内容正文:
2024~2025学年第二学期八年级期末教学质量评估试卷
英语
(命题人:朱宇曼 审题人:胡雅清)
注意事项:
1、本试卷满分为120分,考试时间120分钟;
2、请务必在“答题卷”上答题,在“试题卷”答题是无效的;
3、考试结束后,请将“答题卷”交回。
第一部分 听力 (共四大题,满分20分)
I. 短对话理解 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. Where are the speakers planning to visit?
A. B. C.
2. What is John going to do?
A. B. C.
3. Who bought the toy dog?
A. Anna. B. Anna’s friend. C. Anna’s mother.
4. When does the course begin?
A. On July 10th. B. On July 14th. C. On July 24th.
5. Why do they stay at home?
A. Because it’s raining hard.
B. Because they don’t have a kite.
C. Because they want to watch movies.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6、7小题。
6. How many times has the girl read Oliver Twist?
A. Once. B. Three times. C. Twice.
7. Where was Charles Dickens from?
A. England. B. America. C. Russia.
听下面一段对话,回答第8至10小题。
8. Where was Joe just now?
A. In the classroom. B. In the library. C. In the dining room.
9. What will Joe do to help the disabled children?
A. Buy them some books. B. Teach them to read. C. Talk with them kindly.
10. How far is Sunshine House from the school?
A. 35 minutes by car. B. 25 minutes by bus. C. 15 minutes by bike.
Ⅲ. 短文理解 (共5小题;每小题1分,共5分)
你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. When did the speaker go camping?
A. Last spring. B. Last autumn. C. Last summer.
12. How was the weather on the first day?
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Cloudy.
13. Where did the speaker have dinner on the second day?
A. By the river. B. On the mountain. C. Near the lake.
14. What did the speaker learn from other campers?
A. How to go boating. B. How to cook fish. C. How to keep safe.
15. How long did the speaker’s trip last?
A. For two days. B. For three days. C. For four days.
IV. 信息转换 (共5小题;每小题1分,共5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Advice on Having a Great ________
Where to go
Choose ________ places you want to visit.
Talk about each place with your friends or parents.
How to go
It depends on how far the place is and how much money you can ________.
What to do
Book a great hotel:
Find a comfortable hotel to ________.
Write a list:
Think about what you need, and prepare the ________ things ahead of time.
第二部分 英语知识运用 (共两大题,满分30分)
V. 单项填空 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
1. —What ________ can you give me on learning English?
—I think you can join an English club.
A. information B. advice C. message D. news
2 He drove the car too ________ to find the right direction to get home.
A. easily B. successfully C. carelessly D. politely
3. Good books help me relax and ________ a whole new world to me.
A. set up B. use up C. open up D. take up
4. —When will your flight arrive? I’ll pick you up at the airport.
—Thank you, but you ________. I can take a taxi.
A. can’t B. mustn’t C. shouldn’t D. don’t have to
5. As a group leader, it is important ________ him to organize the activities well, and also generous ________ him to share his things with us.
A. for; for B. of; of C. of; for D. for; of
6. What does the sign tell the drivers to do?
A. To limit the speed. B. To drive carefully.
C. To avoid the heavy traffic. D. To notice the timing change.
7. Most poets describe autumn to ________ a feeling of sadness.
A. excuse B. express C. expect D. explain
8. — Sarah, would you like to go climbing with us?
— What a pity! I am free every day ________ today.
A. except B. for C. besides D. among
9. —Have you finished your project?
—Not yet. I’ll finish it if I ________ ten more minutes.
A. give B. will give C. am given D. will be given
10. —Let’s invite some more people to help with the project on air pollution in this area.
—Good idea! ________.
A. Many hands make light work B. The early bird catches the worm
C. Every dog has its day D. When in Rome, do as the Romans do
VI. 完形填空 (共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Long long ago, an old man lived in the mountains with his ____11____. Every day, the farmer got up early sitting at the kitchen table to read his old book.
One day, the grandson asked, “Grandpa! I don’t ____12____ the old book. What good does reading it do?” The grandfather replied, “Take this coal basket to the river and bring me back a basket of ____13____.” The boy did as he was told, but all the water he leaked (漏) out before he got back to the house. The grandfather said, “You’ll have to walk a little ____14____ next time.” Then he sent the boy back to the river with the basket to try ____15____. This time the boy ran quicker, but there was no water ____16____ he returned home. He wanted to show his grandfather that ____17____ he ran fast, the water would leak out. The boy tried it again but no water was left again. He said, “See, it’s no ____18____!” The old man said, “Look at the basket.” The boy looked at it and for the first time he realized that the basket was ____19____. Instead of a dirty old coal basket, it was clean, inside and out. “That’s what ____20____ when you read the old book. You might not understand or remember everything, but when you read it, you will be changed, inside and out.”
11. A. son B. daughter C. grandson D. friend
12. A. donate B. understand C. forget D. keep
13. A. water B. food C. flower D. sand
14. A. nearer B. slower C. farther D. faster
15. A. once B. also C. again D. still
16. A. before B. since C. unless D. until
17. A. because of B. as soon as C. ever since D. even if
18. A. condition B. use C. way D. mistake
19. A. common B. different C. important D. empty
20. A. collects B. finds C. takes D. matters
B
Qinqiang Opera is one of the oldest operas in China. This type of opera is important to Chinese culture and many people still love it today.
Hou Hongqin is a Qinqiang Opera actress. She is famous for her sweet ____21____ because her singing is special and great. She enjoys practicing it, ____22____ it was hard. She is ____23____ thankful that she can learn from Xiao Yuling, the famous Qinqiang Opera actor. So Hou often feels she is ____24____. Hou became the head of an opera group in 2005. It was difficult because she knew ____25____ about leading a group. However, she decided to ____26____ the challenge. “I will do my best to ____27____ down the opera to let more young people learn about it. And young actors need more care and ____28____ to perform. If we don’t help them, Qinqiang Opera might slowly ____29____.” Hou says.
With her hard work and passion (热情), Qinqiang Opera has drawn attention from people all over the world, and Hou has become a ____30____ of it.
21. A. voice B. face C. smile D. smell
22. A. unless B. although C. if D. so
23. A. specially B. especially C. suddenly D. simply
24. A. surprising B. enjoyable C. helpful D. lucky
25. A. everything B. something C. nothing D. anything
26. A. accept B. offer C. lose D. find
27. A. break B. pass C. turn D. put
28. A. interests B. notes C. chances D. friends
29. A. disappear B. finish C. rebuild D. display
30. A. member B. goal C. learner D. symbol
第三部分 阅读理解 (共两大题,满分45分)
Ⅶ. 补全对话 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hi, Cathy. The 2025 Marathon is about to start. ____31____
B: Yes. I’m crazy about running and I signed up (报名) successfully.
A: Me too. ____32____
B: I think it’s a good chance to show ourselves. ____33____
A: For me, running is a good way to keep healthy.
B: I agree Will winners get anything from the competition?
A: ____34____ Runners can get some money if they have good grades.
B: Great. If I get some money, I will give it away to people in need.
A: ____35____ It’s quite meaningful to help others.
B: So I will be well-prepared for the marathon with good eating habits and proper training.
A: OK, see you then.
A. When is it?
B. Are you interested in it?
C. Sounds like a good plan.
D What’s it for you?
E. Yes, they will.
F. Sorry to hear that.
G. I keep practicing these days.
Ⅷ. 阅读理解 (共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Do you want to have a special and meaningful holiday? Why not volunteer your time to help people in our camp? We need your help.
Who can be a volunteer?
Any junior high school student! Join us as long as you are 14 and over.
What do you need to do?
Group
Activities
1
Read stories and listen to kids read.
2
Tutor (指导) in maths, English and history.
3
Play chess games or role-playing games with children.
When can you volunteer?
Your volunteer work will begin on July 8th, from 8:30 a. m. to 4:30 p. m. (You will have a break from 12:00 p. m. to 2:00 p. m.)
For more information, please call us at 3579 6432.
36. What can volunteers do in Group 2?
A. Take children to do exercise. B. Teach children to make plans.
C. Play chess games with children. D. Share the ways of learning English.
37. How many hours do the volunteer work a day?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
38. The passage is probably ________.
A. an email B. a notice C. a poster D. a report
B
My aunt moved to the US from China 15 years ago. This year, my mom and I went to the US to visit my aunt.
During the first week, my aunt showed us around the neighborhood and told us where to do food shopping, to post letters and to have haircuts. I am quite good at remembering directions, so the second week I started walking the dog by myself. One day, my aunt wanted to cook chicken curry (咖喱鸡) for dinner and asked me to buy some chicken.
I was quite nervous about doing the shopping by myself, but I decided to give it a go. I walked to the supermarket and went directly to the area where there were all kinds of meat. I always tried to save money while doing the shopping, so the bag that said “Special” immediately caught my eye. On the bag there were two words “chicken frame”. I knew the word “chicken”, but I had no idea what the word “frame” meant. “Anyway, this must be chicken.” I said to myself. Happily, I picked up the bag, paid for it and ran all the way back to my aunt’s house.
When I handed the bag to my aunt, there was a strange look on her face. She said, “Helen, this is a chicken frame, so there’s not much meat. Inside the bag are actual chicken bones.” I felt so bad that I didn’t ask before I bought it. Then my aunt said, “It doesn’t matter. We can’t have chicken curry tonight, but we can have chicken soup. And we don’t have to return or waste it.”
39. What did the writer do in the first week in the US?
A. She had a good haircut. B. She did some shopping.
C. She posted letters back to China. D. She learned about the neighborhood.
40. How did the writer feel when she was asked to buy some chicken?
A. Sad. B. Worried. C. Confident. D. Surprised.
41. Why did the writer buy the chicken frame?
A. She thought it was chicken. B. She loved the chicken frame.
C. She didn’t notice the word “frame”. D. She wanted to try the new food.
42. What is the best title of the text?
A. A Day in My Aunt’s B. Traveling in the US C. A Shopping Mistake D. Learning to Cook
C
① “Drink eight cups of water.” We’ve all heard the advice. But according to a new research, it’s unnecessary for most healthy adults.
② Early in 1945, the U. S. National Research Council (国家研究委员会) advised adults to drink about 1.9 liters (升) of water daily. The suggestion is about a person’s total daily intake (摄入) of water from fruit, vegetables and soup. But many people believe they should drink eight glasses of water every day.
③ So, how much water do you need to drink daily? The study found that it’s different from one person to another. It depends on your age, size, physical activity and the weather in your city.
④ Our needs for water are the highest between the ages of 20 and 50. After that, the needs slowly go down. That’s because our metabolism (新陈代谢) slows down after the age of 50, and our needs for water go down, too.
⑤ Also, since men usually have larger bodies than women, they need more water. People whose jobs need more physical activities need more water than those who work in the office. And people who live in the place with hot weather need more water than those who live in the place with cold weather.
⑥ All in all, most of you don’t have to work out how much water you need by measuring (测量) your size and physical activity. Just drink whenever you are thirsty.
43. Which picture shows the right relations between X and Y?
X: our age Y: our needs for water
A. B. C. D.
44. The underlined word “It” in Paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. the misunderstanding of drinking water advice
B. the amount of water people need to drink daily
C. the new research on drinking water
D. the suggestion from the U. S. National Research Council
45. What’s the best structure of this passage?
A. B.
C. D.
D
Have you heard of the three Rs—“Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”? They help cut down on waste. In China, a creative idea came to life at the Mingsha Mountain Crescent Spring tourist area (鸣沙山月牙泉景区) in Dunhuang, Gansu Province. The area launched an “Exchange Trash for Gifts” program. How does it work? Visitors get a trash bag from workers, collect litter around the site, and then exchange the trash for small gifts like key chains or fridge magnets (磁铁).
Wang Keshou, a cleaner, is pleased to see many visitors helping pick up trash. “This has made my job much easier,” he says. Mrs. Yang, a visitor from Tianjin, spent a pleasant day at the area with her child. Her kid was excited to collect trash for gifts.
Mrs. Yang thinks the activity is meaningful. “It teaches children not to litter and that waste should go in the right place. Everyone has a role in protecting the environment,” she says. The program starts at 8:30 pm daily, and visitors can exchange their trash for gifts one hour later. It will continue until mid-October.
46. How do visitors get gifts in the activity?
A. By buying them at the site. B. By picking up trash and exchanging it.
C. By helping workers clean. D. By answering environmental questions.
47. Why does Wang Keshou feel happy?
A. Fewer visitors come to the area. B. He can get more gifts from visitors.
C. Visitors help reduce his cleaning work D. The activity brings more visitors.
48. The underlined word “launched” in Paragraph 2 means ________.
A. started B. stopped C. changed D. praised
49. What is the passage mainly about?
A. How to visit Dunhuang’s tourist areas. B. The importance of the three Rs.
C. A successful environmental activity in China. D. The importance of reducing waste in daily life.
E
You’ve probably heard how Chinese culture is filled with simple ways of staying fit. Baduanjin, also known as Eight Pieces of Brocade, doesn’t need much space or time. Using special breathing skills, it’s good for both physical and mental health. Now let’s take a closer look at these Chinese exercises.
Baduanjin is one of the oldest forms of Chinese qigong, famous for its health benefits (好处). It focuses on breathing—by taking slow, deep breaths, helps relax our body and calms the mind.
▲ . Such as: improve physical fitness, improve sleep and lower stress. Whether in the park or at someone’s home, people of all ages can practice it without any special instruments or experience.
There are eight movements (动作) in Baduanjin, each with its own focus. It has been handed down through the years as eight short, simple parts. Let’s go through them one by one.
50. What do we know about Baduanjin from the passage?
A. It improves both physical and mental health. B. It’s a new form of Chinese exercise.
C. It requires a special place to practice. D. It’s only for young people.
51. Which of the following can be put into ▲ ?
A. People can only do Baduanjin well by learning from teachers.
B. Practice of Baduanjin can bring a lot of health benefits to us.
C. Soldiers in old times used Baduanjin to build their bodies, too.
D. Some people think Baduanjin is quite good for the old people.
52. What may the passage talk about Baduanjin next?
A. Its history. B. Its movements. C. Its meaning. D. Its benefits.
F
阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题 (请注意每小题的词数要求) 。
As a graduate of Zhejiang University, Liu Song once worked for a company in the city. In September 2020, he became the manager of Yong’an Village. At first, things were difficult for Liu and his team. The village was poor. Most people made a living only by growing rice.
Having grown up in the countryside, Liu loved the land and the people there. And he knew well that the village’s real advantage was its large farmland. He and his team tried to help the villagers put it to good use. And in order to develop tourism (旅游业), they hold different village cultural festivals every year.
Now the villagers’ dream of living a better life is coming true. The village has attracted a lot of tourists with its wider roads and clearer river.
Liu’s efforts show how love for the land and smart planning can make a big difference.
53. What was Liu’s job before managing Yong’an Village? (不超过5个词)
_______________________________________
54. How did Liu and his team develop tourism? (不超过10个词)
_______________________________________
55. What do you think of Liu and his team? (不超过10个词)
_______________________________________
第四部分 写作 (共两大题,满分25分)
X. 单词拼写 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据汉语或首字母提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
56. We should be careful enough to a________ (避免) making mistakes when taking exams.
57. The coach and the athlete worked c________ (紧密地) to develop a training plan.
58. Without modern machines d________ (挖) such a big hole wasn’t an easy task in the past.
59. It’s necessary to prevent the s________ (扩散) of personal information on the Internet.
60. Children in China must receive b________ (基础的) education.
X. 书面表达 (共1小题,满分20分)
61. “吾日三省吾身”是一句出自《论语·学而》的名言,意思是每天反思自己的言行以完善自己。我们即将进入九年级,请你以“How to Improve Myself”为题结合自身实际情况介绍你自我完善的方式。内容包括:
行为习惯
遵守交通规则,公共场合举止礼貌……
公益活动
捐钱给慈善机构,做志愿者……
绿色生活
节约用水,选择公共交通……
暑假计划
按时完成作业,多读有意义的书……
要求:
1. 短文应包含所有要点,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯:
2. 文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称:
3. 词数80~100 (题目和开头已给出,不计入总词数) 。
How to Improve Myself
Life is really a long journey. In my growing up life, I have been looking for ways to improve myself.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024~2025学年第二学期八年级期末教学质量评估试卷
英语
(命题人:朱宇曼 审题人:胡雅清)
注意事项:
1、本试卷满分为120分,考试时间120分钟;
2、请务必在“答题卷”上答题,在“试题卷”答题是无效的;
3、考试结束后,请将“答题卷”交回。
第一部分 听力 (共四大题,满分20分)
I. 短对话理解 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. Where are the speakers planning to visit?
A. B. C.
2. What is John going to do?
A. B. C.
3. Who bought the toy dog?
A. Anna. B. Anna’s friend. C. Anna’s mother.
4. When does the course begin?
A. On July 10th. B. On July 14th. C. On July 24th.
5. Why do they stay at home?
A. Because it’s raining hard.
B. Because they don’t have a kite.
C. Because they want to watch movies.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6、7小题。
6. How many times has the girl read Oliver Twist?
A. Once. B. Three times. C. Twice.
7. Where was Charles Dickens from?
A. England. B. America. C. Russia.
听下面一段对话,回答第8至10小题。
8. Where was Joe just now?
A. In the classroom. B. In the library. C. In the dining room.
9. What will Joe do to help the disabled children?
A. Buy them some books. B. Teach them to read. C. Talk with them kindly.
10. How far is Sunshine House from the school?
A. 35 minutes by car. B. 25 minutes by bus. C. 15 minutes by bike.
Ⅲ. 短文理解 (共5小题;每小题1分,共5分)
你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. When did the speaker go camping?
A. Last spring. B. Last autumn. C. Last summer.
12. How was the weather on the first day?
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Cloudy.
13. Where did the speaker have dinner on the second day?
A. By the river. B. On the mountain. C. Near the lake.
14. What did the speaker learn from other campers?
A. How to go boating. B. How to cook fish. C. How to keep safe.
15. How long did the speaker’s trip last?
A. For two days. B. For three days. C. For four days.
IV. 信息转换 (共5小题;每小题1分,共5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Advice on Having a Great ________
Where to go
Choose ________ places you want to visit.
Talk about each place with your friends or parents.
How to go
It depends on how far the place is and how much money you can ________.
What to do
Book a great hotel:
Find a comfortable hotel to ________.
Write a list:
Think about what you need, and prepare the ________ things ahead of time.
第二部分 英语知识运用 (共两大题,满分30分)
V. 单项填空 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【1题答案】
【答案】B
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】C
【4题答案】
【答案】D
【5题答案】
【答案】D
【6题答案】
【答案】D
【7题答案】
【答案】B
【8题答案】
【答案】A
【9题答案】
【答案】C
【10题答案】
【答案】A
VI. 完形填空 (共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
【11~20题答案】
【答案】11. C 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. D
B
【21~30题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. D
第三部分 阅读理解 (共两大题,满分45分)
Ⅶ. 补全对话 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. B 32. G 33. D 34. E 35. C
Ⅷ. 阅读理解 (共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
【36~38题答案】
【答案】36. D 37. D 38. C
B
【39~42题答案】
【答案】39. D 40. B 41. A 42. C
C
【43~45题答案】
【答案】43. D 44. B 45. A
D
【46~49题答案】
【答案】46. B 47. C 48. A 49. C
E
【50~52题答案】
【答案】50. A 51. B 52. B
F
【53~55题答案】
【答案】53. He worked for a company.
54. By holding different village cultural festivals every year.
55. They are smart and caring.
第四部分 写作 (共两大题,满分25分)
X. 单词拼写 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据汉语或首字母提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
【56题答案】
【答案】(a)void
【57题答案】
【答案】(c)losely
【58题答案】
【答案】(d)igging
【59题答案】
【答案】(s)pread
【60题答案】
【答案】(b)asic
X. 书面表达 (共1小题,满分20分)
【61题答案】
【答案】例文
How to Improve Myself
Life is really a long journey. In my growing up life, I have been looking for ways to improve myself.
First, we should always obey traffic rules when crossing the road. In public places, it is necessary to behave politely. For example, we must keep quiet in the library. Then, learning to care about others is also important. We can donate our pocket money to charities and work as volunteers at the community centre. Moreover, we can save water by taking shorter showers. It’s wise for us to choose public transport, because protecting the environment can help us live a green life. Finally, as a middle school student, I plan to finish my homework on time and read more meaningful books in the next two months.
Follow these ways and I am sure I can improve myself and become a better person.
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