黑龙江省克东县第一中学2025-2026学年高三上学期9月英语试卷

九月质量检测 高三英语试题 全卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 注意事项： 1．答题前，先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2．请按题号顺序在答题卡上各题目的答题区域内作答，写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 3．选择题用2B铅笔在答题卡上把所选答案的标号涂黑；非选择题用黑色签字笔在答题卡上作答；字体工整，笔迹清楚。 4．考试结束后，请将试卷和答题卡一并上交。 5．本卷主要考查内容：高考范围。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A．£19.15. B．£9.18. C．£9.15. 答案是C。 1．What can we know about Michelle? A．She looks attractive. B．She hasn’t arrived yet. C．She feels hungry. 2．When is Gina’s car supposed to arrive probably? A．At 10:20. B．At 10: 30. C．At 10:40. 3．Where are the speakers most probably? A．In a hotel. B．In a shop. C．In a kitchen. 4．What is the glass building? A．A post office. B．A hotel. C．A church. 5．What are the speakers mainly talking about? A．A report. B．A research. C．A department. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6．How many people can live in the dormitory at most? A．Three. B．Four. C．Five. 7．What are the girl’s roommates doing? A．Studying. B．Climbing the stairs. C．Doing some cleaning. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8．What is Mark? A．A student. B．A professor. C．A soldier. 9．How old is James Hatch? A．40 years old. B．50 years old. C．52 years old. 10．Why did James leave the army? A．Because of his wound. B．Because of his family. C．Because of his age. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11．Where did the man stay when he was in China? A．In his own house. B．In a local people’s home. C．In a guest house. 12．When did the man go to Spain? A．Last week. B．Last month. C．Last year. 13．What matters when the woman chooses a hotel? A．The bed. B．The location. C．The cost. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14．What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A．Workmates. B．A couple. C．Neighbours. 15．Why did the man miss watching the movie? A．He fell sick. B．His eyes hurt. C．He had a sleep. 16．What type of show does the public never get tired of? A．Talk shows. B．Situation comedies. C．Game shows. 17．Which channel is the situation comedy on? A．Channel 5. B．Channel 9. C．Channel 11. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18．What hit Ned Tarmey? A．A brick. B．A chair. C．A rock. 19．What can be said about the dog? A．Noisy B．Scared. C．Brave. 20．What can we infer from the talk? A．The family will get another dog. B．The attacker will apologize to Ned. C．Ned will be more grateful to the dog. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Onions are a useful crop, coming in a range of colours for different uses in the kitchen. Onions are a main course in a huge variety of dishes. All onion varieties are easy to grow and they store well, too, so you can enjoy home-grown onions all year round. How to grow onions You can grow onions from seed, but it’s much easier and quicker to grow them from sets(small onions). Most are heat-treated, meaning they’re less likely to produce flowers. One small onion set grows into one larger onion. Plant these in autumn or spring, 10 — 15 cm apart in well-prepared, moisture-retentive (吸湿的), fat soil in full sun. Keep the area weed free and water in dry periods. Harvest the onions when they’re big enough to eat or the leaves have turned brown and started to die away. How long do onions take to grow? Onions require 90 — 100 days to mature from seed, which is around four months. From sets, onions are ready to harvest after around 80 days, or just under three months. How to sow onion seed Sow onion seed indoors as early as January, so they are large enough to plant out in spring. Sow seed in a pot of wet seed compost (堆肥), about 1 cm apart. When the plants are a few inches tall, pull them out and transplant into fresh, peat-free multi-purpose compost. Once established, transplant plants into the garden, 10 — 15 cm apart. How to plant onion sets There’s no need to soak (浸泡) onion sets before planting. Plant them 10 — 15 cm apart, allowing 30 cm between rows. Plant them just below the soil surface, with just the tips showing, in moisture-retentive, fat soil, ideally with plenty of well-rotted organic matter such as garden compost. 1. When can we harvest onions? A. When they come up. B. When sets are inches tall. C. When leaves turn brown. D. When they begin to expand. 2. What are you forbidden to do while growing onions? A. Heat the small onions. B. Put the sets in the water. C. Pull the sets out to the garden. D. Expose the top out of the soil surface. 3. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text? A. To introduce. B. To entertain. C. To persuade. D. To advertise. B Gaia, a 9-year-old dog, lived in Dallas, Texas, with her elderly owner, Sandra. However, when Sandra fell ill and was hospitalized, Gaia found herself limited to a small backyard, longing for companionship. It was during this challenging time that a sympathetic neighbour, Lisa Kanarek, noticed Gaia’s solitude and decided to make a difference. Despite having only met Sandra a few times and barely knowing Gaia, Lisa extended a helping hand, offering to take Gaia for a walk. What started as a simple act of kindness soon blossomed into a daily routine of walks that lasted for three weeks. As fate would have it, two weeks before Sandra’s passing, a dean friend of hers approached Lisa with a heartfelt proposal. Aware of the bond formed between Gaia and Lisa, the friend asked if Lisa would consider becoming Gaia’s new caregiver. Without hesitation, Lisa accepted the responsibility, and Gaia officially moved into her new home. From that moment on, Gaia’s life underwent a transformative journey. Lisa quickly discovered that Gaia had a calm and peaceful presence, especially around children. Inspired by this realization, Lisa and Gaia started with a new adventure by enrolling in a pet therapy (治疗) programme. Their journey started at children’s hospitals, where Gaia’s gentle behaviour brought comfort and joy to young patients. Following their success, Lisa and Gaia expanded their reach to those in hospice (临终安养院) care. The two have become a lighthouse for individuals facing difficult circumstances, providing companionship, warmth, and healing through their therapeutic visits. 4. What does the underlined word “solitude” in Paragraph 1 mean? A. Contentment. B. Loneliness. C. Anger. D. Excitement. 5. What initially caused Lisa Kanarek to take Gaia for a walk? A. Her own illness. B. Sandra’s passing. C. Gaia’s situation. D. A friend’s suggestion. 6. How did Lisa and Gaia’s relationship develop over time? A. It remained distant. B. It ended suddenly. C. It got worse over time. D. It grew increasingly close. 7. What did Gaia do in the pet therapy programme? A. She provided comfort to patients. B. She treated patients’ physical illnesses. C. She helped Lisa with administrative tasks. D. She trained other dogs for therapy work. C Even walking as few as 4,000 steps a day may reduce your risk of dying from any cause, the largest analysis to date suggests-although the more you walk, the greater the health benefits. The idea that a sedentary (久坐的) lifestyle is linked to poorer health is well-established, but it has been unclear what the optimal (最佳的) number of steps people should aim for is, and whether there is an upper limit beyond which further health gains are minimal. To investigate, researchers led by Maciej Banach, a professor of cardiology (心脏病学) at the Medical University of Lodz in Poland, drew on data from 17 previous studies — involving 226,889 people, who were followed for an average seven years — to assess the health impacts of different daily step counts. The study, published in the European Journal of Preventive Cardiology, suggested that walking at least 3,967 steps a day started to reduce the risk of dying from any cause, while 2,337 steps a day reduced the risk of dying from cardiovascular (心血管的) diseases. Above these cut-offs, each increase of 1,000 steps a day was associated with a 15% reduction in the risk of dying from any cause, while an increase of 500 steps a day was associated with a 7% reduction in dying from cardiovascular disease. “Our study confirms that the more you walk, the better. We found that this applied to both men and women, regardless of age, and regardless of where you live,” Banach said. For younger age groups, the sharpest improvement in health was seen in individuals taking between 7,000 and 13,000 daily steps, while for those aged 60 years and over, it was at between 6,000 to 10,000 steps. James Leiper, the associate medical director at the British Heart Foundation, said, “This research shows us just how good walking is for our health. If you packaged the benefits as a pill, we would be praising it as a wonder drug. What’s great about walking is that it does not require special equipment or training, and you can do it almost anywhere.” 8. Why did the researchers do the study? A. To seek reasons for cardiovascular diseases. B. To compare different ways of keeping healthy. C. To test whether walking can reduce early death. D. To find out the ideal number of steps for improved health. 9 How did the researchers draw their conclusions? A. By comparing the results. B. By listing some examples. C. By surveying the participants. D. By using data from earlier investigations. 10. What is James Leiper’s opinion about walking? A It isn’t a wonder drug. B. It does not require training. C. It has minimal health benefits. D. It should be done in specific areas. 11. What’s the best title for the text? A. The Risks of a Sedentary Lifestyle B. The Healthy Lifestyle for All Age Groups C. The Benefits and Harm Walking Can Bring D. Walking As Few As 4,000 Steps a Day Can Reduce Risk of Dying D Fully self-driving cars, despite the claims of some companies, aren’t exactly ready to hit the roads anytime soon. There’s even a solid case to be made that completely autonomous vehicles (AVs) will never take over everyday travel. Regardless, some urban planners are already looking into ensuring how such a future could be as safe and efficient. According to a team at North Carolina State University, one solution may be changing the more-than-century-old design of traffic signals. The ubiquity (普遍性) of stop lights’ Red-Yellow-Green phases aren’t just coincidence (巧合). Dating back to 1931, this has served drivers pretty well since then, but the NC State team argues AVs could eventually create the opportunity for better road conditions. Or, at the very least, could benefit from some basic adjustments. Last year, researchers led by environmental engineering associate professor Ali Hajbabaie created a computer model for city commuting (通勤) patterns which indicated everyday driving could one day actually improve from a sizable pour of AVs. By sharing their massive amounts of real-time sensor information with one another, Hajbabaie and colleagues believe these vehicles could in theory coordinate (使协调) far beyond simple crossroads changes to adjust variables like speed and break times. To further make the best use of these benefits, they put forward the introduction of a fourth, “white” light to traffic signals. In this model, the “white” phase activates(激活)whenever enough interconnected AVs approach a crossroad. Once lit, the phase indicates nearby drivers should simply follow the car (AV or human) in front of them, instead of trying to anticipate something like a yellow light’s transition time to red. Additionally, such inter-connectivity could communicate with traffic signal systems to determine when it is best for “Walk” and “Do-Not-Walk” pedestrian (行人) signals. Based on their modelling, it appeared that such a change could reduce crossroads jam by at least 40 percent compared to current traffic system optimization software. In doing so, this could improve overall travel times, fuel efficiency, and safety. 12. What can we learn about completely autonomous vehicles (AVs)? A. They have settled traffic jam problems. B. They have become popular in urban areas. C. They will take the place of other vehicles. D. They may not be widely used in the future. 13. What does the “white” light do? A. It tells drivers to stop. B. It helps drivers avoid traffic jams. C. It allows drivers to go through crossroads faster. D. It makes it easier for pedestrians to cross the street. 14. What is the author’s attitude towards the idea of a fourth “white” light? A. Neutral. B. Worried. C. Doubtful. D. Supportive. 15. What is probably the text? A. A news report. B. A research paper. C. A commercial ad. D. A science fiction. 第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Effective communication is the process of expressing your thoughts, opinions, and ideas while listening to the input of others. Then how to communicate effectively? ·Organize your thoughts before speaking. Before you attempt to communicate ideas, organize your thoughts using key points. ___16___ That way, if you go off topic, you can easily come back to your main points without getting upset. ·Keep your audience in mind. If you’re giving a presentation, consider the interests, differences, and anticipated levels of knowledge on the topic you’re speaking on. For instance, if you’re lecturing a college-level Biology course, students should have a good grasp of evolution and cell theory. Similarly, if you’re lecturing students, you may want to choose visual aids to catch their attention. ___17___ ·Be clear when speaking. Be clear about your goal so your message comes across in a way that every listener can understand. ___18___ You want to speak at a volume level that is guaranteed to be heard. It may be helpful to remember the 5Cs of communication, which include clarity, conciseness (简洁), consistency, connection, and confidence. ·Maintain eye contact. Eye contact builds harmony, helps convince others you’re trustworthy and shows interest. During a conversation or presentation, maintain eye contact for as long as it feels natural. Generally, you’ll want to aim for 2 to 4 seconds at a time. ___19___ If you’re addressing a boardroom, look each member in the eye. Ignoring any single person can easily be taken as a sign of offense. ·Practise active listening skills. ___20___ By actively listening, you can judge how much of your message is getting through your listeners and whether or not it’s being received correctly. If your audience needs clarification, asking for feedback is often helpful. A. Communication is a two-way street. B. Remember to take in all of your audience. C. This helps individuals feel personally valued. D. Be sure to express clearly to avoid any kind of misunderstanding. E. Use charts in professional environments when presenting new ideas to clients. F. A good rule is to choose three main points to centre your conversation around. G. Common signs someone isn’t listening to you include looking bored and silence. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A woman suffering from a severe disease has come up with a creative way to make sure she can read aloud to her future grandchildren. “I want my grandkids to ___21___ that they were deeply ___22___ even before they were born,” said Della Larsen, a teacher and mum of three. Larsen was diagnosed in 2023 with ALS (肌萎缩侧索硬化症), a disease that ___23___ a person’s motor nerve cells, interfering (干扰) with the brain’s ability to control muscle movements. The ___24___ can cause different symptoms (症状), including ___25___ speech and voice changes. ___26___ that ALS could affect her voice, Larsen ___27___ a plan to read to her future grandchildren, even though her kids don’t have children of their own yet. Larsen ___28___ that she learned about voice banking, where one’s voice and phrases were ___29___, and a generated voice was created from the recordings. She recorded herself reading thirty books for ___30___, to be watched and enjoyed in the future. “Before I was diagnosed, I was a kindergarten ___31___, and the thought of not being able to read to them made me ___32___, so by recording the books, they can hear me reading them.” In the end, Della Larsen’s ___33___ solution not only allowed her to achieve her dream of reading to her grandchildren but also created a lasting ___34___ between generations. Today, Larsen uses a wheelchair and her voice has changed ___35___, with her speech becoming much more unclear. 21 A. trust B. confirm C. guess D. know 22. A. expected B. admired C. loved D. missed 23. A. attracts B. affects C. produces D. strengthens 24. A. event B. injury C. disease D. drug 25. A. indirect B. brief C. unclear D. short 26. A. Supposing B. Realizing C. Imagining D. Providing 27. A. decided on B. worked on C. stuck to D. picked up 28. A. urged B. promised C. predicted D. explained 29. A. classified B. assessed C. recorded D. analyzed 30. A. children B. adults C. students D. travellers 31. A. consultant B. teacher C. cook D. guard 32. A. awkward B. nervous C. frightened D. sad 33. A. innovative B. peaceful C. temporary D. quick 34. A. gap B. bond C. barrier D. conflict 35. A. occasionally B. slightly C. hardly D. significantly 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Leonardo da Vinci’s The Last Supper, which he painted between 1495 and 1498, is a masterpiece ____36____ has changed the way people look at art. The Last Supper gave religious art a level of realism and depth that had never been seen before. During the Renaissance, Leonardo da Vinci’s new ways of making art pushed the limits of ____37____ was possible. One of the most exciting things about this painting is how Leonardo paid attention to detail and used perspective.____38____ (use) linear perspective (线性视角), he gave the scene a sense of depth and three-dimensionality that drew people into it. Also, the way Leonardo drew different ____39____ (face) expressions changed how artists show how people feel and tell stories. Each disciple’s (门徒的) face reflects ____40____ unique range of reactions and personalities, capturing the complex dynamics of the moment. This focus on individuality and psychological depth ____41____ (be) unheard of then,____42____ (great) impacting the artists who came after him. The Last Supper still shows how talented Leonardo da Vinci was ____43____ an artist and how he was able ____44____ (push) the limits of art. It has inspired many artists, scholars, and art lovers over the years, making it one of the most famous and influential ____45____ (painting) in art history. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假定你是某国际学校的学生会主席李华，你们学校正在开展“创建美丽校园”的活动。请你用英语给全校学生写一封倡议书。要点包括： 1. 校园内存在的不文明现象； 2. 创建美丽校园的重要性； 3. 你的建议； 注意：1.词数 80 字左右（开头已经给出，不计入总词数） 2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 Dear fellow students, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ the Students’ Union 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I was angry about my father in the first year of college, because he didn’t care about my feelings all. One day I had a serious quarrel with him. I was fed up with his direction and correction. How could he interfere with my life and my study plans? How could he understand the importance of my university activities? The only thing that he cared about was my academic performance! He didn’t understand my world and I didn’t understand his, either. I stormed out and sighed all the way to school. Suddenly I realized that I didn’t have the assignment that was due: a thought card. This class was taught by Dr. Sidney B. Simon. The thought card was the admission ticket to his class. He would return them to us with his comment. My first thought card read, “All that glitters(发光) is not gold.” He commented, “What does this quote mean to you? Is it significant?” Obviously, he was taking it seriously. I surely didn’t want to reveal myself to him. The week progressed. Dr. Simon’s class was quite brilliant. He challenged us to think and come up with our own responses. But I had no handling strategies to deal with it. The second Tuesday came. I wrote on my card “The most important thing in communication is to hear what isn’t being said.” The next day the card came back: “You seem to need a listener. Is this important to your life?” I couldn’t remember a teacher caring personally about me since primary school. With all these memories filling my mind, I raced to class. Just outside the door, I took a card and wrote, “I have the most terrible Dad of the world!” Then I dashed in. Looking up at me, he reached out for the card, and I took my seat. The moment I sat down, I felt terrible. I didn’t mean to let that out. That night I had difficiulty sleeping. What if he contacted my dad? 注意： 1.续写词数应为150左右： 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 On Wednesday morning I came to class with mixed feelings. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ I held the card tightly, thinking about his words. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 九月质量检测 高三英语试题 全卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 注意事项： 1．答题前，先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2．请按题号顺序在答题卡上各题目的答题区域内作答，写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 3．选择题用2B铅笔在答题卡上把所选答案的标号涂黑；非选择题用黑色签字笔在答题卡上作答；字体工整，笔迹清楚。 4．考试结束后，请将试卷和答题卡一并上交。 5．本卷主要考查内容：高考范围。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A．£19.15. B．£9.18. C．£9.15. 答案是C。 1．What can we know about Michelle? A．She looks attractive. B．She hasn’t arrived yet. C．She feels hungry. 2．When is Gina’s car supposed to arrive probably? A．At 10:20. B．At 10: 30. C．At 10:40. 3．Where are the speakers most probably? A．In a hotel. B．In a shop. C．In a kitchen. 4．What is the glass building? A．A post office. B．A hotel. C．A church. 5．What are the speakers mainly talking about? A．A report. B．A research. C．A department. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6．How many people can live in the dormitory at most? A．Three. B．Four. C．Five. 7．What are the girl’s roommates doing? A．Studying. B．Climbing the stairs. C．Doing some cleaning. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8．What is Mark? A．A student. B．A professor. C．A soldier. 9．How old is James Hatch? A．40 years old. B．50 years old. C．52 years old. 10．Why did James leave the army? A．Because of his wound. B．Because of his family. C．Because of his age. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11．Where did the man stay when he was in China? A．In his own house. B．In a local people’s home. C．In a guest house. 12．When did the man go to Spain? A．Last week. B．Last month. C．Last year. 13．What matters when the woman chooses a hotel? A．The bed. B．The location. C．The cost. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14．What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A．Workmates. B．A couple. C．Neighbours. 15．Why did the man miss watching the movie? A．He fell sick. B．His eyes hurt. C．He had a sleep. 16．What type of show does the public never get tired of? A．Talk shows. B．Situation comedies. C．Game shows. 17．Which channel is the situation comedy on? A．Channel 5. B．Channel 9. C．Channel 11. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18．What hit Ned Tarmey? A．A brick. B．A chair. C．A rock. 19．What can be said about the dog? A．Noisy. B．Scared. C．Brave. 20．What can we infer from the talk? A．The family will get another dog. B．The attacker will apologize to Ned. C．Ned will be more grateful to the dog. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. B 3. A B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. C 6. D 7. A C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. D 10. B 11. D D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. D 13. B 14. D 15. A 第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. F 17. E 18. D 19. C 20. A 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. D 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. that##which 37. what 38. Using 39. facial 40. a 41. was 42. greatly 43. as 44. to push 45. paintings 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】 Dear fellow students, At present, our school is carrying out an activity called “Building a Beautiful Campus”, and I am here to call on everyone to take an active part in it. An attractive campus can make our learning pleasant and improve our grades. However, some students can be seen running on the lawn, picking flowers or throwing rubbish everywhere, which have already harmed our school environment. It’s time we did something to change the situation. From my perspective, everyone is responsible for the beauty of our campus. Besides, if we all avoid doing anything improper, our campus will become more beautiful. Every effort matters. Let’s take action now. the Students’ Union 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】On Wednesday morning I came to class with mixed feelings. At first, Dr. Sidney B. Simon. did not return the card to me. I sat in my usual seat, opening the book with worry and fear. I thought that Dr. Sidney B. Simon must have told my father about this. What was waiting for me was another more severe argument. After class, as I was walking to the door of the classroom, it was Dr. Sidney B. Simon who was calling my name. Then he told me that he would be my listener and exchanged the card with the words “Good medicine is hard, but good advice is hard to hear”. I held the card tightly, thinking about his words. I was wondering whether I should tell my father what had happened these days. I found my father waiting for me at the school gate with the gift I had always wanted. That day, I walked home with my father. The setting sun shone on us, casting our shadows on the road. Cars of various colors passed by us, but they did not affect our conversation. We talked a lot that day, and it seemed that the journey from home to school had also been shortened. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $