河北省石家庄市七县联合体2024-2025学年高二下学期期末考试英语试题

2024~2025学年度高二年级期末测试 英语 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：高考范围。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题；每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Who does the video game belong to? A. Bob. B. Mike. C. Lisa. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. A family visit. B. A birthday plan. C. A new art gallery. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 When is probably the woman’s reservation? A. On November 10th. B. On November 13th. C. On November 30th. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What happens to the man? A. He gets a reward. B. He loses his job. C. He is fined. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Where does the conversation take place? A. On the phone. B. In a shop. C. On the Internet. 第二节(共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. When is the Forest Trails Hike scheduled? A. In October. B. In November. C. In December. 7. What hike does the man choose? A. The Ridge Top Hike. B. The Forest Trails Hike. C. The Mountain Valley Hike. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. Who bought a book about history? A. David. B. Emily. C. Ben. 9. Why did Mike dislike the book he chose? A. The pictures were dark. B The language was outdated. C. It had too many complex theories. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 10. Where is the man now? A. On a bus. B. At the train station. C. In his cousin’s house. 11. How long does the woman still need to wait for the man? A. For 20 minutes. B. For 30 minutes. C. For 40 minutes. 12. What will the man do next? A. Call a taxi to the station. B. Buy new train tickets. C. Inform his cousin. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 13. What class has Emily just attended? A. A business talk. B. A recycling lecture. C. A creative workshop. 14. Why does the man look worried? A. He has trouble choosing a job. B. He is poor at studying in college. C. He has too many clean-up activities. 15. What does Emily think of career choices? A. She believes one should follow family advice. B. She thinks personal preference is important. C. She advocates choosing a high-paying job. 16 What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Teacher and student. B. Uncle and niece. C. Friends. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 17. What is the speaker probably? A. An actor. B. A player. C. A host. 18. Where should the participating students gather? A. At the school gate. B. Next to the footballs. C. Around the scoreboard. 19. How are students grouped into teams? A By their grades. B. By their height. C. By their age. 20. What can we know about the game? A. The teachers will play in it. B. It is part of a sports season event. C. The school wants students to compete for it. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Bhutan is a country deeply rooted in tradition, spirituality and community values. Whether you’re planning a trip to Bhutan or simply curious about its customs, understanding Bhutanese culture and etiquette (礼仪) will help you appreciate and respect this extraordinary kingdom. Religion and Spirituality Bhutan is a deeply spiritual country, with Vajrayana Buddhism being the main religion. Monasteries, stupas, and prayer flags dot the landscape, symbolizing the Bhutanese people’s devotion. Visitors are encouraged to observe religious practices respectfully, for example, taking off shoes before entering temples. Traditional Dress The Bhutanese take great pride in their traditional dress. Men wear the gho, a knee-length coat tied with a belt, while women wear the kira, a full-length dress paired with a short jacket called a toego. Visitors may be required to dress modestly when visiting religious sites. Greetings and Interactions Bhutanese people are warm and welcoming. The common way to greet someone is with a slight bow and a “Kuzuzangpo la”, meaning “hello”. Physical contact, such as handshakes or hugs, is not as common, particularly between opposite genders. Instead, a respectful nod is preferred. Dining Etiquette Meals in Bhutan are often served family-style, and it is polite to wait until the eldest person starts eating before beginning your meal. Bhutanese people traditionally eat with their hands. When accepting food or passing objects, use both hands or your right hand, as the left is considered unclean. It is customary to say “Meshu meshu” if you are full and cannot eat more, but be prepared to receive gentle insistence to have a little more! Bhutan’s rich culture and traditions make it one of the most attractive destinations in the world. Ready to experience the magic of Bhutan? Book your Bhutan tour today! 21. What are visitors expected to do when visiting a temple in Bhutan? A. Bring offerings of food. B. Remove shoes before entering. C. Avoid making eye contact with locals. D. Wear a special traditional dress. 22. What is the most appropriate way for a visitor to greet Bhutanese elders? A. Hugging them warmly. B. Shaking hands with them firmly. C. Smiling but avoiding any gesture. D. Bowing slightly and saying "Kuzuzangpo la". 23. What is the text probably? A. An advertisement for Bhutan tours. B. A comparison of global customs. C. A personal travel journal. D. An introduction to Bhutanese history. B Aaryan Shukla, a 14-year-old boy from Maharashtra, India, has recently set six new Guinness World Records in mental calculation in a single day. As a young child, Aaryan showed an extraordinary talent for numbers. His parents, neither of whom had any special math skills, noticed his ability and began to explore the world of mental calculation. They discovered that there were many people around the world who enjoyed solving complex math problems in their heads, and that there were even contests dedicated to these mental calculations. These contests often involved adding large numbers, multiplying or dividing big numbers, and even calculating square roots. Aaryan’s talent was remarkable. For example, without a calculator or paper, he could quickly tell you that the square root of 65,947 is 256.80148. At the age of eight, Aaryan’s parents entered him into international mental calculation contests, where he began to win. He enjoyed traveling and representing his country, and soon he earned the nickname “Human Calculator”. In 2022, Aaryan participated in the Mental Calculation World Cup in Germany. At just 12 years old, he was the overall winner and set three new contest records. Two years later, he returned to the competition and won all five main contests, once again becoming the overall winner. Aaryan’s achievements are not only impressive but also inspiring. Last year, he set a Guinness World Record by correctly adding up 50 five-digit numbers in just 25.19 seconds. Each number flashed on a screen for only half a second, and Aaryan had to add them all up. “It’s so fast that you can’t think,” he said. “You just need to do the calculations.” Aaryan’s success is the result of passion and determination. He practices for several hours a day in addition to his schoolwork. However, he also makes time for other activities. He enjoys playing video games, reading adventure and mystery books and playing cricket (板球). 24. What do we know about Aaryan’s parents? A. They forced him to practice math. B. They encouraged his abilities early. C. They paid little attention to his talent. D. They were professional mathematicians. 25. What did Aaryan do in 2024? A. He set six new Guinness World Records in a week. B. He earned the nickname “Human Calculator” for the first time. C. He participated in his first international mental calculation contest. D. He won all five main contests at the Mental Calculation World Cup. 26. What can we learn about Aaryan from the text? A. He manages time effectively between studies and hobbies. B. He relies mainly on natural talent rather than practice. C. His parents’ lack of math skills limited his development. D. Video games help improve his mental calculation speed. 27. What is the best title for the text? A. The Rise of an Indian Cricket Star B. Aaryan Shukla: The Boy Who Likes Traveling C. The Story of a Book Lover D. From Hobby to Guinness: A Teen’s Journey C Pablo Guerrero, a plant scientist at Chile’s Universidad de Concepcion, has committed his career to studying cacti (仙人掌) in the Atacama Desert. This Mars-like landscape is so dry and bare that NASA tests robots there. Now, he investigates threats to these plants, including climate change and illegal trading. The Atacama’s cacti face compounding pressures. Many species occupy microhabitats covering mere kilometers, relying entirely on coastal fog for survival. But shifting climate patterns are reducing fog, while industrial expansion breaks up their habitats. Roads built for mining and energy projects—such as lithium extraction, which is critical for global battery production—now cut through once-inaccessible zones, bringing pollution and human activity. By comparing historical images to current conditions, Guerrero observes obvious declines: “Plants are far less plentiful today.” In recent years, Guerrero’s focus has shifted to poaching (偷猎) after reports of seized cacti at Chilean borders. Global demand for rare houseplants, driven by collectors in Europe and Asia, has turned species like Copiapoa—a type of cactus that only grows in the Atacama—into targets for illegal trade. His 2023 study in Conservation Biology re-evaluated extinction risks for 39 known Copiapoa species and subspecies. Shockingly, 76% now qualify as critically endangered or endangered, a significant increase from prior assessments. While climate stress contributes, illegal trade emerged as the dominant threat, impacting nearly all critically endangered varieties. Some poached cacti, worth thousands of dollars online, take decades to reach reproductive maturity, making population recovery nearly impossible. Guerrero emphasizes urgent conservation steps, including expanding protected zones in biodiversity hotspots and training park staff to identify rare species. He cooperates with Chilean authorities and international agencies to track illegal trade routes. Yet time is limited. Some populations, like the round, dark Copiapoa solaris, are already dying in large numbers due to long droughts. “The situation is serious,” he warns. Without intervention, unique cactus types shaped by millions of years of evolution (进化) could disappear within decades. For Guerrero, protecting these plants is important both in terms of science and on a personal level. “They represent how life can survive in very tough conditions,” he says. “If we lose them, we will lose a part of our natural history.” 28. What is Pablo Guerrero’s current research focus? A. Testing robots in Mars-like environments. B. Examining threats to cacti in the Atacama Desert. C. Studying how desert plants adapt to extreme drought. D. Analyzing the impact of lithium extraction on global batteries. 29. What does the underlined word “compounding” in paragraph 2 probably mean? A. Increasing. B. Simplified. C. Lessening. D. Balanced. 30. What can be learned about the known Copiapoa cacti from the text? A. They can reproduce quickly after being poached. B. Their habitats have been expanded due to industrial projects. C. Most of them are now critically endangered or endangered. D. Climate change is the main reason for their population decline. 31 What is the main purpose of quoting Guerrero’s words in the last two paragraphs? A. To stress his efforts in his career. B. To describe the beauty of Atacama’s cacti. C. To illustrate the process of cactus poaching. D. To call for the protection of Atacama’s cacti. D Across the US, rising housing costs have left many families struggling to afford to rent or buy homes. To address this crisis, builders are experimenting with creative solutions — from factory-built homes to 3D-printed houses. These innovations aim to create housing faster and more cheaply than traditional construction methods, offering hope for communities burdened by the shortage of millions of homes. One promising approach is factory-built housing. At factories like Colorado’s Fading West, workers assemble (组装) homes indoors on assembly lines, similar to car production. Floors, walls, plumbing and electrical systems are fitted in climate-controlled factories, completing up to 90% of each unit in just five to seven days. Finished units are then shipped to locations like Eagle, Colorado, where they’re quickly set up as affordable housing for teachers and service workers in expensive mountain towns. While this method reduces weather delays and waste, challenges remain. Rules on building vary widely between towns, requiring adjustments for each project, and constructing factories requires significant upfront investment. Still, supporters argue factory-built homes could become a key tool for expanding affordable housing. Another cutting-edge idea is 3D printing. Robotic arms equipped with concrete nozzles (喷嘴) “print” walls layer by layer, creating unique designs impossible with traditional materials. Advocates say this technology could eventually lower labor costs and speed up construction. However, high equipment prices and a lack of skilled operators limit its use today. Most 3D-printed homes are single-story models, and the method isn’t yet approved by international building standards. “It’s a long-term solution,” explains engineer Grant Hamel, whose company builds 3D-printed homes. “We’re still perfecting the process to make it practical for everyday housing.” Housing expert Adrianne Todman emphasizes that no single solution will fix America’s housing shortage overnight. However, combining faster factory methods and emerging technologies like 3D printing could help communities build in a smarter way. For students interested in engineering, urban planning or environmental science, improving these innovations might one day make affordable, eco-friendly housing accessible to all. 32. What does the second paragraph intend to do? A. Discuss the job creation of factory-built housing in Eagle. B. Introduce an approach to solving housing problems in the USA. C. Show the safety standards of factory-built homes in Colorado. D. Explain the transportation rules of factory-built homes in mountain areas. 33. What limits the current use of 3D-printed homes? A. The difficulty of creating unique designs. B. The lack of approval from local building teams. C. The high cost of robotic arms with concrete nozzles. D. The imperfect international standards for single-story models. 34. What can we infer about 3D-printed homes? A. The technology needs improvement. B. They are built more slowly than traditional ones. C. They have already achieved practical application. D. They have gained widespread international approval. 35. What does Adrianne Todman suggest about solving the housing crisis? A. Focusing on environmental science. B. Prioritizing urban planning solutions. C. Combining multiple innovations. D. Considering students’ suggestions. 第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Green-roofed structures date back thousands of years, even before the concept of housing as it is known today was birthed. ____36____. It all started when Germany invented technology against roof entering. The new technology was heavily marketed and most people in Germany started adopting green roofs. Since then, many technologies have come up that have advanced green roofs. Today, green roofs are growing in popularity across the world. ____37____. What most people are dying for is the green outer vegetation, but what they do not know is the details beneath. Classically, there are two types of green roofs: intensive and extensive. The extensive roof design has a thin depth of soil with few layers, while the intensive one has multiple deep layers of soil with widely varied plant life. Green roofs offer design, environmental and ecological benefits. On the design aspect, a green roof is one of the main ways to integrate nature into your home. ____38____. It offers excellent views from above and below where applicable. The roof is worth every penny when it comes to the aesthetic (审美的) value it adds to a home. Environmentally, a green roof is one of the best ways to create a microclimate in your home. It provides a cool, quiet microclimate for your home. Even if you live in a hot area, a green roof will bring a cooling effect to your surroundings. A green roof is a win in many aspects. ____39____. Its environmental benefits are only applicable in situations where you intend to keep it for long. If you intend to replace yours in a few years, stick to a normal roof. You should probably also consider your location and the cost of setting it up. Based on location, a green roof might be a bit problematic if you experience very cold weather. Green roofs bring a cooling effect. ____40____. A. However, this does not mean it is good for you B. There is more to green roofing than to meet the eye C. It brings the beauty of the wild right into your home D. In cold regions, they may lead to extra heating costs E. Modern green roofing technology took shape around the 1960s F. This is separate from the cost needed to repair the normal roof underneath G. Thus, most people started paying attention to nature, leading to the popularity of green roofs 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A dog with a unique black spot covering one eye found herself in a bit of trouble on NewYear’s Eve. Somehow, she became ____41____ on ice in the middle of a frozen river in Detroit, Michigan. Just when all seemed ____42____, a Coast Guard boat ____43____ just in time! The Coast Guard was out on a routine patrol (巡逻) when they spotted the animal ____44____ to stay afloat in the icy water. While they don’t usually ____45____ rescue missions for animals, since they ____46____ to be there at the time, they decided to help the poor dog in her hour of ____47____. They hurried to ____48____ a plan and, in no time, began their ____49____ rescue mission to save this adorable dog. Petty Officer Cole Harper wore a dry suit as he carefully crawled across the thin ice toward the ____50____ animal. Once he ____51____ the dog, he wrapped his arms around her and held on ____52____. Meanwhile, his team pulled them both back across the ____53____, towards the waiting boat. Coast Guard officers ____54____ the dog up before delivering her to Detroit Animal Care and Control. She would potentially be adopted if no one ____55____ to claim her. One of the crew members said, “If no one claims the dog, I’d like to adopt her.” 41. A. confident B. relaxed C. stuck D. shy 42. A. quiet B. lost C. tiring D. interesting 43. A. changed B. burned C. escaped D. appeared 44. A. struggling B. running C. hiding D. playing 45. A. delay B. abandon C. launch D. evaluate 46. A. failed B. pretended C. refused D. happened 47. A. success B. indecision C. need D. joy 48. A. reflect upon B. miss out C. adapt to D. work out 49. A. risky B. secret C. impossible D. easy 50. A. annoyed B. frightened C. disappointed D. excited 51. A. walked B. fed C. reached D. trained 52. A. helplessly B. casually C. unwillingly D. tightly 53. A. page B. ice C. street D. table 54. A. warmed B. picked C. gave D. woke 55. A. checked out B. stepped forward C. went away D. slowed down 第二节(共10小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Reading China, an exhibition by the China Cultural Centre in Malta, ____56____(present) at the 45th Malta Book Festival, which was held at the Malta Fairs & Conventions Centre from November 6 to 10. ____57____ exhibition was a joint effort between the centre and several major publishers, including the China Education Publishing & Media Group Ltd, and the People’s Publishing House. It was the first time for the centre ____58____(participate) in the festival, which it did on the ____59____(invite) of the event’s host, the National Book Council of Malta. About 200 books in both Chinese ____60____ English were on display. They covered various ____61____(category), such as Chinese language education, traditional culture, literature, tourism and children’s books. Also on display were a series ____62____ special collectible editions of China Daily and the newspaper’s creative cultural products. “The China Cultural Centre in Malta is very proud to present a selection of books ____63____tell the stories of China to Maltese students and the wider public,” said Yuan Yuan, the center’s director. “The China Cultural Centre in Malta is an important organization that ____64____(bridge) the two countries—a very small country and a very big one. This is the first time that it is participating, and we hope that it continues to participate in the _____65_____(come) editions,” said Mark Camilleri, executive chairman of the National Book Council of Malta. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 66. 假定你是李华。你的英国朋友Chris最近在学习中国诗词，想让你在这方面给他一些建议。请你给他回信，内容包括： 1.中国诗词的介绍； 2.学习中国诗词的建议。 注意：1.写作词数应为 80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Chris, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours truly, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I was born with a disability in my left arm, which made my childhood different from other kids’. My family, trying to keep me safe, accidentally made me very shy. I was scared to play sports or do things that might make people look at me differently. My arm problem was like a wall I built around myself, stopping me from living life as freely as other kids. Then, I met a friend named Jack who was very brave. He didn’t care that I was hesitant and always wanted me to try new things. He believed in me, even when I didn’t. With his gentle push, I started to try small things, and I became more open and brave. One day, our school said we were going on a mountain climbing trip, an event I usually missed. The idea of climbing with my weaker left arm seemed really hard. I could picture people staring and whispering, feeling sorry for me. It seemed best to stay home, but this time, something was different. As the day of the trip got closer, I felt more and more confused about what to do. I thought about how much I wanted to be with my classmates, but I also worried about being a bother or not being able to keep up. Jack, seeing that I was really upset, came to talk to me. He shared stories about times when he had faced challenges and how getting through them made him stronger. He talked about how beautiful the mountains were, how exciting it was to reach the top, and how much fun it was to do hard things together with friends. Finally, Jack put his hand on my shoulder and said, “I know you can do this. I’ll be right there with you, every step of the way. We’ll climb this mountain together, and it’ll be an adventure we’ll never forget.” His eyes were filled with warmth and sincerity, and I could feel his belief in me. It was like a spark that lit a fire inside me, giving me the courage to face my fears. I decided to take part in the mountain climbing trip. 注意：1.续写词数应为150个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 The climb was really tough for me. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ As we kept climbing, I started to feel better about myself ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2024~2025学年度高二年级期末测试 英语 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：高考范围。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题；每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】A 【2题答案】 【答案】B 【3题答案】 【答案】B 【4题答案】 【答案】C 【5题答案】 【答案】A 第二节(共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. B 7. B 【8~9题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. B 【10~12题答案】 【答案】10. A 11. A 12. C 【13~16题答案】 【答案】13. C 14. A 15. B 16. C 【17~20题答案】 【答案】17. C 18. C 19. A 20. B 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【21~23题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. D 23. A B 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. B 25. D 26. A 27. D C 【28~31题答案】 【答案】28. B 29. A 30. C 31. D D 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. B 33. C 34. A 35. C 第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. E 37. B 38. C 39. A 40. D 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【41~55题答案】 【答案】41. C 42. B 43. D 44. A 45. C 46. D 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. B 51. C 52. D 53. B 54. A 55. B 第二节(共10小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分) 【56~65题答案】 【答案】56. was presented 57. The 58. to participate 59. invitation 60. and 61. categories 62. of 63. that##which 64. bridges 65. coming 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 【66题答案】 【答案】Dear Chris, I’m really excited to hear that you’ re interested in Chinese poetry. It’s a beautiful part of our heritage that’s been around for thousands of years and comes in many styles, like the famous Tang poems and Song dynasty lyrics. These poems are loved for their short but meaningful words, vivid pictures and deep feelings. Here’s what I suggest for learning them: Start with the most famous ones. Read works by poets like Li Bai and Du Fu, who are very well-known in China. Reading out loud can help you feel the poem’s beat and how the sounds work together. Plus, learning some Chinese characters might help you appreciate the poems even more. Looking forward to discussing more about it with you! Yours truly, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 【67题答案】 【答案】The climb was really tough for me. My left arm wasn’t strong, and the slippery rocks made it hard to keep going. We got to a part where the path was very narrow and high up, and I was really scared. My heart was beating fast, and I didn’t think I could do it. Jack saw I was scared, so he went first and showed me the best way to step and use my good arm to help pull me up. He was like a guide, helping me find the strength. As we kept climbing, I started to feel better about myself. The mountain, which had seemed like a really big problem, was now just a path with steps I could manage. When we finally got to the top, we were both very tired but very happy. The climb had been hard, but we had made it to the top together by not giving up and encouraging each other. How grateful I felt to Jack, and also to myself for being brave! 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$写作评分细则 第一节（满分 15 分） （一）评分原则 1.本题总分为 15 分，按 5 个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最 后给分。 3.词数少于 60 或多于 100 的，从总分中减去 2 分。 4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇 用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。 （二）各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档（13～15 分） ——完全完成试题规定的任务。 ——覆盖所有内容要点。 ——应用较多的语法结构和词汇。 ——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 ——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 ——完全达到预期的写作目的。 第四档（10～12 分） ——完成试题规定的任务。 ——虽漏掉 1～2 个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。 ——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 ——达到预期的写作目的。 第三档（7～9 分） ——基本完成试题规定的任务。 ——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 ——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 ——整体而言，基本达到预期的写作目的。 第二档（4～6 分） ——未适当完成试题规定的任务。 ——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 ——语法结构单调，词汇有限。 ——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 ——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。 ——信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档（1～3 分） ——未完成试题规定的任务。 ——明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题的要求。 ——语法结构单调，词汇有限。 ——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 ——缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 ——信息未能传达给读者。 0 分 ——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判。 ——所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 第二节（满分 25 分） （一）评分原则 1.本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档 次，最后给分。 3.词数少于 120 的，酌情扣分；只写一段的原则上不超过 10 分。 4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑： （1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度； （2）内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况； （3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性； （4）上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及 词汇用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。 （二）各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档（21～25 分） ——与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。 ——内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息。 ——所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。 ——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。 第四档（16～20 分） ——与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。 ——内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息。 ——所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 ——比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。 第三档（11～15 分） ——与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 ——写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息。 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。 ——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 第二档（6～10 分） ——与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 ——写出了一些有关内容，较少利用文中的关键信息。 ——语法结构单调，词汇有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达。 ——较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。 第一档（1～5 分） ——与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。 ——写出的内容较少，很少利用文中的关键信息。 ——语法结构单调，词汇很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。 ——缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。 0 分 ——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。 英语第一部分听力第一节听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读第一小题的有关内容。Bob, could I borrow your video game after you've used IT today? Mike will borrow IT after I get IT back from lisa. You're welcome to have IT once mike is done. Mike doesn't play for long, so he'll be finished with IT very soon. Where are you taking your sister for her birthday? I'm planning to take her to the new art gallery on main street. Far from here, we've never been there before. Remember to look into their visiting hours they just opened recently and sometimes change their schedules. What date would you like to reserve the concert tickets . for the tenth of november? Oh, sorry, I forget that the day of my business meeting, I will be back from london in three days. okay? A deposit of thirty dollars is needed. Hi, i'm extremely sorry. I was supposed to submit this project report by noon last monday, but I just got IT to you now. Well. that in the past, but you should know there is a late submission fine, IT will cost you ten percent of the total project budget. Good morning. How may I assist you today? Hi there. I'm ringing up regarding a wireless router I bought from your online shop. Suddenly I can't get a stable wifi connection with IT. Is there any way I can get a fixed or or exchanged? Certainly, please give me a moment to check the details. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答第六和第7两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Sunny hiking expeditions. Good morning. How may I help you morning? I'm interested in joining one of your hiking trips. wonderful. Which of our hiking routes are U. K. on? Here's our schedule. We have the forest trails hike scheduled for next month in november, and the rich top hiking december. The forest trails hike is in november. I thought IT was in october. It's actually going to be in the third week of november. Oh, I understand now. Well, that's still doable for me. The first trails hike is the one I want. perfect. Now please go to the check in counter and fill out the registration form. Okay, thanks. Sunny hiking expeditions. Good morning. How may I help . you morning? I'm interested in joining one of your hiking trips. wonderful. Which of our hiking routes are U. K. on? Here's our schedule. We have the forest trail's hike scheduled for next month in november and the rich top hike in december. The forest trails hike is in november. I thought I was in . october is actually going to be in the third week of november. Oh, I understand. now. Well, that's still doable for me. A forced trails hike is the one I want. perfect. Now please go to the check in counter and fill out the registration form OK. thanks. 听下面一段对话，回答第八和第9两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Did I see you at the new bookstore on pine road this afternoon? Were you there too? Yes, I was standing by the science fiction section with my classmates. Did you find any good books? Well, I picked up a fence to see navel and IT seemed interesting. But ben got a nonfiction book about history, and he said he had too many complex theories. I got a graphic novel. The illustrations were a bit too dark. I think they have a great collection of classic literature though. right? The hard cover editions of shakespeare looked amazing. Emily and David bought those. They were really excited about their purchases. So was mike. But he didn't like the poetry booky chose because the language was too old fashioned. Did I see you at the new bookstore on pine rote this afternoon? Were you there too? Yes, I was standards by the science fiction section with my classmates. Did you find any good books? Well, I picked up a fence to see navel and IT seemed interesting. But ben got a nonfiction book about history, and he said he had too many complex theories. I got a graphic novel. The illustrations were a bit too dark. I think they have a great collection of classic literature though. right? The hard cover editions of shakespeare are looked amazing. Emily and David bought those. They were really excited about their purchases. So was mike. But he didn't like the poetry booky chose because the language was too old fashioned. 听下面一段对话，回答第十至第十二三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Have you reached the train station yet? No, i've just jumped on a bus. I'll be there in thirty minutes. Well, our train will depart in forty minutes, so tell your bus driver to hurry up. He's driving as fast as he can. What should I do if you don't show up on time. just go without me. But we're . going to attend my cousin's wedding. Won't a be strange if I show up alone? No, they'll probably laugh. They always say I should be more time keeping. Are you certain? yes. Otherwise we'll have to buy two new tickets instead of one that's . reasonable. Well, i'll wait another twenty minutes, but then i'll need to board. No problem. I'll text my cousin and ask them to meet you at the train station. That would be wonderful. I've never been to liverpool before. I'm a bit nervous about IT. It'll be okay. See you soon. Have you reached the train station yet? No, i've just jumped on a bus. I'll be there in thirty minutes. Well, our train will depart in forty minutes, so tell your bus driver to hurry up. He's driving as fast as he can. What should I do if you don't show up on time? Just go without me. But we're . going to attend my cousin's wedding. Won't a be strange if I show up alone? No, they'll probably laugh. They always say I should be more time keeping. Are you certain? Yes, otherwise we'll have to buy two new tickets instead of one . that's reasonable. Well, i'll wait another twenty minutes, but then i'll need to board. No problem. I'll text my cousin and ask them to meet you at the train station. That would be wonderful. I've never been to liverpool before. I'm a bit nervous about IT. It'll be okay. See you soon. 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16 4个小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。Hi, Emily. It's a surprise to meet you at the community center. how? What are you today? I'm great. I just walked out of an interesting creative workshop here. What about you? You look worried. Well, i'm not sure about my future. I can't decide which joB2Choose. I see. What do you think is good for you? My uncle is a rich business man. He wants me to do the same. He says I should study business in college. I went to some business talks, but I don't like them. So do you enjoy making things like in that workshop? No, not really. I like protecting the environment. I always joined in clean up activities. I know a lot about recycling and Green energy. Did you tell your uncle? No, not yet. I'm a little scared to talk . to him about IT. This is your life, you need to make him understand. thanks. Oh, no, I have a volunteer meeting in fifteen minutes. ye. Hi, Emily. It's a surprise to meet you at the community center. how? What are you today? I'm great. I just walked out of an interesting creative workshop here. What about you? You look worried. Well, i'm not sure about my future. I can't decide which joB2Choose. I see. What do you think is good for you? My uncle is a rich business man. He wants me to do the same. He says I should study business in college. I went to some business talks, but I don't like them. So do you enjoy making things like in that workshop? No, not really. I like protecting the environment. I always joined in clean up activities. I know a lot about recycling and Green energy. Did you tell your uncle? No, not yet. I'm a little scared to talk . to him about IT. This is your life. You need to make him understand. thanks. Oh, no, I have a volunteer meeting in fifteen minutes. bine. 听下面一段独白，回答第17至第24个小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。Good morning, dear students and teachers, welcome to our school playground where in exciting football game is about to kick off. As the school sports season heats up, we've prepared this thrilling football match for all of you. The footballs you see here are not just ordinary balls. There are the keys to today's competition. Now here's the important information. First of all, all the participating students, please gather around the scoreboard. Over there, you'll be grouped into different teams according to your grades. Once you're on your teams, get ready to show your best the players from grades one to three will be playing on this side of the field, teachers and classmates. Let's give them a big cheer and shower support, shout out your loudest cheers as they dash across the field, aiming for the goal for the students in grades four to six. Your battle field is on the other side of the playground. Your teachers and fellow students will be right here screaming and jumping, cheering you on every step of the way. Remember, this game is not just about winning or losing, but about teamwork, sportsmanship and having a great time. So let's get this football game started and may the best team win. Go, go, go. Let the cheers rewound. Good morning, dear students and teachers, welcome to our school playground where in exciting football game is about to kick off. As the school sports season heats up, we've prepared this thrilling football match for all of you. The footballs you see here are not just ordinary balls. There are the keys to today's competition. Now here's the important information. First of all, all the participating students, please gather around the score board over there, you'll be grouped into different teams according to your grades. Once you're on your teams, get ready to show your best. The players from grades one to three will be playing on this side of the field. Teachers and classmates, let's give them a big cheer and shower support, shout out your loudest cheers as they dash across the field, aiming for the goal for the students in grades four to six. Your battle field is on the other side of the playground. Your teachers and fellow students will be right here screaming and jumping, cheering you on every step of the way. Remember, this game is not just about winning or losing, but about teamwork, sportsmanship and having a great time. So let's get this football game started and may the best team win. Go, go, go. Let the cheers rewound. 第二节到此结束，现在你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。听力部分到此结束。