湖南省祁东县第二中学2025-2026学年高一上学期入学考试英语试题

祁东县第二中学2025年高一英语入学摸底考试 时量：120分钟 满分：150分 第一部分 听力（共20题；每小题1.5分，满分30分） 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What did the woman do? A. She typed a paper. B. She wrote another report. C. She changed some numbers. 2. What did the man think of the festival this year? A. It was great as a whole. B. It was better than last year’s. C. The dance music was the best. 3. What are the speakers talking about? A. A skiing trip. B. A new jacket. C. The weather. 4. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a gym. B. In a hospital. C. In a clothes store. 5. What does the woman mean? A. The man should wear a tie. B. The man forgot to do his hair. C. The man’s clothes don’t match. 第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What does the man want the woman to do? A. Introduce Ms. Jennings to him. B. Go to an opera with him. C. Help him buy tickets. 7. What will the woman do tonight? A. Attend a party. B. Work in the office. C. Do some shopping. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What is the man doing? A. Attending a lecture. B. Hosting a program. C. Holding a conference. 9. What does Susan focus on? A. Car accidents. B. Sickness and health. C. Children’s safety at home. 10. Which accident happens most at home? A. Cuts. B. Burns. C. Broken bones. 听第8段材料，回答第11至14题。 11. Why is the woman unwilling to keep a dog? A. She doesn’t like it. B. There’s no room for it. C. She is too busy to walk it. 12. How does the woman find spiders? A. Dangerous. B. Quiet. C. Interesting. 13. What animal does the woman seem to be interested in? A. Cats. B. Snakes. C. Ants. 14. What is the woman likely to do? A. Seek information online. B. Shop at another store. C. Buy a pet right away. 听第9段材料，回答第15至17题。 15. What is Ann? A. A boss. B. A secretary. C. A manager. 16. When will Mr. Jones’s train leave for London? A. At 9:30 a.m. B. At 11:30 a.m. C. At 5:00 p.m. 17. Who will Mr. Jones meet on Thursday? A. Ms. Smith. B. Mr. Black. C. Mike. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. When did Alan Turing design a machine to solve mathematical problems? A. At the age of 19. B. At the age of 23. C. At the age of 24. 19. What kind of computer can pass the Turing Test? A. One that behaves like a human. B. One that helps people work. C. One that looks like a human. 20. What do we know about Alan Turing? A. He studied maths in the USA. B. His contribution was of great worth. C. He was fond of computers since childhood. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。 A Welcome to Our Festival Story Show in Oheron Adults 8:00 pm-10:00 pm Join us for an evening of true, personal stories about science. Come to the only show where you can hear people—scientists, not-scientists, and half-scientists—tell funny and touching stories about the role of science in their lives. Cost: $10 Make Your Own iPhone Case through Toysinbox 3D Printing Families & Teens & Adults 10:00 am-12:30 pm In this workshop, you will learn to design and make your own iPhone case by 3D printing. First, you will learn how to use a 3D printer. Next, you will design a 3D model for your iPhone case that will have a lovely pattern and your name. Once you create the model, you will print it out on our 3D printers. A 3D-printing worker will guide you through this process step by step. Come and enjoy this fun and unique learning experience! Cost: $35 DIY Underwater Vehicle Design in MIT Museum Teens 2:00 pm-5:00 pm Dive into the world of ocean engineering by designing and building an underwater vehicle! Test your vehicle in large tanks on the Museum’s floor. Show off your engineering creations and share your design process with Museum visitors. Cost: $15, Ages 12 Animal Kingdom for Young Ones in Museum of Science, Boston Families 9:30 am-2:00 pm Join us for a day of hands-on science fun designed especially for pre-schoolers! Activities include the Museum’s popular “Live Animal Story Time” shows and a talk about baby animals and book-signing by children’s book authors. Take part in special live animal visits and activities in the exhibition halls, as well as design challenges and lab activities—all created with your young scientist in mind! Cost: free, from Ages Pre-kindergarten to Ages 8 21. What can people do in Story Show? A. Do role-play games. B. Put on science shows. C. Hear touching stories. D. Meet authors of the books. 22. If you are interested in ocean engineering, you will probably attend ________ . A. Story Show B. DIY Underwater Vehicle Design C. Make Your Own iPhone Case D. Animal Kingdom for Young Ones 23. Animal Kingdom for Young Ones is designed for________. A. Adults B. children of all ages C. kids under 8 years old D. children aged twelve and older B Even at 80, Mei Jingtian still patrols (巡逻) the Shixiaguan part of the Great Wall. With over 40 years of experience, he taps the overgrown ground with a wooden stick, warning wild animals for safety. He lives in Shixia village near the 8.6-kilometer part. Shixia villagers have a deep love for the wall. Mei remembers when he ran and played hide-and-seek with his friends on the large building as a child. However in 1979, when he returned to Shixia after working outside for years, he was shocked by the terrible situation of the old wall. “Some villagers even took stones from it to build their houses,” Mei says. To protect the wonder, Mei volunteered as a guardian, patrolling 20 kilometers daily, preventing people from taking stones, writing on the wall or dropping litter. In 1984, a Great Wall protection program started, with Mei’s effort encouraging many, and it was quickly picked up by villagers in Shixia. Realizing the importance of protection, more and more of them returned the stones they had taken and joined Mei on patrol. In 2006, as village head, Mei set up a volunteer protection organisation, and about 80 of 100 villagers joined as guardians. His niece, Liu Hongyan, encouraged by him, also became a guardian in 2019. “When I was a child, my uncle always told me his patrol stories and talked about the history of the Great Wall,” Liu says. “It is my duty and responsibility to protect the Great Wall.” Mei’s hard work has made a difference. From 2015 to 2023, 289 protection projects were allowed and thousands of guardians joined. Even though there is progress, the Shixiaguan part still remains closed to the public. “My biggest wish,” Mei says, “is to see the Great Wall well-protected and open for all to visit, encouraging more people to join us in protecting it.” 24. What made Mei Jingtian decide to protect the Great Wall? A The dream of being a hero. B. The influence of his friends. C. Poor condition of the Great Wall. D. Encouragement from the villagers. 25. What do the underlined words “picked up” in paragraph 3 probably mean? A. Recognised. B. Finished. C. Managed. D. Developed. 26. Which of the following best describes Mei Jingtian? A. Careful and confident. B. Kind-hearted and humorous. C. Creative and curious. D. Responsible and strong-willed. 27. What does the text mainly talk about? A. A lifelong guardian of the Great Wall. B. Villagers’ deep love for the Great Wall. C. The progress in protecting the Great Wall. D. A practical Great Wall protection program. C France is famous the world over for its wonderful food. If you were lucky enough to enjoy a French meal, you would most likely be offered some bread to eat with it. The most popular bread they bake is called a baguette. Ten million baguettes are sold every year in France. Because the French expect their bread to be super fresh, most of France’s 30, 000 bakers have to end their day by throwing into the waste bin any remaining baguettes. Frenchman Franck Wallet has thought about this food waste issue for many years. He originally trained to be an urban (城市的) planner and worked in that area for many years. But his mind would regularly turn to the problems of what to do with wasted food — especially baguettes. He began to talk with some engineers to see if they could come up with a solution. In 2016, a solution was found. They called the machine the “Crumbier”. When a good baguette is just made, it is crispy on the outside and as soft as a cloud on the inside. Once it has cooled down the bread soon becomes hard. Before the Crumbier, this old bread would be thrown away. Today, if that bread is placed into the Crumbier, it is very quickly turned into very fine breadcrumbs (面包屑). These can be mixed with fresh flour (面粉), salt and water and baked again like normal bread. Bread made with Crumbier breadcrumbs has a darker colour, but just a little bit. The taste is also a little different and has been described as having the flavour of toast. Once the breadcrumbs have been produced, they can last up to six months if they have been packed properly. Because less water is used in Crumbier bread, it will last a little longer. The Crumbier is now on sale and bakers throughout France are making sure they have one. No one wants to waste food. 28. What do most of French bakers do at the end of their day? A. Prepare the materials for the next day. B. Give the remaining bread out for free. C. Throw the remaining bread away. D. Sell the bread at a very low price. 29. What did Franck Wallet care about most? A. The waste of bread. B. The new taste of bread. C. The freshness of bread. D. The popularity of bread. 30. What is special about the bread made with Crumbier breadcrumbs? A. It has a much darker colour. B. It keeps for a shorter time. C. It takes less time to bake. D. It tastes like toast. 31. Which word best describes bakers’ attitude to Crumbier in France? A. Doubtful. B. Uninterested. C. Supportive. D. Unclear. D Teenagers who spend more time on after-school activities and less than two hours of screen time after school are more mentally healthy, according to a study published in the journal Preventive Medicine. The study used information collected from more than 28,000 seventh-grade Canadian students between 2014 and 2018. The students first answered questions about their usage of screen time after school, including how much time they spent watching TV or something else. Then, students reported how many days they had taken part in after-school activities such as sports or arts programmes. After that, researchers asked students to describe their state of mind. For example, when given a statement such as “I start most days thinking that I will have a good day”, they could choose to what level they agreed with it on a scale (等级). Researchers said in the study some of the results were expected. Students with no after-school activities usually had high levels of screen time, for example. And they expected girls would score higher on negative indicators (消极指标) of mental health, as earlier research had found that they tended to have higher levels of anxiety compared to boys. What was noteworthy, researchers say, is that even among students who took part in after-school activities, 46% still went beyond the recommended screen time of two hours. At the same time, 67% of students who didn’t take part in after-school activities also had more than two hours of screen time. Together, this suggests high screen time among teenagers generally. “The findings suggest that after-school activities are valuable for the happy growing of teenagers,” the study said. “While past studies have proved the importance of after-school activities for social and academic development, the present study shows their importance for good mental health results.” 32. Which of the following came last when students took part in the new study? A. Talking about their lifestyles. B. Introducing their after-school activities. C. Reporting their mental states on a scale. D. Answering questions about screen time use. 33. What do the researchers find about teenage girls? A. They often have higher levels of satisfaction. B. Few of them take part in after-school activities. C. Anxiety has become a serious problem among them. D. Too much screen time may be more harmful to them. 34. What does the author want to show by using the numbers in paragraph 4? A. Earlier findings about screen time are wrong. B. High screen time is common among teenagers. C. No after-school activities mean no screen time. D. Screens attract teenagers more than after-school activities do. 35. Why are after-school activities so important according to the new study? A. They are good for teenagers’ physical health. B. They help to improve teenagers’ mental health. C. They encourage teenagers’ social development. D. They allow teenagers to become better learners. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Friendship is a very important human relationship and everyone needs good friends. But there are times in our lives such as when we have recently moved into a new town, or changed our schools or jobs. Such changes often leave us without a friend.____36____，but for many of us, the process is difficult and requires courage. Below are some helpful suggestions on how to make and keep friends. Associate with others. The first step to make friends is associating with people. You can go to public places to meet new people. Besides, you will need to make yourself known by becoming an active member of such places. Start a conversation. Starting a conversation is the second most important step in making new friends. ___37___ You can always start the conversation. Being able to make small talk is a very useful skill in relating (关联的) with other people. ____38____ Choosing friends with common interests is important in building friendship as these interests always bring you and your friend together. Hanging out will always be a pleasant experience. Let it grow. It is a good thing to stay in touch. However, try not to press your new friend with calls, messages or visits as this would likely wear him or her out and finally you may lose your friend. ___39___The best friendships are the ones that grow naturally. Enjoy your friendship. The best way to enjoy your friendship is to allow your friends to be themselves. ___40___ Try not to change them from who they are to what you want them to be. Become the kind of friend you will want your friend to be. A. Be cheerful. B. Do things together. C. Don’t wait to be spoken to. D. Try not to find fault with your friend. E. Making new friends comes easy for some people. F For a friendship to develop you need to stay in touch. G. So you will need to give your friend time to react to you. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 I love spending time with kids. So, when I heard about the work at Happy Kids Center, I couldn’t wait to sign up. Last Saturday, I worked as a(n) ____41____ at the center. Mrs. Chen, the headmaster, handed me a uniform printed with little stars. Looking at the laughing kids behind me, I felt ____42____ and a bit nervous. “Look at my picture,” shouted Mary, an 8-year-old girl, holding up a bright paper sun. “It’s so creative,” I said. “Let’s ____43____ your sun.” Suddenly, a boy called Leo came running. He stood with a ____44____ toy car, tears in his eyes. “Let’s ____45____ it,” I said. We sat on the floor, carefully repairing. “Blue tape will make it nicer!” When the car rolled again Leo whispered (低声说), “The ____46____ is that I … I broke it by accident.” I answered, “That’s really ____47____ of you to be honest.” Then, Mrs. Chen brought in a box of bright paints. Kids ran to her except (除了) Lily. Her hands ____48____ her back. “Your brother painted a beautiful tree last week,” I said, sitting by her. “Do you want to try flowers like his?” ____49____, she started drawing. I saw her smile and her face was full of joy. At snack time, Lily shyly pushed her painting _____50_____. I gently touched her head and said, “Lily, your painting is truly excellent.” Seeing the sunset, I quickly borrowed Mrs. Chen’s _____51_____. The kids posed (摆姿势) with their works, and Lily showed her painting happily. While saying _____52_____, Mrs. Chen handed me the gift—a picture of smiling kids. She said, “Thank you for helping our stars _____53_____ brighter.” I realized that even a _____54_____ day at the center could become special when people provide kindness. As I walked home, I thought about the _____55_____ of seeing kids grow. Volunteering isn’t just about doing jobs but about helping every star find their light in the sky. 41. A. worker B. maker C. volunteer D. engineer 42. A. sad B. perfect C. shocked D. excited 43. A. put up B. make up C. wake up D. take up 44. A. new B. beautiful C. broken D. cheap 45. A. throw B. fix C. invent D. count 46. A. reason B. change C. research D. truth 47. A. brave B. silly C. clever D. weak 48. A.moved around B. hid behind C. held beside D. stayed above 49. A. Quickly B. Suddenly C. Slowly D. Luckily 50. A. forward B. back C. away D. down 51. A. tool B. object C. record D. camera 52. A. goodbye B. thanks C. hello D. yes 53. A. look B. keep C. shine D. paint 54. A. strange B. common C. noisy D. busy 55. A. fear B. pressure C. challenge D. joy 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 A must-see tourist ___56___ (attract) in China, Xi’an is really a living history book in China. People ___57___ home and abroad come to the city to broaden ___58___ (they) knowledge of Chinese civilisation. The Terracotta Warriors, Xi’an City Wall and HuaShan ___59___ (true) are highlights of Xi’an tours, but the Y592 tourist train in Xi’an is also worth a try. The Y592 ___60___ (be) Shaanxi Province’s first Han and Tang ___61___ (dynasty ) culturally themed tourist train. Through various forms of cultural decorations, the themed train recreates the rich atmosphere from these ancient times, which makes passengers feel as if they were travelling back in time. Inside the carriages, passengers can not only admire carefully recreated ___62___ (tradition) Chinese clothing hanfu and armour (甲胄) but also personally experience costume(服装) changes. ___63___( help) passengers better appreciate the beauty of hanfu, this tourist train has not only a section displaying hanfu and armour, but also a special make-up area with professional make-up artists. They help passengers recreate the perfect look, providing ___64___ unique travel experience ____65____ allows them to “transform on board, and transcend time upon arrival”. 第四部分 读写综合（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题4分，满分20分） 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题。 World’s First Humanoid Robot (人形机器人) Half Marathon On April 19, 2025, Beijing’s Yizhuang held the world’s first humanoid robot half-marathon. Twenty-one teams of robots from cities like Beijing, Shanghai and Guangzhou ran on a 21.1-kilometer road with human runners. This showed how robots can do real-world things, just like long-distance running. The winner, Tiangong Ultra from the Beijing Humanoid Robot Innovation Center, finished the race in 2 hours and 40 minutes. Its fastest speed was 12 km/h. This 1.8-meter-tall robot used light materials (材料) and special systems (特殊系统) to keep cool. Other teams, such as Whirlwind Kid and Little Giant (a 75-centimeter-tall robot), did well. They used shoes that could reduce shock (减震) and smart control to not fall down on hills and small-stone roads. The race tested how far the robots could go. The running road had 14 big turns, and some hills were hard to climb. It also had different kinds of ground, like grass and small stones. Teams could change batteries (电池) at seven stations. If they changed the whole robot, they would lose 10 minutes. Some robots wore special shoes to protect their body parts. Others used sensors (传感器) that worked right away to stop themselves from falling and protect their body parts. The people who organized the race said it was a big step forward. They said robots could help doctors in hospitals or carry things in factories in the future. 66. How many teams of robots took part in the half-marathon? ____________________________________________________________ 67 How long did it take the winner Tiangong Ultra to finish the race? ____________________________________________________________ 68. What did Tiangong Ultra robot use to keep cool? ____________________________________________________________ 69. How did robots protect their body parts? ____________________________________________________________ 70. What can robots do for us in our daily lives? ____________________________________________________________ 第二节 应用文写作（满分20分） 71. 初中毕业后的暑假是学生时代最美好的时光之一，请以“My Most Unforgettable Summer Vacation Experience”为题写一篇英语短文。内容包括： 1.简要描述这段经历； 2.谈谈你的感想或收获。 注意：1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 My Most Unforgettable Summer Vacation Experience ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $