识到；happened发生。根据上下文，团队主动提出用帆船载她跨洋，“offer to do sth.”表示“主动提出做某事”，故选B。 【25题详解】 句意：它利用太阳能电池板和水下涡轮机产生能量。 energy能量；waste废物；carbon碳；air空气。根据“using solar panels and underwater turbines”可知这些设备是用来发电的，是产生能量，故选A。 【26题详解】 句意：Greta希望在横渡大西洋的旅途中实现零碳排放。 avoid避免；create创造；discover发现；invent发明。根据前文她注重环保的行为以及“zero carbon emissions”可知，女孩想要实现低碳出行，保护地球，所以是创造零排放，故选B。 【27题详解】 句意：这艘60英尺的船是为海洋比赛设计的。 like像；with和；for为了；of……的。根据句子结构，此处表示设计目的，应用介词for，“be designed for”表示“为……而设计”，是固定搭配，故选C。 【28题详解】 句意：乘客将吃冻干食品。 Patients病人；Customers顾客；Guests客人；Passengers乘客。根据上文描述这是一艘船，在船上的人是乘客，故选D。 【29题详解】 句意：这次旅行预计持续两周。 trusted信任；expected预计；controlled控制；guided引导。根据文章“The trip is…to last two weeks”可知，旅程是预计耗时两周，“be expected to”表示“预计……”，故选B。 【30题详解】 句意：它不是很精致，但我不需要那个。 so所以；but但是；if如果；though尽管。前后句是转折关系，，表示船虽简陋但她不介意，故选B。 【31题详解】 句意：我只需要一张床和基本的东西。 exact确切的；special特别的；cheap便宜的；basic基本的。根据“I need only a bed”可知她只需要最基本的东西，故选D。 【32题详解】 句意：Greta的父亲和一位电影制作人将加入她，电影制作人将记录这次旅行。 weather天气；food食物；members成员；trip旅行。根据上下文，电影制作人随行是为了记录这次横渡大西洋的旅行，故选D。 【33题详解】 句意：船上团队的两名成员，Boris Herrmann和Pierre Casiraghi，也将一同在船上。 also也；even甚至；just仅仅；still仍然。这里表示除了父亲和电影制作人之外，两名成员“也”在船上，故选A。 【34题详解】 句意：结果要到十月才会公布。 fact事实；story故事；result结果；report报告。根据“Greta got the Nobel Peace Prize”可知是指获奖结果，故选C。 【35题详解】 句意：如果Greta获奖，她将成为该奖项有史以来最年轻的获奖者。 youngest最年轻的；least最少的；best最好的；most最多的。根据她16岁的年龄可知，若获奖则是最年轻得主。故选A。 四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 第一节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。 sit sudden if produce like good leaf plant doubt success One day, the weather was fine. An engineer, Jerome Michaud-Lariviere, was ____36____ in a park. While he was enjoying the soft wind, he ____37____ noticed the leaves were moving. He thought ____38____ he could use the wind to provide something useful. An idea came to his mind, “That’s energy. Why not make use of it?” He decided to use a tree to produce electricity. Many people ____39____ whether he could make it. They thought that making this ____40____ was impossible because it might waste much time and money. However, Jerome didn’t give up. He organized a team and the members were all engineers. After three years’ hard work, they were ____41____ in developing a nearly eight-meter-tall “Wind Tree”. It looks ____42____ a tree but its plastic leaves can produce electricity. Each year, one “Wind Tree” can produce nearly 18,000 kWh, which is enough to support a family of four. Even ____43____, the trees make little noise in the process of work. This isn’t harmful to humans or animals. Jerome also made three different colors of ____44____ including the green, blue and orange in order to meet different people’s needs. So far, 130 “Wind Trees” have been ____45____ around the world. The “Wind Tree” not only is a meaningful invention for providing clean energy but also helps protect the environment. 【答案】36. sitting 37. suddenly 38. if 39. doubted 40. plant 41. successful 42. like 43. better 44. leaves 45. produced 【解析】 【导语】本文为记叙文，主要讲述工程师Jerome Michaud-Lariviere受树叶随风摆动的启发，研发出“风树”来利用风能发电，介绍了研发过程、“风树”的特点及推广情况。 【36题详解】 句意：一位工程师Jerome Michaud-Lariviere正坐在公园里。根据“was...in a park”以及后文“享受微风”的语境可知，此处是指正坐在公园里，“sit”符合语境，本句是过去进行时，结构为“was/were + 现在分词”，“sit”的现在分词是“sitting”。故填sitting。 【37题详解】 句意：当他享受着柔和的风时，他突然注意到树叶在动。根据上下文可知，工程师是在享受微风时"突然"注意到树叶摆动，表示动作的突发性“sudden”符合语境，此处需要副词修饰动词“noticed”，“sudden”的副词形式“suddenly”表示“突然地”。故填suddenly。 【38题详解】 句意：他想他是否可以利用风来提供一些有用的东西。根据“He thought...he could use the wind to provide something useful”，以及后文“Why not”的疑问语气可知，此处选择“if”引导宾语从句表示不确定的想法。故填if。 【39题详解】 句意：很多人怀疑他是否能成功。根据“Many people…whether he could make it”以及语境可知，这里指人们怀疑他能否成功，“doubt”表示“怀疑”，符合语境，此处用一般过去时，“doubt”的过去式是“doubted”。故填doubted。 【40题详解】 句意：他们认为制造这种植物是不可能的，因为这可能会浪费很多时间和金钱。根据前文“He decided to use a tree to produce electricity.”可知，这里指代前文提到的“能产生电能的树”，“plant”表示“植物”，符合语境，这里用单数形式指代前文提到的“树”的概念。故填plant。 【41题详解】 句意：经过三年的努力工作，他们成功研发出一棵近八米高的“风树”。根据“Each year, one ‘Wind Tree’ can produce nearly 18,000 kWh, which is enough to support a family of four. ”，可知，他们成功研发出“风树”，“success”表示“成功”，符合语境，这里用“success”的形容词“successful”作表语，表示“成功的”。故填successful。 【42题详解】 句意：它看起来像一棵树，但它的塑料树叶可以发电。根据“It looks...a tree”可知，“look like”是固定搭配，意为“看起来像”，符合语境。故填like。 【43题详解】 句意：更好的是，这些树在工作过程中几乎没有噪音。根据“Even...the trees make little noise”可知，风树有环保优势，“good”符合语境，这里用比较级better与后文“little noise”形成递进关系，“even better”是固定表达，意为“更好的是”。故填better。 【44题详解】 句意：Jerome还制作了三种不同颜色的树叶，包括绿色、蓝色和橙色，以满足不同人的需求。根据“its plastic leaves can produce electricity”可知，风树上有塑料叶片，这里指Jerome制作了不同颜色的叶片，“leaf”表示“树叶”，符合语境，用复数leaves对应“三种颜色”。故填leaves。 【45题详解】 句意：到目前为止，全球已经生产了130棵“风树”。风树有环保节能的优点，所以会生产风树并安装使用。“produce”表示“生产”，符合语境，此处是现在完成时的被动语态，结构为“have been + 过去分词”，“produce”的过去分词是“produced”。故填produced。 第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺，意思完整。每空限填一词。 As we all know, the music continues to change. More ____46____ more people are fond of music. Not very long ago, pop singers and rock musicians were the kings and queens of music. Friends used ____47____ argue about the best band and they saved up their pocket money to buy their favourite bands’ latest records. In the past, DJs simply played the song ____48____ was ordered by people, but today they create the music. DJs had become popular in the music industry by the end of the 20th century. Plenty ____49____ young people were more interested in the beat or rhythm of the song than in the words. Now, DJs have become one of ____50____ most popular musicians in the world. They have thousands of fans around the world. 【答案】46. and 47. to 48. that##which 49. of 50. the 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文，介绍了音乐潮流从过去以流行歌手和摇滚乐队为主，发展到如今DJ成为全球最受欢迎音乐人的变迁过程，展现了音乐行业和大众喜好的演变。 【46题详解】 句意：越来越多的人喜欢音乐。“more and more”意为“越来越多”，此处需用连词“and”连接两个“more”，故填and。 【47题详解】 句意：朋友们过去常常争论哪个乐队最好，还省下零花钱买喜欢乐队的最新唱片。“used to do sth”意为“过去常常做某事”，此处需填“to”，故填to。 【48题详解】 句意：过去，DJ只是播放人们点的歌，但现在他们创作音乐。根据句子结构，空格后“was ordered by people”是定语从句，修饰先行词“the song”，且从句中缺主语，此处需用关系代词“that/which”，故填that/which。 【49题详解】 句意：很多年轻人对歌曲的节拍或节奏比对歌词更感兴趣。“plenty of”意为“大量的，许多的”，此处需填“of”，故填of。 【50题详解】 句意：现在，DJ已经成为世界上最受欢迎的音乐家之一。“one of+the+形容词最高级+可数名词复数”意为“……中最……之一”，此处需填定冠词“the”，故填the。 五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分） 根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 A: Hi Mike! Congratulations! You have won the first prize in the Chinese Writing Competition! B: Thanks a lot. A: Could you tell me how to improve writing skills quickly? B: ________51________. A: I do agree with you. Reading is really useful. I also like reading books with beautiful bookmarks. Look at this one! B: How beautiful! ________52________? A: It is made of silk. I think special bookmarks can help me become more interested in reading. By the way, when did you begin to write stories? B: ________53________. A: That’s really early. I’m sure you will be a great writer. B: But my parents don’t want me to write more. A: Why? B: ________54________. They think it’s a good job. A: In fact, it’s not easy to be a doctor. B: I think so. But what should I do to change their ideas? A: ________55________? B: Sounds good. Thanks a lot. 【答案】51. I think you should read more. Reading can help improve writing skills a lot 52. What’s it made of 53. I began to write stories at the age of six/When I was six years old 54. Because they want me to be a doctor 55. Why not have a talk with them and tell them your ideas about writing/Why don’t you show them your work and tell them you really love writing 【解析】 【导语】本文讲述了A祝贺B在中文写作比赛中获得一等奖，随后两人围绕如何提高写作技能、书签材质、B开始写故事的时间以及B父母希望他当医生而他想写作的矛盾等话题展开的对话。 【51题详解】 根据A的问题“Could you tell me how to improve writing skills quickly?”（你能告诉我如何快速提高写作技能吗？）以及后文A说“I do agree with you. Reading is really useful.”（我非常同意你。阅读真的很有用。），可推断B的回答应是关于阅读对提高写作有帮助的内容，可知要填关于阅读能帮助提高写作的句子，故填I think you should read more. Reading can help improve writing skills a lot。 【52题详解】 根据A回答“It is made of silk.”（它是丝绸做的。），可推断B的问题是询问书签的材质，可知要填询问材质的句子，故填What’s it made of。 【53题详解】 根据A的问题“By the way, when did you begin to write stories?”（顺便问一下，你什么时候开始写故事的？）以及后文A说“That's really early.”（那真的很早。），可推断B的回答是一个比较早的时间，可知要填关于开始写故事时间的句子，故填I began to write stories at the age of six/When I was six years old。 【54题详解】 根据A的问题“Why?”（为什么？）以及后文“They think it’s a good job.”（他们认为这是一份好工作。），可推断B的父母是希望他从事某一职业，结合后文提到的“doctor”，可知要填父母希望他当医生的句子，故填Because they want me to be a doctor。 【55题详解】 根据B的问题“But what should I do to change their ideas?”（但是我应该做什么来改变他们的想法呢？）以及后文“Sounds good. Thanks a lot.”（听起来不错。非常感谢。），可推断A的回答是一个建议，可知要填关于和父母沟通或者展示写作成果的建议类句子，故填Why not have a talk with them and tell them your ideas about writing/Why don’t you show them your work and tell them you really love writing。 六、书面表达（20分） 56. 成长的道路上，我们努力改变以提升自我。假如你是李华，你校英语广播站正在开展主题为“The change made me…”（改变让我……）的征文活动。请参考图文信息，积极投稿。 要求： 1.补全标题； 2.内容积极向上，不少于100词； 3.文中不得出现真实的人名和校名。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】The change made me better Changes are always around us. For me, one change made me a better person. I used to be very careless. I often made mistakes in my homework and even forgot important things. Once, because of my carelessness, I failed a math test. I was very sad, but my teacher told me that I could change. So I decided to be more careful. I started to check my homework twice every time. Little by little, I became more careful. In the next math test, I got a good grade. This change not only improved my study but also made me more confident. It made me know that as long as we work hard, we can become better. 【解析】 【详解】[总体分析] ①题材： 本文是一篇材料作文； ②时态：以一般过去时主； ③提示：围绕主题，包含事件经过、个人感受及成长收获 [写作步骤] 第一步，开篇点明“改变常伴我们左右”这一观点，引出“改变让我成为更好的人”这一核心主题； 第二步，详细阐述过去“粗心”的表现，以及因粗心导致数学考试失利的经历，进而说明自己决定做出改变的缘由； 第三步，描述具体的改变措施（如每次作业检查两遍）、改变的过程（逐渐变得细心）以及改变带来的结果（数学成绩提升、变得更自信），最后总结感悟 “只要努力，就能变得更好”。 [亮点词汇] ①careless粗心的 ②make mistakes犯错误 ③little by little渐渐地 ④decide to do sth.决定做某事 [高分句型] ①I used to be very careless.（“used to”结构） ②It made me know that as long as we work hard, we can become better.（宾语从句和as long as引导的条件状语从句） 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $