内容正文:
2024-2025学年高一年级下学期期末考试
英语试题
本试卷共150分 考试时间为120分钟
答卷前, 考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上, 并在规定位置粘贴考试用条形码。答卷时, 须将答案答在答题卡上, 在本试题卷、草稿纸上答题无效。考试结束后, 本试题卷由学生自己保留, 只将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节, 满分30分)
做题时, 先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后, 你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是 C。
1. What program comes first on TV?
A. A film. B. A puzzle show C. A football match.
2. How many students are there in the woman's class?
A. 20. B. 40. C. 60.
3. What does the girl want to do?
A. Get a dog. B. Walk her dog. C. Meet her mother.
4. Who organized the party?
A. Eric. B. Janet. C. Sandy.
5. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In the cafe. B. At home. C. In the cinema.
第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟; 听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料, 回答第6、7题。
6. Why does the man make the call?
A. To buy a concert ticket.
B. To reserve a theater seat.
C. To book a restaurant table.
7. What kind of seats does the man want?
A. Ones near the window.
B. Ones near the dance floor.
C. Ones in the middle of the hall.
听第 7 段材料, 回答第8、9题。
8. What sport does Jenny play?
A. Football. B. Volleyball. C. Basketball.
9. Which aspect is the key in team sports according to Jenny?
A. Practice. B. Physical strength. C. Communication.
听第8段材料, 回答第10至12题。
10. Why does the girl talk to the man?
A. To get some advice.
B. To ask for permission.
C. To make an invitation.
11. What will the man do during the party?
A. Tell a folk story.
B. Sing an English song.
C. Perform an English play.
12. What will the headmaster do before the party?
A. Deliver a speech.
B. Share his resolutions.
C. Decorate the classroom.
听第9段材料, 回答第13至16题。
13. What will Natalie do on Sunday?
A. Do some shopping.
B. Visit her grandparents.
C. Do housework for mom.
14. How much will the speakers pay for their zoo tickets on Thursday?
A. £24. B. £30. C. £36.
15. What did Mark's art teacher ask him to do?
A. Buy a camera.
B. Take animal photos.
C. Attend a birthday party.
16. How will the speakers go to the zoo?
A. By car. B. By taxi. C. By bus.
听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。
17. What are the members asked to do?
A. Collect money for the children.
B. Help prepare for the yearly event.
C. Invite teachers to attend the yearly event.
18. Which is the thing that should be done for the party?
A. Cooking the dinner.
B. Making everyone sign up.
C. Cleaning up before the party.
19. Where does the money for the Christmas festival come from?
A. Every member.
B. The government.
C. Normal membership fees.
20. Who will be given the presents?
A. People who attend the party.
B. Children who have no parents.
C. The members of the organization.
第二部分阅读(共两节, 满分 50分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中, 选出最佳选项。
A
The U.K. is home to a wide variety of museums, there are over 30 free museums in London alone. Here we explore some of the best free museums in London.
Science Museum
From Helen Sharman’s iconic space suit to Amy Johnson’s Gipsy Moth airplane, you can explore the extraordinary stories of human achievement and the challenges we have overcome. The Science Museum also has an impressive—recently repainted—IMAX theatre, tickets can be bought online at half price.
Natural History Museum
London’s Natural History Museum is one of the capital’s most popular attractions and is totally free to visitors. It is home to over 80 million objects and samples including plants, creatures, dinosaur fossils, rare bugs and more. Billions of years of natural history is all open to visitors, completely free of charge. Conveniently located next door to London's Science Museum, the Natural History Museum is open 362 days a year (closed Dec. 24-26).
British Museum
The British Museum—founded in 1753—is London’s oldest museum. It has everything from Egyptian mummies to Aztec sculpture. At the center of the British Museum, you can also visit the Reading Room, which serves as the study space of some of the world’s most famous writers and thinkers, including Mahatma Gandhi, Karl Marx, Mark Twain and Virginia Woolf.
Imperial War Museum
Founded over a hundred years ago, Britain’s national military museum records the nation’s experience of warfare across the decades. Over six stories of exhibits take visitors from the opening shots of the First World War, right up to the conflicts of the 21st century.
1. What is special about the Science Museum?
A. It is the oldest museum in the UK.
B. It is open to the public all year round.
C. It exhibits products of science development.
D. It provides visitors with free access to an IMAX theatre.
2. Which museum will you visit if you are interested in Mark Twain’s novels?
A Science Museum. B. Natural History Museum.
C. British Museum D. Imperial War Museum.
3. Where is this text most likely from?
A. An art magazine. B. A history book.
C. A research report. D. A traveling website.
B
When Paul Cotter’s father Richard, was 52, he was fired from a large printing company after working there for over 30 years. Before, Richard Cotter was known for his sharp mind. Now, he found it too difficult to deal with the slightest bit of pressure. The next few years, he lost job from job. Everyone assumed it was a crisis of confidence. No one suspected the underlying reason: cognitive decline due to early-onset Alzheimer’s disease. Then, when Richard Cotter was 58, he was formally diagnosed (诊断) with Alzheimer’s. Paul Cotter recalls that his father was horrified by the diagnosis. “But I imagine he also felt some sense of relief,” Paul Cotter said. “Finally, there was an explanation for his decline. And in spite of it all, he still wanted to keep working.”
That’s where Paul Cotter’s unsung hero stepped in. It was the Hidden Brain team. When Cotter’s father applied for a job there, he disclosed (透露) his diagnosis and the limitations that came with it. But still the firm offered him the position — handling small tasks like making copies. “They gave him a paycheck, which made him feel needed and valued,” Cotter said. “But more than just a job, they gave him respect, dignity and a sense of purpose at a time when his life was falling apart.”
The disease continued to progress. Eventually his father had difficulty keeping his balance, and one day, he fell off a small stepladder. It was clear that it was no longer safe for him to continue working. The company let Cotter’s parents know that with deep regret, it would have to let his father go. On his father’s final day on the job, his colleagues threw him a goodbye party to thank him for his service.
“What a beautiful, remarkable gesture that was,” Cotter said. Cotter’s three brothers and sister still talk about the company’s care for their father. They wish they could tell their father’s colleagues how much that generosity has meant to their family, all these years later.
4. What do we know about Richard from paragraph 1?
A. He used to be considered intelligent. B. He regained confidence in job-hunting.
C. He needed outside assistance to survive. D. He was the oldest worker at the printing company.
5. Which words best describe Richard after his formal diagnosis?
A. Puzzled but energetic. B. Confident and ambitious.
C. Bored and annoyed. D. Scared but relieved.
6. How did the Hidden Brain help Richard?
A. By assigning manageable tasks. B. By offering a well-paid position.
C. By providing post-retirement instructions. D. By working out a new cure for Alzheimer’s.
7. What can we say about the impact of the Hidden Brain on Cotter’s family?
A. Predictable. B. Short-lived. C. Far-reaching. D. Insignificant.
C
Rollout of 5G technology means a “game-changing milestone” in communication and connectivity. As more countries adopt 5G, we will start to see more of the impact of 5G in the coming years. Let’s dig deeper into this topic to learn more.
The primary benefit of 5G is perhaps its breathtaking speed. The technology brings data transfer rates up to 10 Gbps-100 times faster than 4G. This means downloading a high-definition movie in seconds, when using 4G it took a matter of minutes. For businesses, 5G makes file sharing faster and collaboration more real-time while allowing access to the cloud smoothly. These speeds can be of great advantage in the coming year, especially to remote work, education, and telemedicine sectors.
Another area that will feel the effects of 5G most strongly is the Internet of Things(IoT). In contrast to previous generations, 5G networks can support from 500,000 to 1,000,000 connected devices per square kilometer — this is a perfect base for IoT systems. In factories, 5G-powered robotics and automation will better production lines and reduce costs. In agriculture, precision farming techniques enabled by IoT and 5G will improve crop productivity and resource efficiency. Retail businesses will use 5G effectively to create personalized shopping experiences.
With the right strategies in place, 5G can create a connected world that is more efficient, and inclusive, paving the way for a future defined by innovation and opportunity.
8. What do the underlined words “game-changing milestone” mean in paragraph 1?
A. A minor improvement in technology. B. An explosive impact on development.
C. An entertaining solution in connectivity. D. A routine update in communication systems.
9 What is the major advantage of 5G technology?
A. Improved signal range. B. Increased data transfer speed.
C. Reduced energy consumption. D. Enhanced security for data transmission.
10. How does the author develop paragraph 3?
A. By giving examples. B. By analyzing causes.
C. By giving a definition. D. By making a comparison.
11. What is the author’s attitude to the future application of 5G technology?
A. Unclear. B. Doubtful. C. Optimistic. D. Worried.
D
Every year, we learn more about how animals communicate with each other. A case in point is that research shows elephants greet each other by moving their ears and making low noises. It’s clear that communication in the animal kingdom is complex. But with all unique ways to communicate, is it possible for an animal to learn the “language” of another species?
It turns out, there are examples of animals learning to understand — and even use — vocalizations or signals from species other than their own. But there’s still a lot of questions about what’s going on inside those animals’ heads.
First off, although “language” is a useful metaphor when we’re thinking about one species understanding another, animals don’t actually have languages in the way humans do. “Language is kind of a species-specific communication system to humans,” Simon W. Townsend, a professor of evolutionary anthropology, told Live Science.
When it comes to learning on sounds from other species, birds are one of the best-studied animals. But learning a “language” is about more than just understanding what you hear; it’s about being able to speak it, too. That’s where the fork-tailed drongo — a small, black bird found across Africa — excels (擅长).
Drongos have a habit of following other animals around in the hope of stealing some of their food. Thomas Flower, a biology instructor, studied these birds in the field as they followed a group of meerkats. He found that the drongos would use their own alarm calls — a squawk that indicates a predator (捕食者) is approaching — to scare the meerkats into their holes, allowing the drongos to dive in and grab any leftover food.
12. Why does the author mention elephant’s greeting in paragraph 1?
A. To display elephants’ talent.
B. To introduce animal communication.
C. To present dangers faced by elephants.
D. To state the complexity of animal kingdom.
13. What does Townsend think of language?
A. Difficult to comprehend. B. Limited to certain species.
C. Similar among all animals. D. Well-explored by scientists.
14. What can we learn about fork-tailed drongos?
A. They can interact with humans.
B. They are the only animals that steal food.
C. They are more intelligent than other animals.
D. They can learn and use another species' signals.
15. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. Biodiversity Adds Color to the World
B. Will Animals and Humans Live in Harmony?
C. Can Animals Learn Another Species’ Language?
D. Animals’ Communication Patterns Vary Across Species
第二节(共5小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分)
根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Taking time to care for your body and mind is very important to prevent burnout (劳累过度). Failing to give yourself the care that you deserve can lead to you feeling tired, anxious, and overwhelmed. ____16____
Write in a journal every day
Keeping a regular journal can help you get in touch with yourself and how you really feel about things. It can also help you solve problems and relax. Set aside 20 minutes each day to write in your journal. ____17____ Using a physical journal will be more effective, but any journal is better than nothing!
____18____
Countless studies have linked the use of technology — including computers, cell phones and TVs — to sleeping problems. It’s important to set time aside each day to do something that doesn’t involve looking at a screen: read a book, go for a walk, or do whatever may attract you.
Exercise regularly
Studies have shown that exercise reorganizes the brain and improves memory and thinking skills, making it more resilient to stress. Experts recommend doing at least 150 minutes of moderate physical activity (walking) or 75 minutes of vigorous physical activity (running) each week. ____19____ . Thirty minutes every day is the most popular recommendation.
Do things that interest you
____20____. Learn a second language; join a cooking class; take a writing class. Taking time to develop your interests will make you feel more fulfilled in life. If all you do is wake up, work go to school, come home, eat and sleep, it’s no wonder you’re feeling burnt out. Help keep yourself feeling refreshed and inspired by learning new things.
A. Take some simple activities
B. Disconnect electronic devices
C. You can also combine the two
D. Pick up a hobby or two that make you feel happy and satisfied
E. It’s convenient for you to write journals if a computer is available
F. It’s ideal to write in a physical journal instead of using your computer
G. Adopting healthy habits and self-care are effective ways to stay refreshed
第三部分 语言运用(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When Ashley Blas was 7, her mother died. Her mother was ___21___ in her hometown of Chicago. Thirty years later, Blas decided to ___22___ her mother’s grave (坟墓) for the first time since the funeral (葬礼).
She used a car service to drive her to the graveyard. A suited ___23___ picked her up. Upon ___24___, Blas got out of the car and began to ___25___ for her mother’s gravestone, forgetting the ___26___ she had brought to place on the grave. The driver stood near the car, giving her space. With great efforts, she ___27___ spotted her mother’s resting place, tears flooding her eyes.
Seeing this, the driver called out, “Did you find it?” Blas ___28___ in confirmation. The driver ran over with a box of tissues. He noticed that grass was ___29___ part of the marker. Then, in his full suit, he started removing the grass and dirt, trying to reveal the ____30____ stone. The ____31____ of “Beloved mother of Ashley” drove Blas into more tears. The driver offered more ____32____, stepped back to give her ____33____, and later returned with her forgotten roses.
“I will never forget that moment of humanity,” Blas said. “It didn’t ____34____ that he was in his full suit. He just helped me through that moment, so I will never forget his ____35____.”
21. A. buried B. born C. educated D. celebrated
22. A. build B. visit C. repair D. decorate
23. A. driver B. friend C. passenger D. neighbor
24. A. leaving B. returning C. moving D. arriving
25. A. search B. ask C. wait D. prepare
26. A. paper B. flowers C. grass D. stones
27. A. secretly B. quickly C. accidentally D. finally
28. A. pretended B. repeated C. cried D. refused
29. A. greeting B. covering C. changing D. dragging
30. A. unique B. familiar C. entire D. strange
31. A. birth B. amusement C. inspiration D. sight
32. A. backpack B. luggage C. tissues D. candies
33. A. comfort B. explanation C. insight D. privacy
34. A. matter B. work C. happen D. change
35. A. hesitation B. strictness C. kindness D. advice
第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式
The success of “Ne Zha 2” shows the power of Chinese culture. It ____36____ (earn) over 10 billion yuan worldwide since it came out. Also, it’s the first non-Hollywood film to reach $1 billion in a single market. Experts predict its final earnings may go over 15 billion yuan, making it one of the five top-grossing ____37____ (film) globally.
The film retells a classic Chinese folktale about Nezha, ____38____ is a rebellious (叛逆的) boy-god. Director Yang Yu, known as Jiaozi, combines traditional elements with modern themes like courage and self-discovery. The story’s universal values help it ____39____ (successful) connect with audiences around the world.
Technically, the film marks ____40____ huge step forward for China’s animation industry. It includes nearly 2,000 special effects ____41____ (make) by 138 studios. Scenes like the Tianyuan Ding battle are both beautiful and meaningful.
The film’s popularity reflects the ____42____ (grow) interest in Chinese cultural stories. Similar trends appear in games like “Black Myth: Wukong”, which is based on ancient legends. This cultural revival (复兴) makes people feel proud of ____43____ (they) country and gives them creativity.
The film has the potential to serve as a cultural bridge, sharing the richness of Chinese mythology and storytelling ____44____ global audiences. As Jiaozi said, “Good stories can move people everywhere.” The film proves that tradition and innovation can work together ____45____ (create) something amazing.
第四部分写作(共两节, 满分 40分)
第一节(满分 15分)
46. 假定你是李华, 上周末你们班组织了打扫校园的义务劳动。请给你的英国朋友Chris写一封邮件分享此次活动, 内容包括:
1. 活动内容;
2. 你的收获。
注意:
1. 写作词数应为 80个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Chris,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料, 根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段, 使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Liang Li had just transferred (转学) to a new high school in a big city. Everything felt unfamiliar- the school layout, the teachers, the students with their established groups, and even the canteen food. The first few days were hard. He spent most breaks alone in the classroom, pretending to read, but he was absent-mind. The students were polite, but he felt invisible, as if a wall separated him from them.
One afternoon, while walking through the school grounds, he saw a group of classmates trying to organize a soccer game. One boy, Zhang Tao, was struggling to carry a ball and cones, trying to set up the field by himself. Without thinking, Liang Li walked over and offered to help. Zhang Tao smiled, relieved. “Thanks! You can join us if you want. We need one more player.”
Liang Li hesitated. He had never been good at soccer and wasn't sure he would fit in with these athletic students. “I’m not good at soccer,” he said awkwardly. But Zhang Tao shrugged. “It’s not about being good. We just want everyone to have fun.”
Encouraged, Liang Li decided to join. Though he felt clumsy (笨拙的) at first, the others were friendly and patient. They joked, helped him understand the rules, and cheered when he made progress. Liang Li began to enjoy the game and, for the first time in days, felt a sense of belonging. After the game, Zhang Tao clapped him on the back and said, “You did great for your first time! ”
The next few days, Liang Li looked forward to the soccer games. He became a regular member of the group, his skills improving. But more importantly, he started forming connections with his classmates, laughing and joking with them.
Two months later, there came a match between Liang Li’s class and another class team.
注意:
1. 续写词数应为 150 个左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
As the match got started, Liang Li ran towards the ball with determination.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Later that afternoon, Liang Li sat with his teammates under a tree, laughing and sharing snacks.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024-2025学年高一年级下学期期末考试
英语试题
本试卷共150分 考试时间为120分钟
答卷前, 考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上, 并在规定位置粘贴考试用条形码。答卷时, 须将答案答在答题卡上, 在本试题卷、草稿纸上答题无效。考试结束后, 本试题卷由学生自己保留, 只将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节, 满分30分)
做题时, 先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后, 你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是 C。
1. What program comes first on TV?
A. A film. B. A puzzle show C. A football match.
2. How many students are there in the woman's class?
A. 20. B. 40. C. 60.
3. What does the girl want to do?
A. Get a dog. B. Walk her dog. C. Meet her mother.
4. Who organized the party?
A. Eric. B. Janet. C. Sandy.
5. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In the cafe. B. At home. C. In the cinema.
第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟; 听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料, 回答第6、7题。
6. Why does the man make the call?
A. To buy a concert ticket.
B. To reserve a theater seat.
C. To book a restaurant table.
7. What kind of seats does the man want?
A. Ones near the window.
B. Ones near the dance floor.
C. Ones in the middle of the hall.
听第 7 段材料, 回答第8、9题。
8. What sport does Jenny play?
A. Football. B. Volleyball. C. Basketball.
9. Which aspect is the key in team sports according to Jenny?
A. Practice. B. Physical strength. C. Communication.
听第8段材料, 回答第10至12题。
10. Why does the girl talk to the man?
A. To get some advice.
B. To ask for permission.
C. To make an invitation.
11. What will the man do during the party?
A Tell a folk story.
B. Sing an English song.
C. Perform an English play.
12. What will the headmaster do before the party?
A. Deliver a speech.
B. Share his resolutions.
C. Decorate the classroom.
听第9段材料, 回答第13至16题。
13. What will Natalie do on Sunday?
A. Do some shopping.
B. Visit her grandparents.
C. Do housework for mom.
14. How much will the speakers pay for their zoo tickets on Thursday?
A. £24. B. £30. C. £36.
15. What did Mark's art teacher ask him to do?
A. Buy a camera.
B. Take animal photos.
C. Attend a birthday party.
16. How will the speakers go to the zoo?
A. By car. B. By taxi. C. By bus.
听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。
17. What are the members asked to do?
A. Collect money for the children.
B. Help prepare for the yearly event.
C. Invite teachers to attend the yearly event.
18. Which is the thing that should be done for the party?
A. Cooking the dinner.
B. Making everyone sign up.
C. Cleaning up before the party.
19. Where does the money for the Christmas festival come from?
A. Every member.
B. The government.
C. Normal membership fees.
20. Who will be given the presents?
A. People who attend the party.
B. Children who have no parents.
C. The members of the organization.
第二部分阅读(共两节, 满分 50分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中, 选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. C 2. C 3. D
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. D 6. A 7. C
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. B 10. A 11. C
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. B 14. D 15. C
第二节(共5小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分)
根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. G 17. F 18. B 19. C 20. D
第三部分 语言运用(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. C 31. D 32. C 33. D 34. A 35. C
第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. has earned
37. films 38. who
39. successfully
40. a 41. made
42. growing
43. their 44. with
45. to create
第四部分写作(共两节, 满分 40分)
第一节(满分 15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Chris,
How’s it going? I’m writing to tell you something about the school-cleaning voluntary activity organized by our class last weekend.
We gathered at 9:00 a.m. and the monitor divided us into 4 groups, each group cleaning different areas. My group was in charge of the library. Some mopped the floor, some wiped the tables, and the rest watered the flowers.
Although it was tiring, it felt great to help make our school more beautiful. It taught me the importance of teamwork and responsibility, which made me feel a strong sense of achievement. What a truly unforgettable experience it was!
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】
As the match got started, Liang Li ran towards the ball with determination. His heart was pounding in his chest, but he pushed aside his nervousness and focused on the game. He managed to pass the ball to a teammate, who quickly scored a goal. The team cheered, and Liang Li couldn’t help but smile. He wasn’t the best player, but he felt like an important part of the team. The match was intense, but they played with teamwork and spirit. At the end of the game, they won by a narrow margin.
Later that afternoon, Liang Li sat with his teammates under a tree, laughing and sharing snacks. Zhang Tao handed him a bottle of water and gave him a pat on the back. “You did great today!” he said. Liang Li smiled, feeling a sense of belonging that he had never felt before. Thanks to his new friends and their encouragement, he was no longer the lonely new student. The experience had not only brought him closer to his teammates but had also given him the confidence to embrace new challenges.
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