江西省2024年初中学业水平考试英语样卷试题卷(六)试卷

听 力 材 料 现在是试听时间。请听一段对话，然后回答问题。 M: I'm going shopping, Mum. Do you need anything? W: Yes, get some apples and some oranges to make juice with. M: Well, we already have lots of oranges. W: OK, just some apples then. 答案是C。 A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. M: Ouch! W: What's the matter? Did you hurt yourself, Jim? M: I just hit my head. 2. M: What a sunny day! There are few clouds and Idon't feel cold at all. W: Yes, but the weatherman says it will be rainy and cold tomorrow. 3. W: What do you think of the sandwich, Tom? I made it myself. M: Really nice. You are so great, Helen. Even my mother can't make a better one. 4. W: You look pleased! What's going on, Peter? M: I finally passed my driving test! I am so happy. W: Wow, congratulations! 5. W: Matt, you' ve been reading for over an hour and need to rest your eyes. Could you help me clean the kitchen? M: Yes, Mum. B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。 请听第1段对话，回答第6、7小题。 W: Excuse me? I'd like a train ticket to London. M: When are you going? W: This Saturday, June 24th, I think in the morning.How much is it? M: That's 23 pounds. W: Okay, thanks. 请听第2段对话，回答第8、9小题。 W: It's a lovely day. Let's go out. M: Why not? Would you like to go hiking in the mountains? W: I don't like it. Instead I would rather go to the park. M: Sounds great, but how about going for a walk along the river? W: OK. Shall we stop somewhere for lunch? M: Maybe the new restaurant along the river. W: Great. 请听第3段对话，回答第10至第12小题。 M: Hello! Could I speak to Mike, please? W: I'm sorry, he's not in at the moment. M: Is that Mrs. King? W: Yes, this is Mike's mother. Can I take a message? M: Yes, please. This is Dave, Mike's classmate. I have a problem with my best friend and I need his help. W: Oh, I'm sorry to hear that, Dave. But Mike is visiting his grandmother. He won't be back until the day after tomorrow. Maybe you can try calling my friend, Jane.She works on the Friendship Helpline at school. You can call her at 585-9086. M: Thanks so much, Mrs. King. W: You' re welcome, Dave. I hope my friend can help you. 请听第4段对话，回答第13 至第15 小题。 M: Hi, Linda! Sorry, I'm late. W: John, it's half past nine! You were supposed to be here at nine o’ clock! M: Sorry, I took the wrong bus. W: How did you take the wrong bus? M: I don't take the bus every day. I got on the wrong one. W: But I thought you drove to work. M: No, normally I ride but my bike is broken now. W: Well, don't worry about it. Actually, I was thinking of riding to work. How long does it take you? M: It takes about 20 minutes, but it depends on how fast you ride. W: It's a bit cold at the moment. Maybe I' ll wait a month or two… C)请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50 秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。 Hello, everyone! Welcome to Sports News in a Mi-nute! Here's the great news for all the listeners. Our yearly Run for Fun is here once again at 9:00 in the morning on June 12th! This event is part of the Run Festi-val. Come and join us and let's make it a day to remember! The race will be held in Children's Park across fromCity Museum. Only teams such as friends, sports clubs and families are needed for the race and each team needs four adults. Please remember: runners are supposed to carry a bag of potatoes while running——20 kilos for men and 10 kilos for women and don't drop the potatoes. If you want to know more information, please call 621 – 3579.Hope you can enjoy it! Thank you for listening. 参 考 答 案 一、听力理解(共20小题，每小题1分，共20分) 答案1——5 ACBCC6——10 AACCB 11——15 BBBCB 16. June 12th/ Jun.12/ Jun.12th 17. Children's Park 18. families 19. potatoes 20. 621-3579 二、单项填空(共8小题，每小题1分，共8分) 21—24 BDBD 25—28 CCDB 三、完形填空(共26小题，每小题1分，共26分) A)29—33 CDABC 34——38 CDACB 39—43 DBCAC B)44. sick 45. patients 46. to help 47. fighting48. still 49. healthy 50. probably 51. love52. while 53. song 54. made 四、阅读理解(共23 小题，每小题2分，共46分) ·55——57 BCD 58——60 CCD 61——64 ACDB 65——68 ADCA 69——72 BDDD 73—77 FEGAC 五、补全对话(共5小题，每小题1分，共5分) 78—82 BCGDF 六、书面表达(15分) Possible Version One: Doctor Zhong Nanshan once said, “Playing sports is a part of daily life like eating.” Playing sports plays an important role in our school life. There are different sports to play at our school. We have 3 PE classes every week. And we usually run in the afternoon. What's more, we play different kinds of ball games, too. My favorite sport is soccer. I always feel ex-cited to play soccer with my teammates, especially when we win a game. Playing sports have made a big difference to my life.On the one hand, I build up body and brain and develop my study ability. On the other hand, I have made many friends who have the same interests. Besides, thanks to it, I become outgoing and active. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 江西省2024年初中学业水平考试 英语样卷试题卷(六) 说明：1.全卷满分120分，考试时间120分钟。 2.请按试题序号在答题卡相应位置作答，答在试题卷或其他位置无效。 一、听力理解(本大题共20小题，每小题1分，共20分) 现在是试听时间。请听一段对话，然后回答问题。 What is the boy going to buy? A. Some juice. B. Some oranges. C. Some apples. 答案是答案C。 A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都将有10 秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What's the matter with Jim? A. He hit his head. B. He hurt his back. C. He cut himself. 2. How will the weather be tomorrow? A. Sunny and hot. B. Cloudy and cool. C. Rainy and cold. 3. Who made the sandwich? A. Tom. B. Helen. C. Tom's mother. 4. Why was Peter happy? A. Because he has got a new car. B. Because he has won the driving race. C. Because he has passed the driving test. 5. What does the man mean? A. He wants to continue reading. B. He needs to look for his book. C. He will help his mum right away. B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。 请听第1段对话，回答第6、7小题。 6. When is the woman going to London? A. This Saturday morning. B. This Saturday afternoon. C. This Saturday evening. 7. How much will the woman pay for the ticket? A. £ 23. B. £24. C. £46. 请听第2段对话，回答第8、9小题。 8. What are they going to do? A. Go hiking. B. Go to the park. C. Go for a walk. 9. Where is the new restaurant? A. In the park. B. On the mountain. C. Along the river. 请听第3段对话，回答第10至第12小题。 10. What's the relationship between Mike and Dave? A. Dad and son. B. Classmates. C. Brothers. 11. How soon will Mike be back home? A. In two hours. B. In two days. C. In two weeks. 12. What can we know about Dave? A. His best friend is Jane. B. He calls Mike for help. C. He works on the Friendship Helpline. 请听第4段对话，回答第13 至第15小题。 13. What time is it now? A. 9:00. B. 9:30. C. 10:00. 14. How does John usually go to work? A. By bus. B. By car. C. By bike. 15. What can we get from the conversation? A. Linda is good at riding. B. John was late because he took the wrong bus. C. Linda decides to ride a bike to work next week. C)请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。 16. Run for Fun will begin at 9:00 a. m. on here. 17. The race will be held in across from City Museum. 18. Only teams such as friends, sports clubs and are needed for the race. 19. Runners need to carry a bag of while running. 20. You can call for more information. 二、单项填空(本大题共8小题，每小题1分，共8分) 请阅读下面各小题，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 21. My sister, Lucy likes the of the candy because it looks like a star. A. taste B. shape C. size D. color 22. The government has taken actions to care for and left-behind children, such as sending volunteer teachers to the countryside. A. praise B. invite C. receive D. support 23. — I usually spend about half an hour in nature every week. ——I think it's not enough. Actually you should spend time outdoors. A. some B. more C. less D. the most 24. We have some charity organizations to help the people in need. A.come up B. put up C. picked up D. set up 25. Children are not allowed to use the swimming pool they are with their parents. A. because B. until C. unless D. or 26. —— Shall we go to the concert tonight? —— Sorry, I'm so tired now. I too many places for the rest of the day. A. visit B. will visit C. have visited D. was visiting 27. Peter failed the soccer game and to learn from his mistakes so that he could do better next time. A. suggests B. suggested C. is suggested D. was suggested 28. —— How should we talk to those kids with hearing problems? —— We'd better speak to them so that they can hear more clearly. A. bravely B. loudly C. truly D. seriously 三、完形填空(本大题共26小题，每小题1分，共26分) A)请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 You plan to be in the mountains for a long time, but you don't want to carry a heavy backpack. You should bring food that is high in energy but low in 29 . It's also a good idea to bring food that is easy to prepare and that won't go 30 . Even if you are on a day 31 , you need to bring some food. When you climb a mountain, your body uses more energy, so you may need to eat twice as 32 as usual. What can you do if you are 33 in snow-covered mountains and you have no food left? Because it is so cold, not much 34 high in the mountains. It can be very 35 to find food there.However, if you know what to 36 , there are plants you can eat. You can eat the roots of some trees, like pine trees. They give you a lot of energy. In spring, you can 37 eat the buds(花苞) from some trees. They won't give you much energy—— about the same as eating a small piece of chocolate—— 38 they may give you enough energy to keep looking for other food. If you' re really hungry, you can eat mealworms(粉虫). Look for them under rocks and fallen trees.Mealworms often 39 like the food they last ate! You can cook mealworms over a fire, but for a quick meal, you can eat mealworms 40 cooking them. If you have a net(网), you can use it to catch 41 . If you don't have a net, you can make a fishing line with things in your backpack, like string(丝线). If the river isn't deep, you can even fish with your 42 . You can eat animals if you can catch 43 . But remember small animals are best. It's not a good idea to try to catch large animals like bears! 29. A. price B. risk C. weight D. height 30. A. salty B. tasty C. hot D. bad 31. A. trip B. business C. drive D. ride 32. A. fast B. much C. hard D. late 33. A. blind B. sick C. lost D. sleepy 34. A. jumps B. stands C. grows D. climbs 35. A. dangerous B. normal C. valuable D. difficult 36. A. look for B. look at C. look up D. look after 37. A. only B. hardly C. also D. soon 38. A. or B. but C. so D. then 39. A. look B. feel C. sound D. taste 40. A. by B. without C. in D. for 41. A. birds B. bears C. fish D. mealworms 42. A. hands B. strings C.nets D. lines 43. A. that B. it C. one D. all B)请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空，并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。 patient love probably healthy while sick make help song fighting still Do you listen to music when you are sad? Does your favorite song make you feel good? Maybe you listen to music when you feel 44 . Does the music help you feel better? Around 400 BCE, Hippocrates, the Greek“Father of Medicine”, played music for his 45 . In ancient times, people in China, Egypt, India, and Rome also used music 46 sick people to get better. In World War I and World War Ⅱ, doctors played music for soldiers who had emotional(感情的) problems because of 47 in the war. And today, many doctors 48 use music to help people. For example, some doctors play music for patients in the hospital after surgery(外科手术). It helps their bodies become 49 . If patients listen to Mozart, they will 50 need less medicine. What happens when we listen to music? And why does it make us feel so many different emotions?As humans, we need food, water, and 51 from other people to live. But do we need music? In one scientific study, different people listened to different kinds of music 52 scientists looked at what happened to the listener's body. When a person liked a 53 , the heartbeat was faster and the body became warmer. Also, the brain 54 more dopamine(多巴胺). Dopamine is a chemical that gives us a feeling. With this study, scientists learned that music can make us feel good. 四、阅读理解(本大题共23 小题，每小题2分，共46分) A)请阅读下面短文，根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 答案A Help Wanted Love travel? Join us as a tour guide! Full time, must speak English $12 per hour, 8 hours a day E-mail: Guide@126.com Lost White Persian cat called Lizzie 18 months old, friendly nature Any info about Lizzie Phone Tim at 555-3826 For Rent Good rooms for girls, single, $35 a week,double, $185 a month Call John at 555-0698 Family home, 3 bedrooms, large yard, $300 a month Call Andrew at 555-4863 Friendship Restaurant We have different kinds of Japanese food here.The food menu is in Japanese and Chinese. All the waiters or waitress can speak at least one foreign language. Time:11:30 a. m.—10:00 p. m. Tel: 312-9997 55. How much can a tour guide get for working a day? A. $35. B. $96. C. $185. D. $300. 56. How can you get in touch with the owner if you find the cat? A. By calling 312-9997. B. By calling 555-4863. C. By calling 555-3826. D. By e-mail. 57. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Lizzie lost an 18-month-old white Persian cat. B. Girls can rent a single room for $35 a month. C. A tour guide should speak Chinese and English. D. You can eat in Friendship Restaurant at 2:00 p. m. B A little boy was spending his Saturday morning playing in his sandbox. He had his box of cars and trucks, and a shiny, red plas-tic shovel(铲) with him. In the process of creating roads and tun-nels(隧道) in the soft sand, he discovered a large rock in the middle of the sandbox. The boy dug around the rock, managing to remove(移动) it from the dirt. Then, he pushed the rock across the sandbox by using his feet. When the boy got the rock to the edge(边缘) of the sandbox,however, he found that he couldn't roll(滚动) it up and over the wall. The little boy determined to move it away. But every time he thought he had made some progress,the rock fell back into the sandbox. The little boy tried his best to push. But what he only got was to have the rock roll back, hurting his fingers. Finally he started crying out of sadness. All this time the boy's father watched from his living room window. At the moment the tears fell, the boy's father came to the boy and the sandbox. Gently he said, “Son, why didn't you use all the strength that you had?” The boy cried and said, “But I did. Daddy, I did! I used all the strength that I had!” “No, son,” corrected the father kindly. “You didn't use all the strength you had. Why don't ask me for help?” With that, the father reached down, picked up the rock, and removed it from the sandbox. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 58. What does the underlined word“determined” mean in Paragraph 3? A. Failed. B. Refused. C. Decided. D. Regretted. 59. What can we learn from the passage? A. The boy's leg was hurt when he was removing the rock. B. The boy played sand with his father on Saturday morning. C. The sandbox the boy played in was not far from his home. D. The boy rolled the big rock up and turned it over the wall. 60. What does the writer want to tell us? A. We should try to calm down when in trouble. B. It's normal to have difficulties in our daily life. C. Children should be careful while playing sand outside. D. One should learn to ask for help when meeting difficulties. C When we hear the word“sport”, we usually think of football, basketball, the Olympic Games, and things like that. But isn't a sport more than that? Different people have different answers. Many people think that a sport must be hard for your body. But what about if you only need to think? Look at chess. There are chess competitions and chess stars. So is chess a sport? And do you need to be strong and fit to take part in a sport? What about Olympic shooting? You don't have to be strong to do that. One thing all sports need is skill. A skill is something special you can do better than others. It's often a thing you learn, but some people have natural skills. Most people can learn to play football. But to be a really good football player, you need to be naturally quick and move well. Then there are hobbies. Hobbies are special activities that we like to spend our time doing when we aren't working. So a sport can be a hobby, but not all hobbies are sports. Painting and cooking are hob-bies. If your hobby is looking after your garden, people don't call it a sport. But if you climb mountains— if you’ re a mountaineer(登山运动员)—— many people will say you' re taking part in a sport.Maybe that's because mountaineers compete— in other words, they try to do better than other climbers. Finally, what are games? Football is a game—— but chess, video games, and hide and seek are games, too, each with its own rules. Is a game something we do just for fun? That's also true for hobbies. And some games are clearly sports, but people don't agree about others. There are different activities. For some, you have to be fit and strong. For others, you have to be smart or quick. But are they sports, games or hobbies? You decide. 61. Why do many people think mountain climbing can be a sport? A. Because mountain climbers compete. B. Because mountain climbers have fun. C. Because mountain climbing is their hobby. D. Because mountain climbing doesn't need skills. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 62. Choose the best sentence to fill in the blank“ ” in Paragraph 4. A. But few people do them after sports. B. And they need some natural skills. C. But no one calls those things sports. D. And people spend their free time on them. 63. What do we know about games according to the passage? A. People have to be strong to do them. B. They are less interesting than hobbies. C. They are things people need to learn. D. Most of them have their own rules. 64. What is the topic of the passage? A. Success. B. Sports. C. Family. D. Olympics. D Today, people eat a lot of sugar. It is part of our daily lives. It is easy for most people to buy sweet things and to cook with sugar. Where did sugar come from and what is its history? How has the sugar business changed the world? The first sugar cane(甘蔗) grew on the island of New Guinea around 6,000 BCE. Around 1,000BCE, the sugar cane was brought in boats to India. People first chewed(咀嚼) sugar canes because they knew that a very sweet juice came out. It tasted good! People soon learned how to take the juice out of the cane. They cooked the cane in water, dried it, and were left with small pieces of sugar, called crys-tals. In the 8th century CE, Arabs brought sugar canes to Spain. When Columbus went to the West In-dies for the second time, in 1493, he took a sugar cane plant with him. The weather there, with lots of sun and rain, was excellent for growing sugar cane. By the 18th century, farmers in the southern United States were growing sugar canes on plantations(种植园) because of weather. But sugar was expensive because making sugar from the cane was not fast or easy. In 1879, in California, a new factory found a way to make sugar faster and cheaper. Making sugar became an important business. By 1900, there were more than 30 sugar factories in the United States.Suddenly there was a lot more sugar in the shops. In 1700, the average American ate less than two kilos of sugar a year. But as sugar became cheaper and easier to buy, people in the United States ate much more of it, they started to drink their tea and coffee sweetened with sugar. They started to eat more chocolate, jams, and candies made with sugar. By 1900 the average American ate over 30 kilos of sugar a year! Sugar has not only changed what people eat and drink. The big business of growing sugar canes and making sugar has also changed the history of several countries. 65. What does the underlined word“It” in Paragraph 1 refer to? A. Eating sugar. B. Buying sweet things. C. Cooking with sugar. D. Growing sugar cane. 66. Put the following information into correct order according to the passage. a. Arabs brought sugar canes to Spain. b. The sugar cane was brought in boats to India. c. A sugar cane plant was taken to the West Indies. d. A factory found a way to make sugar faster and cheaper. A. b-a-d-c B. a-c-d-b C. a-b-d-c D. b-a-c-d 67. What is the main idea of Paragraph 5? A. The food with sugar in the USA. B. The business of making sugar in the USA. C. The development of sugar in the USA. D. The reason of growing sugar cane in the USA. 68. What is the best structure of the passage? Have you ever looked at the sky and thought about darkness? Is it nothing? Or is there something in the dark? Cosmologists(宇宙学家) try to answer questions about things in space. They even study the darkness in space. They say the universe is about 5 percent“normal” matter—— things we can see, likeEarth and other planets, and the sun and other stars. But about 70 percent of the universe is something called dark energy. Cosmologists say the other 25 percent of the universe is dark matter(物质). Dark matter has some weight. It's heavy so we know it's there. But we can't see it, so it is very hard to study something that you can't see! One possible kind of dark matter is a brown dwarf(棕矮星). A brown dwarf is too big to be a planet and too small to be a star. Brown dwarfs are colder than stars, and they don't give off light that people can see. Cosmologists found them by using a telescope that finds heat. They found the first brown dwarf in 1995. Cosmologists know a lot about one kind of dark matter—— black holes. In 1783, an English astrono-mer, John Michell, guessed that there were black holes. But cosmologists didn't find any black holes un-til 188 years later. Since then, they' ve found many black holes in space. It's very dark with much gravity(引力) in a black hole. There is so much gravity in a black hole that nothing can get out, not even light. This is why we can't see them. Cosmologists find black holes by looking at things around them. For example, stars and gases near a black hole move very fast. Things in space can fall into a black hole, and once they do, they can never get out. But don't worry—— Earth will never fall into a black hole because there is not one close enough. 69. When did cosmologists first find black holes? A. In 1783. B. In 1971. C. In 1995. D. In 1595. 70. What can we know about brown dwarfs? A. They are as big as planets or stars. B. They give off light that people can see. C. They are much hotter than stars and planets. D. The first one was found by using a telescope. 71. What would be the best title for the passage? A. Black Holes in Space. B. Dark Energy in Space. C. Normal Matter in the Universe. D. Dark Matter in the Universe. 72. What can we infer from the passage? A. Light can't fall into a black hole. B. We have known nothing about dark matter so far. C. Earth could fall into a black hole in several centuries. D. The earth is too far away from a black hole to fall into it. B)请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中，使短文意思通顺、结构完整，并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。 Primary School Kids Stick with Their Dance Lessons Su Jinghan, an 11-year-old Chinese girl, goes to school with two colorful sticks every day. 73 They are usually decorated with colorful pieces of silk and small ringing bells. When Jinghan dances with them, she is performing a special kind of wushu. Huagun dance is an ancient Chinese folk sports activity and these days, it is especially popular among elderly people. 74 Sun Mengchun, headmaster of Xingqing Primary School, says they have made the sticks shorter than usual, so that they are easy to carry. “Huagun dance is a combination(结合体) of dance and wushu. 75 ” Sun says, adding that all students in the school have learned to dance with huagun and enjoy it so much because of its style and sound. Besides huagun dance, the primary school also intro-duces wushu, boxing and hip-hop dance to enrich children's physical training activities during the class break. “I love these physical training activities. 76 Also, I can feel the charm(魅力) of wushu.” Su says. Su also says she would sweat(流汗) after doing all these exercises, which relaxes her body and re-duces pressure on her mind from studies. Zhang Liming, an official with the Xingqing District Education Bureau(区教育局), says that by encouraging students to take part in sports like waist drum, bamboo pole dance, many schools have worked out their own physical training plans. “ 77 And they also have benefited from the exercises in the long breaks between classes,” Zhang says. A. They make me strong. B. Parents speak highly of the plans. C. These activities are very popular among kids. D. Actually, it's not easy for me to carry the sticks. E. It's really an excellent physical training for them. F. The sticks about 40 centimeters long are called huagun. G. It also produces a fantastic sound when being performed. 五、补全对话(共5分) 请阅读下面对话，根据对话内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处，使对话通顺、合理，意思完整，并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。 (David and his classmate Betty are talking at school. David =D, Betty=B) B: Hi, David! D: Welcome back, Betty! 78 B: We had quite a good time in Beijing last weekend. D: 79 B: We took a tour to the Summer Palace andTian' anmen Square. D: That sounds great! But now we'd better get back to work. 80 A. Do you like it? B. How was your holiday? C. What did you do there? D. Would you like to join us? E. So this week will not be fun. F. I'm sure we' ll have a great time! G. We' re going to have a big exam this week. B: There's nothing to worry about as long as you work hard. D: And after the exam, there's the school leavers'party. 81 B: I'd love to. D: 82 B: I'm looking forward to it. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 六、书面表达(15分) 钟南山院士说过，“运动就像吃饭，是每天生活的一部分”。本卷阅读理解C篇提及了运动的不同含义。在“双减”背景下，学校更加重视学生的体育运动。请根据下列提示，写一篇短文，谈谈你校的运动开展情况、你喜欢的运动及收获。 内容包括以下要点： 要求： 1.短文应包括提示中所有的写作要点，条理清楚，行文连贯，可适当发挥； 2.短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名； 3.词数80——120，短文开头已给出，不计入总词数。 Doctor Zhong Nanshan once said, “Playing sports is a part of daily life like eating.” 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$