黑龙江省大庆市萨尔图区大庆实验中学2024-2025学年高一下学期7月期末英语试题

大庆实验中学2024级高一下学期期末考试 英语学科试题 说明：1. 请将答案填涂在答题卡的指定区域内。 2. 满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Doctor and patient. B. Husband and wife. C. Parent and child. 2. What is the weather like now? A. Rainy. B. Snowy. C. Sunny. 3. What is John doing now? A. Playing football. B. Watching TV. C. Doing revision. 4. When will the next bus leave? A. At 9:30. B. At 9:35. C. At 10:00. 5. Where does the woman plan to take her holiday this year? A. In Canada. B. In Turkey. C. In Italy. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几道小题，从每题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读每小题。听完后，每 小题将给出5秒钟的做答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Why is the blouse so expensive? A. It’s from China. B. It’s made of silk. C. It looks nice. 7. How much will the woman pay in total? A. 150 dollars. B. 240 dollars. C. 300 dollars. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What is the man planning to buy? A. A garden. B. A house. C. A farm. 9. What do we know about the house? A. It is large. B. It needs fixing. C. It has one bedroom. 10. What does the man suggest growing? A. Com. B. Rice. C. Potatoes. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. When did the man begin his first horse riding lesson? A. Yesterday. B. Last week. C. A month ago. 12. What did the man think of his first horse riding lesson? A. Boring. B. Difficult. C. Interesting. 13. What did the woman say about her teacher? A. She was a good teacher. B. She was an excellent rider. C. She was a humorous person. 听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。 14. Why does the woman go to England today? A. To visit a friend. B. To go shopping. C. To do business. 15. What kind of tickets will the woman buy? A. Single ones. B. First-class ones. C. Weekly return ones. 16. When will the return flight leave? A. At 8:15 am. B. At 6:50 pm. C. At 9:30 pm. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. How long will it take to get to the museum? A. About 20 minutes. B. About 30 minutes. C. About 50 minutes. 18. What is special about the trip for the students? A. They can pick up ancient pots to study. B. They can take old rings out of the glass case. C. They’ll take a related test when back at school. 19. How do the students find information in the Technology Center? A. By using iPads. B. By using computers. C. By asking Jane Witten. 20. What does the speaker want the students to do after the trip? A. Make postcards. B. Draw posters. C. Give reports. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A June is the month of plenty around the world, during which time the following four destinations are highly recommended. Nashville, Tennessee Among various celebrations, the yearly Bonnaroo Music and Arts Festival stands out, which involves over 150 performances. While in the downtown, have a taste of country music at the yearly four-day CMA Fest. Musicians will perform free to help raise money for music education programmes. Sweden In Swedish Lapland, the sun remains low on the horizon from June until mid-July. Visitors can try the midnight sun hike in Abisko National Park, where forests, mountains and a lake shine beyond. While you’re wide-eyed, experience the joy of Sweden’s midsummer parties. As the fields burst with wild flowers, party-goers rush to various celebrations at the end of June. Cusco, Peru This ancient city in the high Andes becomes a stage for Inti Raymi, an old festival in honor of the kind Inca sun god, marking the beginning of longer days ahead. Investigate more Inca heritage on a four-day hike to the 15th-century capital Machu Picchu, whose legendary ruins dot a mountain slope (斜坡). Malaysian Borneo Explore the Sabah rainforests for sightings of the endangered orangutan (红猩猩), which are found only here. Slow things down on remote Selingan Island, where turtle-hatching (乌龟孵化) season is starting. Visitors are advised to stay the night, because as darkness falls, turtles come ashore to lay eggs in the soft sand. Guests can also participate in a special activity to help put turtle babies into the sea. 1 What can visitors do in Abisko National Park in June? A. Attend country music concerts. B. Celebrate the festival of the Sun. C. Watch turtles lay eggs on the beach. D. Join in a hike under the midnight sun. 2. Who will be attracted to Cusco Peru? A. Music lovers. B. Relic seekers. C. Wildlife protectors. D. Adventurous explorers. 3. What do the four destinations have in common? A. They feature eye-catching views. B. They host special events in June. C. They focus on wildlife protection. D. They are famous for historical ruins. B I was born with a rare disease that prevented the normal growth of my right arm. I was bullied(霸凌) at school. Those cruel comments won't affect me now, but back then they struck very hard. My parents realized playing with Lego was a great way to improve my flexibility, so they bought me a set when I was five. I built planes and cars, and even a prosthetic(假肢的) arm, though I had already decided I didn't need a prosthesis—they were very expensive, and I was doing just fine. I made one because it's fun. I have since made several new versions. And my latest model is the most advanced and comfortable. It has a control unit that can send and receive orders from sensors on the arm to the motors, with cables that contract like muscles. A lot of people don't have the resources to buy a prosthesis. I hate it when people have to pay up to 100,000 for a prosthesis. They shouldn't pay that much—it's not a luxury. My goal is to try to make some that more people can afford. When I was 19, the parents of an eight-year-old boy got in touch to ask if I could build him a prosthesis. His arms and legs are underdeveloped as part of his condition, so I made two prosthetic arms using Lego units costing only 15. His smile was very empowering(增强自信的) when he used them for the first time. To me, my creations don't necessarily tell the story of how I overcame my condition with Lego; they're about how I overcame bullying and being upset almost every day at school. 4. How did the author feel about his school experience? A. Encouraging. B. Tiring. C. Painful. D. Comfortable. 5. What is the author's main goal for making prostheses? A. To improve their function. B. To test their flexibility. C. To promote their luxury use. D. To reduce their cost. 6. What change does the author highlight from making prosthetics? A. He earned great fame. B. He found emotional relief. C. He cured his disability. D. He improved his grades. 7. What kind of person is the author? A. Sympathetic and creative. B. Outgoing and adaptable. C. Patient but aggressive. D. Ambitious but proud. C In today’s digital age, people are changing the way they communicate. More and more people now prefer texting over talking. In fact, a global survey in 17 countries shows that around 40% of adults choose texting as their favorite way to stay connected. In China, WeChat users send over 45 billion messages daily. This growing habit reflects how digital tools are reshaping our social behavior. This shift has even created a new type of person — the textrovert. A textrovert is someone who may seem shy in person but becomes very expressive through texting. The term first appeared in online slang in 2008. Just as there are introverts (内向的人) and extroverts (外向的人), a textrovert is considered a new personality type in the digital world. Why do so many people feel safer texting? First, it allows time to think and edit before replying. Second, it removes the pressure of speaking face-to-face. As a result, some students may appear confident and expressive in texts but remain quiet or withdrawn in real-life settings. Although texting is convenient, it can also bring stress. Waiting for a reply can cause textpectation — a feeling of nervous anticipation. If a message gets no answer, people may experience textiety — the worry that they are being ignored. Without facial expressions or tone, it’s easy to misunderstand each other, especially when discussing serious topics like money or relationships. In more serious cases, people may become too dependent on their phones. If they cannot use them, they may suffer from nomophobia — the fear of being without a mobile device. Others experience phantom vibration syndrome, where they feel their phone vibrating when it hasn’t. These conditions remind us that while texting has benefits, it can also lead to emotional stress and unhealthy habits. Still, texting helps people build online friendships and stay in touch. However, experts remind us that texting cannot replace face-to-face warmth. A real voice or a smile can express emotions that text messages cannot. Experts suggest setting regular “tech-free hours” each day to build healthier communication habits. Maintaining a balance between digital and real-life interaction is essential. 8. What is the main idea of paragraph 1? A. The phenomenon of texting’s popularity. B. The criticism of texting’s negative effects. C. The definition of “textrovert” and its causes. D. The comparison between digital and traditional communication. 9. What does the underlined word “withdrawn” in the third paragraph mean? A. Lonely B. Reserved. C. Anxious. D. Energetic. 10. Which of the following student action best matches the author’s suggestion? A. Turn off phones for family time. B. Use voice messages more than texts. C. Post screen-time records online daily. D. Check messages constantly while working. 11. Which of the following could be the best title? A. Life in a Text-Driven Teen World B. Texting: Comfort at a Cost C. Text Apps that Change Our World D. China’s Texting Boom and Beyond D Drought is an increasing problem in our warming world. All continents have been experiencing more extended periods without rain, leading to forest fires and poor crop growth. Consequently, people are looking at cloud seeding to solve the problem — a method of encouraging precipitation (降水) by sending small particles of certain chemicals into clouds. Cloud-seeding expert Arlen Huggins has been studying its effectiveness. “My earliest experience was to use cloud seeding to reduce the amount of hail (冰雹) in northeast Colorado. We didn’t have any luck with that, but we had success later on in increasing snowfall in Utah. Now, the focus is shifting towards increasing rainfall from summer clouds, which is far more unpredictable.” said he. The problem is that it’s pretty hard to know whether precipitation resulted directly from cloud seeding. It might have rained or snowed anyway. Even if you practice cloud seeding in one place and don’t in another, it’s impossible to know for sure what caused the precipitation. “As cloud seeding is expensive and its effectiveness uncertain, its usefulness is still a matter of opinion,” says Katja Friedrich, a researcher of University of Colorado. Additionally, it’s not during foggy and snowy conditions that people think of increasing the chance of rainfall. When a country is hit by drought, then cloud seeding isn’t an option due to the lack of clouds. During drought, skies tend to be clear with few clouds. The best option to prevent drought is to seed at times of the year when rainfall levels are normal or higher. There are also environmental issues regarding the impact of cloud seeding. At high levels, the chemicals sent into the clouds can harm humans and other animals, and some studies have found them slightly poisonous. Apart from that, some environmentalists are concerned about the long-term impacts, as there isn’t data on how much those chemicals accumulate in the environment over 10 years. 12. What is the purpose of cloud seeding? A. To increase grain output. B. To slow down global warming. C. To reduce chemicals in the air. D. To deal with dry and rain-free weather. 13. How is Arlen Huggins’ earliest experience in Paragraph 2? A. It’s effective. B. It’s unsuccessful. C. It’s satisfying. D. It’s fruitful. 14. What is Katja Friedrich’s attitude towards cloud seeding? A. Favourable. B. Opposed. C. Unclear. D. Doubtful. 15. What can be inferred from the text? A. Drought currently poses the only t hreat to forests and crops. B. Rainmaking in any weather will come true in the near future. C. Researchers now can not tell if rainfall is brought by cloud seeding. D. Chemicals sent into the clouds will become less poisonous over time. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项有两项为多余选项。 Hiking, that is, travelling on foot, can be a great way to spend time outdoors. ____16____ With enough preparation, hiking can be a safe sport in which anyone can take part. Map out your way before setting out. Tell your friends or family where and when you will be hiking, and when you expect to return. ____17____ If you have a navigation device, pack it, as well. ____18____ Your body can only take in about l liter of liquid per hour, so drink 0.5 to l liter of some type of electrolyte (电解质) replacement drink every hour when you are hiking in the heat. Carry your water bottle in your hand and drink small amounts often. An adult should drink about 4 liters of electrolyte replacement drink for every 8 hours spent hiking in the heat. In the case of lightning storms, stay away from call trees and go quickly to the lowest — lying land you can find. On hot summer days, it’s necessary to bring, clothing and a raincoat. ____19____ In fall and winter, pack warm clothing and matches in case you need to build a fire. If you have worked out a hiking plan and told your friends or family your plan, help will be on the way as soon as they realize that you are missing. The best course of action is to stay in one position so that search groups can find you. Try to find a grassland or clearing where you may be seen from the air. A navigation device is a good helper, and your friends or family may easily know where you are. ____20____ A. Water is the most important thing. B. Going hiking with friends is even greater. C. Buy a map of the area and familiarize yourself with the paths. D. It will also be fixed in boats both of the sailing and rowing variety. E. Take plenty of water and sun cream, as temperatures may increase fast. F. However, basic hiking rules are necessary to ensure you have a safe trip. G. To bring a smartphone is also a good idea, but you may not have service in some areas. 第三部分 语言知识运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 Sophia always hated paintings, seeing them as meaningless colors. When her best friend dragged her to the grand opening of the new art gallery, she tried to ____21____ but failed. The walls there were lined with paintings — some abstract, some detailed, all equally ____22____ in her eyes. As she ____23____, she noticed an old woman, standing before a painting, her fingers resting lightly on the frame. Next to her was a man ____24____ the artwork in an attentive voice. Suddenly, the man’s phone rang. “I have to take this, Eleanor. I’ll be back soon.” The woman stood ____25____, as if waiting for him to ____26____. But in the shifting crowd, she took a small step forward and ____27____ Sophia. “Sorry, dear,” the woman apologized, steadying herself. “It’s fine,” Sophia hesitated. “Are you ____28____?” The old woman nodded. “Then why are you here?” Sophia felt confused. The woman laughed. “Paintings aren’t just for the eyes. They hold stories and ____29____. I come to feel them, even if I can’t see them. Would you mind ____30____ me until my friend comes back?” Something about the woman made it difficult to decline. Sophia took her ____31____ gently and led her to the nearest painting. As she depicted the painting, Eleanor ____32____, her fingers brushing over the canvas, as if reading a book. Meanwhile, Sophia found herself seeing the colors and brushstrokes ____33____, realizing they ____34____ the artist’s feelings. From then on, she no longer saw paintings as lifeless objects but as ____35____ to the heart. 21. A. complain B. argue C. accept D. reject 22. A. meaningful B. disgusting C. dull D. intriguing 23. A. walked B. wandered C. moved D. strode 24. A. describing B. criticizing C. illustrating D. analyzing 25. A. silent B. still C. active D. lonely 26. A. leave B. approach C. arrive D. return 27. A. came across B. bumped into C. knocked over D. tripped over 28. A. deaf B. disabled C. dumb D. blind 29. A. techniques B. beliefs C. themes D. emotions 30. A. assisting B. ignoring C. sheltering D. transmitting 31. A. arm B. elbow C. waist D. foot 32. A. looked up B. drifted away C. reached out D. turned around 33. A. uniquely B. differently C. separately D. definitely 34. A. spread B. reflect C. convey D. involve 35. A. windows B. doors C. mirrors D. bridges 第二节 单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出可填入空白处的最佳选项。 36. The color and style _____ me but the size doesn’t _____ me. A. fit; suit B. suit; fit C. fit; fit D. suit; suit 37. The painting,______ the famous art collector, ______ a masterpiece of Impressionism. A. belonged to, considering B. belonging to, is considered C. belonged to, is considered D. belonging to, considered 38. The new test should ____ doctors to detect the disease early. A. able B. enable C. disable D. unable 39 Don’t let ________ steam easily. Or you’ll let your parents and friends ________. A. off; down B. down; off C. out; through D. on; up 40. I’m writing to apologize ________ you ________ what I said just now. A. at; for B. to; for C. at; about D. to; in 41. My assistant has asked three days off. Can you ________ ? I’m nearly worn out. A. take the lead B. settle down C. move on D. help out 42. Students are encouraged to manage their own learning, ________ just depending on the teacher. A. due to B. rather than C. regardless of D. in terms of 43. I shall never forget the days ________ I spent in Beijing University, ________ has a great effect on my life. A. that; which B. when; which C. when; that D. that; that 44. It was the moment ________ she arrived at the UK________ signalled the beginning of a journey filled with unknown adventures and unforgettable experiences. A. /, that B. when, that C. that, when D. when, which 45. We had to be patient because it ________some time________ we got the full results. A. has been；since B. had been；until C. was；after D. would be；before 第三节 单句语法填空（共10题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。 46. Let your imagination run wild and be a ________ (create) writer. (所给词的适当形式填空) 47. As Confucius put it, we should reflect ________ ourselves three times each day. (用适当的词填空) 48. It is pretty important for teenagers to keep a ________ (balance) diet. (所给词的适当形式填空) 49. ________ (criticize) in public, as is often the case, will cause embarrassment. (所给词的适当形式填空) 50. Much to his ________ (relieve), he saw his lost dog running towards him, its tail wagging with joy. (所给词的适当形式填空) 51. It wasn’t very ________(sense) to go out on your own so late at night. (所给词的适当形式填空) 52. The storms may not be as serious as they were ________ (initial) predicted. (所给词的适当形式填空) 53. It can be ________ (benefit) to share your feelings with someone you trust. (所给词的适当形式填空) 54. Nothing like this _________________ (invent) yet and I’d say we’re a long way from an invention like that at the moment! (所给词的适当形式填空) 55. Amy can’t forget the company and the manager ________ she visited in Shanghai years ago. (用适当的词填空) 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 56. 假定你是李华，因为对太空很感兴趣，想要参加一个有关探索太空的夏令营，但是你的父母却以关注学习为理由反对你参加。因此，你很苦恼。请你给英国网友Henry发送电子邮件寻求建议，内容包括： 1. 阐述问题； 2. 寻求建议。 注意： 1. 写作词数应为80个左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Henry, ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 57. 阅读下面材料， 根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段， 使之构成一篇完整的短文。 At the age of 30, I resigned to start my own business. I felt like I was on the right path. I was busy making plans happen. For months, I kept myself moving. Even when I wasn’t working, I was thinking about work. There was never enough time, and I was afraid that if I stopped to relax, I might let someone down. But the more I worked, the less I seemed to get done. When I started to feel really tired, I told myself I just needed to work harder and get more organized. But something was wrong. I was very tired and my body hurt all over. My smart watch kept buzzing (嗡嗡声), telling me my heart was beating too fast. I had tried hard to be healthy — I stopped drinking, changed my diet, and lost weight. I thought things would get better, but they didn’t. Finally, I went to a doctor. “How’s your stress?” the doctor asked. I didn’t think I was very stressed, but tests showed I had a disease called Graves’ disease, which can get worse because of stress. The next day, I ran into an old friend, Cindy. We hadn’t seen each other for a while, and Cindy looked at me with concern. “You look tired. I don’t know how you are doing, but you seems to be wearing out.” “Things have been a bit crazy lately,” I admitted. “Maybe it’s time to take a break,” Cindy suggested. As we said goodbye, she added, “It was good to see you. You’ve lost weight; make sure you take care of yourself.” She waved and left. Reflecting on my previous behavior, I realized I had been missing the simple pleasures in life — the little but meaningful things that help me relax and recharge, like bonding with my family, engaging in community activities to help those in need, interacting with friends and visiting my favorite bookstore. Days later, Cindy called and asked, “There’s a charity event dedicated to helping the left-behind children and elderly people who live alone in our community this weekend. Would you like to go with me and offer your help?” 注意： 1. 续写词数应为150左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 I was hesitant at first, but I decided to give it a try. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ After that memorable day, I decided to make a change to my life. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 大庆实验中学2024级高一下学期期末考试 英语学科试题 说明：1. 请将答案填涂在答题卡的指定区域内。 2. 满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Doctor and patient. B. Husband and wife. C. Parent and child. 2. What is the weather like now? A. Rainy. B. Snowy. C. Sunny. 3. What is John doing now? A. Playing football. B. Watching TV. C. Doing revision. 4. When will the next bus leave? A. At 9:30. B. At 9:35. C. At 10:00. 5. Where does the woman plan to take her holiday this year? A. In Canada. B. In Turkey. C. In Italy. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几道小题，从每题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读每小题。听完后，每 小题将给出5秒钟的做答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Why is the blouse so expensive? A. It’s from China. B. It’s made of silk. C. It looks nice. 7. How much will the woman pay in total? A. 150 dollars. B. 240 dollars. C. 300 dollars. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What is the man planning to buy? A. A garden. B. A house. C. A farm. 9. What do we know about the house? A It is large. B. It needs fixing. C. It has one bedroom. 10. What does the man suggest growing? A Com. B. Rice. C. Potatoes. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. When did the man begin his first horse riding lesson? A. Yesterday. B. Last week. C. A month ago. 12. What did the man think of his first horse riding lesson? A. Boring. B. Difficult. C. Interesting. 13. What did the woman say about her teacher? A. She was a good teacher. B. She was an excellent rider. C. She was a humorous person. 听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。 14. Why does the woman go to England today? A. To visit a friend. B. To go shopping. C. To do business. 15. What kind of tickets will the woman buy? A. Single ones. B. First-class ones. C. Weekly return ones. 16. When will the return flight leave? A. At 8:15 am. B. At 6:50 pm. C. At 9:30 pm. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. How long will it take to get to the museum? A. About 20 minutes. B. About 30 minutes. C. About 50 minutes. 18. What is special about the trip for the students? A. They can pick up ancient pots to study. B. They can take old rings out of the glass case. C. They’ll take a related test when back at school. 19. How do the students find information in the Technology Center? A. By using iPads. B. By using computers. C. By asking Jane Witten. 20. What does the speaker want the students to do after the trip? A. Make postcards. B. Draw posters. C. Give reports. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. D 2. B 3. B B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. C 5. D 6. B 7. A C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. A 9. B 10. A 11. B D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. D 13. B 14. D 15. C 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. F 17. C 18. A 19. E 20. G 第三部分 语言知识运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. B 28. D 29. D 30. A 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. C 35. A 第二节 单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出可填入空白处的最佳选项。 【36题答案】 【答案】B 【37题答案】 【答案】B 【38题答案】 【答案】B 【39题答案】 【答案】A 【40题答案】 【答案】B 【41题答案】 【答案】D 【42题答案】 【答案】B 【43题答案】 【答案】A 【44题答案】 【答案】B 【45题答案】 【答案】D 第三节 单句语法填空（共10题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。 【46题答案】 【答案】creative 【47题答案】 【答案】on 【48题答案】 【答案】balanced 【49题答案】 【答案】Being criticized 【50题答案】 【答案】relief 【51题答案】 【答案】sensible 【52题答案】 【答案】initially 【53题答案】 【答案】beneficial 【54题答案】 【答案】has been invented 【55题答案】 【答案】that 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【56题答案】 【答案】Dear Henry, How is everything going? Recently I feel upset and am eager for your suggestion. As you know, I have a preference for space exploration and have a good command of it. However, whenever I read relevant books and watch videos, my parents will explode with anger. They even command me to give it up and focus on my study. I have no idea how to change their minds, and I’m wondering whether you can offer me some advice. I would be thankful if you could give me some help. Looking forward to your early reply. Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 【57题答案】 【答案】 I was hesitant at first, but I decided to give it a try. Accompanied by Cindy, I spent the weekend working as a volunteer there. We organized games to interact with the left-behind children and the experience was heart-warming when I saw their initial shyness gradually transformed into smiles and laughter. We also helped clean the rooms of elderly people in a nursing house, chatted with them, and listened to their stories. The atmosphere was filled with laughter and love. For the first time in months, I forgot about work and gained a sense of authentic pleasure in life. After that memorable day, I decided to make a change to my life. I still work hard on my business, but I also reserve time for those simple pleasures. I sign up for volunteer activities, finding joy in the smiles of those less fortunate. I have heart-to-heart conversations with my family over delicious home-cooked meals and visit bookstores where I lose myself in the wisdom of written words. With this new routine, my health gradually improves and I rediscover the path to true well-being. I am ready to embrace a new chapter, one that includes both ambition and the joy of living. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $