开学收心卷 02-【暑假自学课】2025年新九年级英语暑假提升精品讲义（鲁教版五四制）

2025年新九年级暑假提升自测试卷二（Unit1-5） (满分150分，时间120分钟） 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. Let me help you! B. Have a good day!  C. Nice to meet you! 2. A. She’s listening to music.  B. He likes eating vegetables. C. I’m good at dancing.  3. A. Do you like volleyball? B. Did they enjoy themselves? C. Can he play the violin? 4. A. Which one do you prefer? B. Where would he like to visit? C. When is your art class? 5. A. They don’t like junk food. B. His sister isn’t tall or short. C. We can’t arrive late for class.  第二节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. What did Eric do on the weekend? A. He went camping. B. He visited his grandparents. C. He worked as a guide. 7.What’s Bob’s favorite subject? A. Science. B. Geography. C. History. 8. How long did Jack spend in America? A. Three days. B. Seven days. C. Ten days. 9. Who are the two speakers? A. Strangers. B. Doctor and patient. C. Customer and waitress. 10. Where is Peter? A. In a shop. B. At a restaurant. C. At home. 第三节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. What is Sarah busy preparing for?  A. A math test. B. A school trip. C. An English speech contest. 12. What does Tom advise Sarah to do? A. Watch videos. B. Read more books. C. Ask the teacher for help. 13. How can Sarah get to the library? A. By subway. B. By bus. C. By bike. 14. Where is the library? A. Next to the bus stop. B. Between the bank and the hotel. C. Across from the park. 15. Why can’t Tom come to the party? A. Because he has a test.  B. Because he has a football match. C. Because he has an art lesson. 第四节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16. How old was Mary when she first went to the cinema? A. 5. B. 6. C. 7. 17. What did Jenny think of the cartoon movie Bambi? A. She thought it was her daughter’s favorite. B. She thought it was very popular at that time. C. She thought it was good for her daughter. 18. Why did Mary want to leave in the middle of Bambi? A. Because the movie made her feel sad. B. Because she wanted to eat something. C. Because she thought Bambi wasn’t fascinating. 19. How did Jenny feel while watching a cartoon with Nick? A. Bored. B. Surprised. C. Excited. 20. What does Jenny want to tell us? A. Young kids should go to the movie theater with their parents. B. Young kids can learn a lot by watching cartoons. C. Parents should choose movies carefully for their kids 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A ◎◎◎ Blog Diana Garcia @dgarcia It’s a mini-project for my course at college. Thanks to all my friends (174 in total) who answered my questions about selfies (自拍). Here’s the result. Selfies in Numbers Who’s Taking Selfies? Top Situations for Selfies 30% at a party / on a night out 34% on vacation 20% at school 16% in front of the mirror 30% with a friend /a group of friends 52% alone Changing Selfies Top Reasons for Selfies I have used an app（应用程序）to... ...change my hair 37% ...add glasses or a silly mustache 32% ...add a filter（滤镜）25% ... change my eye color 6% 1 to remember a happy moment 2 because you feel good 3 because you look good 4 to share information about your life FUN FACT!! People take TWO selfies a day on average. 21. What is Diana? A. A college student. B. An actress. C. A news reporter. D. A director. 22. How many people answered Diana’s questions? A. 36. B. 52. C. 64. D. 174. 23. Who’s taking the most selfies? A. 18-year-olds. B. 19-year-olds. C. 20-year-olds. D. 21-year-olds. 24. Which app is the least popular for changing selfies? A. An app for adding a filter. B. An app for adding glasses. C. An app for changing eye color. D. An app for changing hair. 25. What are included in the result? ① problems of selfies ② why people take selfies ③ famous people’s selfies ④ where people take selfies ⑤ how often people take selfies A. ①③⑤ B. ②③④ C. ①②④ D. ②④⑤ B Peng Huidi is a swimmer who is disabled in hearing. She took part in the Chengdu FISU World University Games in 2023. It has been a life-changing experience and a meaningful journey for the young student who has been going for her sporting dreams. Peng was born in Shandong Province in 2004. Her hearing was damaged (损伤) because she had a high fever at the age of 2. It changed her life. For her disability, she was so shy that she was even afraid to speak to others. Hoping to make her brave and confident (自信的). Peng’s father took his daughter to the nearest swimming pool when she was six. It was there that Peng found her love for swimming and her talent was dug out by a coach. Supported by her parents, Peng tried her best to take care of both swimming training and schoolwork, which was really a great challenge for her. She told a reporter that she once thought about stopping swimming. “But I just told myself, my future will be totally different from what I have dreamed of if I give up,” said Peng. When things got too much to bear, her coach and parents just told her to have a break. So she took a vacation to have a relax. After that, she was even more dedicated to daily practice. The Chengdu games have been a turning point for Peng. Apart from pushing her limits (极限) in competition, Peng also treated the Chengdu games as a chance to meet new friends. She has become much more outgoing and confident through swimming. 26. When was Peng’s hearing damaged? A. In 2004. B. In 2006. C. At the age of 6. D. 2 years ago. 27. Why did Peng’s father take her to learn swimming at first? A. Because he found Peng’s love for swimming. B. Because his home was near the swimming pool. C. Because he wanted Peng to be a swimming star. D. Because he hoped to make Peng brave and confident. 28. What does the underlined word “dedicated” in Paragraph 4 probably mean? A. 专注的 B. 特别的 C. 美好的 D. 紧张的 29. Which of the following words could best describe Peng? A. Lovely and smart. B. Lonely and serious. C. Funny and outgoing. D. Talented and hard-working. 30. What can we learn from Peng’s story? A. The younger, the better future. B. Age does not matter at all. C. Confidence comes from strength. D. Health is always important. C China has made a system of laws to protect the environment. It has helped build beautiful China, according to a work report. The system includes the Environmental Protection Law and a lot of laws in some other areas, such as the Yangtze River Protection Law, the Yellow River Protection Law, the Black Soil (土壤) Protection Law, the law on the Qinghai-Tibet Plateau and so on. These environmental protection laws assist with beautiful China. China protects and improves the environment in which people live. It has made great efforts to prevent and control pollution. Over the past five years, the air quality (质量) has stayed at the good level on 86.5 percent of the days in cities. The country has also made progress in preventing and controlling soil pollution and continued to protect forests, rivers, lakes and so on. What’s more, China has managed to make laws to protect wild animals and plants, provide homes for many animals and teach the public to help them. Animals are friends of humans, and protecting animals is also to protect the home of humans. A good environment is important to humans. Without the fresh air or clean water, we can’t live on the earth. The Chinese government has taken action to protect both. the environment and ourselves. 31. There are at least ________ laws in Paragraph 2. A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 32. The underlined word “assist” in Paragraph 2 is similar to ________. A. part B. agree C. help D. deal 33. According to Paragraph 3, we have done something to protect the animals, including ________. ①providing homes for many animals ②giving animals more food ③teaching the public to help animals ④making laws to protect wild animals and plants A. ①②③ B. ①③④ C. ①②④ D. ②③④ 34. Over the past five years, the air quality in cities has generally stayed at the ________ level. A. bad B. terrible C. poor D. good 35. What’s the main idea of the passage? A. A system of laws has been made to protect soil around China. B. The country has made progress in preventing river pollution. C. China protects and improves the environment in which people live. D. China has taken action to protect the environment and humans. D Imagine being able to talk to your future self and get to know what your life might be like years from now. A new online chat platform (平台) called Future You has made this possible. Future You was created by scientists from different research institutes (机构). Powered by AI, the program begins by asking users questions about their personalities, present-day lives and future plans. It then uses this information to create a simulation (模拟) of the user at the age of 60. This allows users to ask questions and get advice for the future from “themselves”. The platform can also produce a photo for each user, showing how they might look at age 60. The simulation is very realistic (逼真的). Future You is much more clearly understood than what a person could only imagine about their future selves. According to the platform’s website, Future You is meant to help users develop more long-term thinking. During the process, a person can feel connected to his or her future self. The stronger the connection, the more likely a person is to make good decisions. In this case, they will benefit their long-term well-being (幸福), in areas such as money, education, or health. The scientists tested Future You on 344 volunteers. Compared to those who chatted with a general AI or only filled out surveys, those interacting (交流) with Future You for 10 to 30 minutes felt less worried and more positive about the uncertain nature of the future. ★ . People probably have offered some untrue information to the simulation as a result of interacting with their future self. In addition, the AI program can’t make various predictions and only offer a look into one possible future. So we shouldn’t take Future You's words as completely true. 36. On Future You, you can ______. A. B. C. D. 37. What is needed to create a realistic simulation? A. Some personal information of the user. B. Some questions of the user. C. Some advice of the user. D. Some predictions of the user. 38. By interacting with Future You, users can benefit much except ______. A. developing more long-term thinking B. feeling more positive about their future C. making connection to their future D. earning a lot of money 39. Which of the following can be put in ★ ? A. Interacting with Future You is popular B. Talking with future self is cool C. Future You also has its limits D. The platform will be put into use 40. What might be the best title for the passage? A. Heading For the Future B. Talking With an Older You C. Being the Best of Yourself D. Learning From the Past 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 We all love spending time by the sea. Some lucky ones might live on the coast and enjoy the benefits (益处) all around the year. ____41____ Most of us would say we feel healthier by the ocean. In the past, doctors would actually suggest spending time by the sea to their patients. And research has shown that people who live on the coast are more likely to believe their health is good compared to those living in a city. So how do we benefit, exactly? Well, to start with, it’s great for our mental (心理) health. Scientists have discovered that we have something called a blue mind. They have shown that watching, listening to the waves (海浪) or being in the ocean helps our brains slow down. ____42____ This is why people who have trouble sleeping are often told to listen to recordings of the sound of waves hitting the beach to help them relax at bedtime. ____43____ We go out a lot more when we’re on holiday by the sea. We often become more active on holidays and people who live on the coast are usually more active too. ____44____ Walking on sand requires more effort than on the pavement. And the sea air is good for people with breathing problems too. There is less pollution in the air near the ocean and in autumn and winter the air is fresher. This is healthier than the dry air in homes with central heating. It has even been found that the chemicals in sea water may help us have healthy skin. ____45____ We look forward so much to having our next one! A. Breathing the air in the city makes you more active. B. Others usually have to wait for the next vacation. C. Being by the sea is also good for our physical health. D. Kids especially like to have fun by the sea in summer. E. Naturally we often feel so great at the end of a seaside holiday. F. The sound of them can help us relax and feel free from stress. G. And if you take your walks on the beach, this is a lot better. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 Gina: Hi, Mark. Do you have any free time this Sunday? Mark:   46 . What are you going to do? Gina: I’m going to watch a folk art exhibition. My paper-cutting works will be shown there. Mark: Wow, that’s amazing!   47 Gina: They are about flowers, fishes and butterflies. They are a symbol of happiness and good luck in China. Mark:   48 . Where do you learn paper-cutting? Gina: In our school art club. Mark: Well. I also like Chinese culture very much and I wanted to learn it.   49 Gina: Sure! We welcome new members. Would you like to watch the show with me? Mark: Yes, I’d love to. Thanks for inviting me.   50 Gina: Let’s meet at the school gate at 8:30 in the morning. Mark: OK. See you then. 46. A. That sounds great. B. Yes, nothing much. C. I agree with you. D. Yes, that’s a good idea. 47. A. What does it mean? B. What are they doing? C. Why do you like it? D. What are they about? 48. A. I think so. B. Nothing serious. C. It’s wonderful! D. With pleasure! 49. A. Can I join your club? B. What club shall I join? C. What should I do? D. How can I do it well? 50. A. How far is it? B. When are you free? C. Where are you going? D. When and where shall we meet? 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 At my heaviest I weighed 370 pounds. I had a very poor relationship with food: I used it to kill bad feelings,to make 51 feel better, and to celebrate. Worried about my health, I tried many different kinds of ways butthey didn’t work. I came to believe that I could do 52 about my weight. When I was 57, my weight problem began to affect me 53 . I had spent more time in the hospital and 54 catch up with my 7-year-old grandson when we took a walk. And I had to walk downstairs very slowly and carefully — I couldn’t see the steps when I 55 ! I didn’t want to live the rest of my life like that! That year, I joined a club where we were asked to create a project that would touch the world. A member shared her 56 she had not only lost 125 pounds, but also raised 25,000 for homeless children. I was 57 by her story, so I created the Better Me, Better World 58 . My goal was to lose 150pounds in one year and raise $ 50,000 for a charity which was 59 thirty years ago to end hunger. 60 I began to carry on my project, I was filled with the fear that I would face the same difficulties which made me give up again. To my joy, after two weeks’ hard work, there were some encouraging 61 showing that I was going on the right way: I could sleep much better at night and I could walk farther 62 the path in the park! 63 I sent letters to everyone I knew, telling them about my project and how perfectly it worked! Donations began to rush in from many people. Of course, I also 64 the useful suggestions from my doctor and my fitness coach strictly, and I began to eat small and healthy meals. My money-raising focus also gave me new power to exercise regularly. A year later, I 65 my goal: I lost 150 pounds and raised $ 50,000! I feel that I’ve been given a second life to do something that is meaningful and helpful! 51. A. yourself B. myself C. herself D. ourselves 52. A. everything B. something C. nothing D. anything 53. A. seriously B. secretly C. carefully D. suddenly 54. A. mustn’t B. shouldn’t C. couldn’t D. needn’t 55. A. looked up B. looked down C. looked across D. looked over 56. A. invention B. success C. housework D. accident 57. A. amazed B. worried C. scared D. hurt 58. A. homework B. business C. project D. subject 59. A. discovered B. found C. set D. invented 60. A. When B. If C. Because D. Since 61. A. meanings B. objects C. thoughts D. signs 62. A. along B. across C. past D. under 63. A. Angrily B. Finally C. Luckily D. Excitedly 64. A. followed B. appeared C. suggested D. remembered 65. A. lost B. missed C. reached D. beat 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 What is the 66.__________(good) virtue (美德)? What can we learn from water? Laozi, a famous Chinese thinker who lived around 2,500 years ago, might have 67.________ answer. Laozi tells us that the top character is just like water. All life in the world cannot live without water, but water never asks for anything in return. It benefits all, competing with none. It 68._________(simple) keeps giving quietly. Also, water often stays where people don’t like. This kind of low profile (低姿态) makes water the closest 69.________ the law of the universe (万物之规). In dealing with people, we can act as water. Do our best to help71._________(other) without trying to get anything back. At the same time, stay humble (谦虚的). Don’t always talk about the help you gave to other people. Even 71.________ you are in a difficult situation, you need to stay calm. After all, water will not choose where 72.__________(be) , and it just goes to where it is needed. The Chinese nation has always held dear Laozi’s ideas about water. In 2014, President Xi Jinping73.______ (mention) it at the welcome dinner of the 22nd APEC Economic Leaders’ Meeting in Beijing. He said APEC members 74.__________(bring) together by the water of the Pacific Ocean and have a shared responsibility to make the Pacific an ocean of peace, friendship and cooperation (合作). This is the wisdom water brings 75._______(we) . 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. A:________________________________________________________? B: It was invented in 1876. 77. A: Whose notebook is this? B:____________________________ because his name is on it. 78. A:What is the machine used for ? B:________________________________________. 79. A:What are you supposed to do when you meet people in China? B:__________________________________________________. 80. A:_____________________________________________________? B:For three years. 第二节 作文（满分25分） 假定你是李华。校英文报“STORY”专栏正在征集稿件，请你根据下面表格中的信息，以第一人称，用英语写一个故事投稿。 When Last Friday morning Where School sports ground Who I, my classmate What Take part in, help, feel proud 注意： 1.短文须包含表格中的关键词，请增加细节以使故事完整； 2.文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称； 3.词数80~100。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 18 / 18 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$听力测试。第一节，听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子，每个句子读一遍。One, let me help you. Too, i'm good at dancing. Three, do you like volleyball? For where would he like to visit? Five. we can't arrive late for class. 第二节在录音中你将听到5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案，每段对话读两遍。Six. hi eric. How was your weekend? Did you go camping? No, I visited my grandparents in the countryside. Six. hi eric. How was your weekend? Did you go camping? No, I visited my grandparents in the countryside. Seven. bob, what subject do you like? Oh, I like science and geography, but history is full of call stories. I like history best. Seven. bob, what subject do you like? Oh, I like science and geography, but history is full of call stories. I like history best. IT, where did . you go on your vacation, jack? I spent three days in new york city and one week in washington, D. C. IT, where did . you go on your vacation, jack? I spent three days in new york city and one week in washington, D. C. Nine. how can I help you, sir? Well, i'm doing town. Could you tell me where the bank is? sure. It's on center street. Thank you. Nine. how can I help you, sir? Well, i'm doing town. Could you tell me where the bank is? sure. It's on center street. Thank you. Ten. what do you want for breakfast, Peter? Just give me some bread. Ali did on the way. Okay, wash your face and brush teeth. alright. Ten. what do you want for breakfast, Peter? Just give me some bread. Ali did on the way. Okay, wash your face and brush teeth. alright. 第三节在录音中你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前你将有40秒钟的读题时间，听完后你将有40秒钟的答题时间，对话读两遍。Hi Sarah. Long time. no. see. How's IT going? Hi tom. Everything is good, but i'm a little busy. I am preparing for an english speech competition. Wow, sounds great. Have you prepared? Welfor IT, not yet. Could you give me some advice? sure. I think you can watch videos on how to be a good speaker and learn some skills. Okay, I will have a try. By the way, I need to go to the library to borrow some english books about speeches, but i'm not sure how to get there. You can take the number five bus and get off at the third stop. The library is right next to the bus stop. thanks. Oh, I almost forgot to tell you the competition is at three o'clock on wednesday afternoon. Can you come? I'd love to, but i'm not available. I have an art lesson, then. What a pity. Good luck to you. I believe you can do well. Thank you. Hi Sarah. Long time. no. see. How's IT going? Hi tom. Everything is good, but i'm a little busy. I am preparing for an english speech competition. Wow, sounds great. Have you prepared? Welfor IT, not yet. Could you give me some advice? sure. I think you can watch videos on how to be a good speaker and learn some skills. Okay, I will have a try. By the way, I need to go to the library to borrow some english books about speeches, but i'm not sure how to get there. You can take the number five bus and get off at the third stop. The library is right next to the bus stop. thanks. Oh, I almost forgot. D, to tell you, the competition is at three o'clock on wednesday afternoon. Can you come? I'd love to, but i'm not available. I have an art lesson, then. What a pity. Good luck to you. I believe you can do well. Thank you. 第四节在录音中你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前你将有40秒钟的读题时间，听完后你将有40秒钟的答题时间，短文听两遍。I'm Jenny, i'm a movie lover, and I usually take my kids to the cinnamon too. The first time I took my daughter married to the movie theater, SHE was only six, and the movie was bombing. I chose IT because I thought cartoon movies would be good for kids. Everything was going. Just find IT first. However, when a man killed bambi's mother, my daughter became very sad and as to go home, so we left in the middle of the movie. Later, I chose movies more carefully, and my daughter watched many great ones. I wear weather. Cartoons are really suitable for kids. Once I SAT on the south to watch a cartoon with my eight year old sun nick, I was surprised when I saw that a cartoon character was bleeding in front of us. The cartoon was like an action movie for adults. The next time you take a kid to the movie theater, be careful, maybe a cartoon isn't the best choice. You should take the time to watch IT first, or the kid may get messages he or SHE isn't ready to receive yet. I'm Jenny, i'm a movie lover, and I usually take my kids to the cinema too. The first time I took my daughter mary to the movie theater, SHE was only six, and the movie was bambi. I chose IT because I thought cartoon movies would be good for kids. Everything was going. Just find IT first. However, when a man killed bambi's mother, my daughter became very sad and ask to go home, so we left in the middle of the movie. Later, I chose movies more carefully, and my daughter watched many great ones. I worry whether cartoons are really suitable for kids. Once I SAT on the sofa to watch a cartoon with my eight year old sun nk, I was surprised when I saw that a cartoon character was bleeding in front of us. The cartoon was like an action movie for adults. The next time you take a kid to the movie theater, be careful, maybe a cartoon isn't the best choice. You should take the time to watch IT first, or the kids may get messages. He or SHE isn't ready to receive IT. 听力测试到此结束。 2025年新九年级暑假提升自测试卷二（Unit1-5） (满分150分，时间120分钟） 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. Let me help you! B. Have a good day!  C. Nice to meet you! 2. A. She’s listening to music.  B. He likes eating vegetables. C. I’m good at dancing.  3. A. Do you like volleyball? B. Did they enjoy themselves? C. Can he play the violin? 4. A. Which one do you prefer? B. Where would he like to visit? C. When is your art class? 5. A. They don’t like junk food. B. His sister isn’t tall or short. C. We can’t arrive late for class.  第二节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. What did Eric do on the weekend? A. He went camping. B. He visited his grandparents. C. He worked as a guide. 7.What’s Bob’s favorite subject? A. Science. B. Geography. C. History. 8. How long did Jack spend in America? A. Three days. B. Seven days. C. Ten days. 9. Who are the two speakers? A. Strangers. B. Doctor and patient. C. Customer and waitress. 10. Where is Peter? A. In a shop. B. At a restaurant. C. At home. 第三节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. What is Sarah busy preparing for?  A. A math test. B. A school trip. C. An English speech contest. 12. What does Tom advise Sarah to do? A. Watch videos. B. Read more books. C. Ask the teacher for help. 13. How can Sarah get to the library? A. By subway. B. By bus. C. By bike. 14. Where is the library? A. Next to the bus stop. B. Between the bank and the hotel. C. Across from the park. 15. Why can’t Tom come to the party? A. Because he has a test.  B. Because he has a football match. C. Because he has an art lesson. 第四节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16. How old was Mary when she first went to the cinema? A. 5. B. 6. C. 7. 17. What did Jenny think of the cartoon movie Bambi? A. She thought it was her daughter’s favorite. B. She thought it was very popular at that time. C. She thought it was good for her daughter. 18. Why did Mary want to leave in the middle of Bambi? A. Because the movie made her feel sad. B. Because she wanted to eat something. C. Because she thought Bambi wasn’t fascinating. 19. How did Jenny feel while watching a cartoon with Nick? A. Bored. B. Surprised. C. Excited. 20. What does Jenny want to tell us? A. Young kids should go to the movie theater with their parents. B. Young kids can learn a lot by watching cartoons. C. Parents should choose movies carefully for their kids 听力答案 第一节 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C 第二节 6. B 7.C 8.C 9.A 10.C 第三节 11.C 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.C 第四节 16.B 17. C 18.A 19. B 20.C 听力原文 第一节 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子读一遍。 1. Let me help you! 2. I’m good at dancing.  3. Do you like volleyball? 4. Where would he like to visit? 5. We can’t arrive late for class.  第二节 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。 6.W: Hi, Eric. How was your weekend? Did you go camping? M: No! I visited my grandparents in the countryside. 7. W: Bob, what subject do you like? M: Oh, I like science and geography. But history is full of cool stories, I like history best. 8. W: Where did you go on your vacation, Jack? M: I spent three days in New York City and one week in Washington, D.C. 9. W: How can I help you, sir? M: Well, I’m new in town. Could you tell me where the bank is? W: Sure. It’s on Center Street. M: Thank you. 10. W: What do you want for breakfast, Peter? M: Just give me some bread, I’ll eat it on the way. W: OK, wash your face and brush your teeth. M: All right. 第三节 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话读两遍。 M: Hi, Sarah! Long time no see! How’s it going? W: Hi, Tom! Everything is good, but I’m a little busy. I am preparing for an English speech competition. M: Wow, sounds great. Have you prepared well for it? W: Not yet. Could you give me some advice? M: Sure, I think you can watch videos on how to be a good speaker and learn some skills. W: OK. I will have a try. By the way, I need to go to the library to borrow some English books about speeches. But I’m not sure how to get there. M: You can take the No. 5 bus and get off at the third stop. The library is right next to the bus stop. W: Thanks. Oh, I almost forgot to tell you. The competition is at 3:00 on Wednesday afternoon. Can you come? M: I’d love to, but I’m not available. I have an art lesson then. W:What a pity! M:Good luck to you. I believe you can do well. W: Thank you. 第四节 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文读两遍。 I’m Jenny. I’m a movie lover and I usually take my kids to the cinema, too. The first time I took my daughter Mary to the movie theater, she was only six and the movie was Bambi. I chose it because I thought cartoon movies would be good for kids. Everything was going just fine at first. However, when a man killed Bambi’s mother, my daughter became very sad and asked to go home. So we left in the middle of the movie. Later, I chose movies more carefully and my daughter watched many great ones. I worry whether cartoons are really suitable for kids. Once I sat on the sofa to watch a cartoon with my 8-year-old son, Nick. I was surprised when I saw that a cartoon character was bleeding in front of us. The cartoon was like an action movie for adults. The next time you take a kid to the movie theater, be careful. Maybe a cartoon isn’t the best choice. You should take the time to watch it first, or the kid may get messages he or she isn’t ready to receive yet. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A ◎◎◎ Blog Diana Garcia @dgarcia It’s a mini-project for my course at college. Thanks to all my friends (174 in total) who answered my questions about selfies (自拍). Here’s the result. Selfies in Numbers Who’s Taking Selfies? Top Situations for Selfies 30% at a party / on a night out 34% on vacation 20% at school 16% in front of the mirror 30% with a friend /a group of friends 52% alone Changing Selfies Top Reasons for Selfies I have used an app（应用程序）to... ...change my hair 37% ...add glasses or a silly mustache 32% ...add a filter（滤镜）25% ... change my eye color 6% 1 to remember a happy moment 2 because you feel good 3 because you look good 4 to share information about your life FUN FACT!! People take TWO selfies a day on average. 21. What is Diana? A. A college student. B. An actress. C. A news reporter. D. A director. 22. How many people answered Diana’s questions? A. 36. B. 52. C. 64. D. 174. 23. Who’s taking the most selfies? A. 18-year-olds. B. 19-year-olds. C. 20-year-olds. D. 21-year-olds. 24. Which app is the least popular for changing selfies? A. An app for adding a filter. B. An app for adding glasses. C. An app for changing eye color. D. An app for changing hair. 25. What are included in the result? ① problems of selfies ② why people take selfies ③ famous people’s selfies ④ where people take selfies ⑤ how often people take selfies A. ①③⑤ B. ②③④ C. ①②④ D. ②④⑤ 答案: 21. A 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. D 解析:【导语】本文是一篇应用文，是戴安娜关于自拍问题的调研结果。 21.推理判断题。根据“It’s a mini-project for my course at college.”可知，戴安娜是一名大学生，故选A。 22.细节理解题。根据“Thanks to all my friends (174 in total) who answered my questions about selfies (自拍).”可知，一共有174人回答了戴安娜关于自拍的问题，故选D。 23.细节理解题。根据“Age”下面的图片显示可知，19岁的人最爱自拍，故选B。 24.细节理解题。根据“I have used an app（应用程序）to...”下面的“change my eye color 6%”可知，“change my eye color”最不受欢迎，故选C。 25.细节理解题。根据“Top Reasons for Selfies”、“Top Situations for Selfies”和“People take TWO selfies a day on average.”可知，文章提到了自拍的原因、地点和频率，故选D。 B Peng Huidi is a swimmer who is disabled in hearing. She took part in the Chengdu FISU World University Games in 2023. It has been a life-changing experience and a meaningful journey for the young student who has been going for her sporting dreams. Peng was born in Shandong Province in 2004. Her hearing was damaged (损伤) because she had a high fever at the age of 2. It changed her life. For her disability, she was so shy that she was even afraid to speak to others. Hoping to make her brave and confident (自信的). Peng’s father took his daughter to the nearest swimming pool when she was six. It was there that Peng found her love for swimming and her talent was dug out by a coach. Supported by her parents, Peng tried her best to take care of both swimming training and schoolwork, which was really a great challenge for her. She told a reporter that she once thought about stopping swimming. “But I just told myself, my future will be totally different from what I have dreamed of if I give up,” said Peng. When things got too much to bear, her coach and parents just told her to have a break. So she took a vacation to have a relax. After that, she was even more dedicated to daily practice. The Chengdu games have been a turning point for Peng. Apart from pushing her limits (极限) in competition, Peng also treated the Chengdu games as a chance to meet new friends. She has become much more outgoing and confident through swimming. 26. When was Peng’s hearing damaged? A. In 2004. B. In 2006. C. At the age of 6. D. 2 years ago. 27. Why did Peng’s father take her to learn swimming at first? A. Because he found Peng’s love for swimming. B. Because his home was near the swimming pool. C. Because he wanted Peng to be a swimming star. D. Because he hoped to make Peng brave and confident. 28. What does the underlined word “dedicated” in Paragraph 4 probably mean? A. 专注的 B. 特别的 C. 美好的 D. 紧张的 29. Which of the following words could best describe Peng? A. Lovely and smart. B. Lonely and serious. C. Funny and outgoing. D. Talented and hard-working. 30. What can we learn from Peng’s story? A. The younger, the better future. B. Age does not matter at all. C. Confidence comes from strength. D. Health is always important. :答案: 26. B 27. D 28. A 29. D 30. C 解析:【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，文章主要介绍了听障泳将彭惠迪的成长与追求梦想的历程。 26.细节理解题。根据“Peng was born in Shandong Province in 2004. Her hearing was damaged (损伤) because she had a high fever at the age of 2.”可知，彭惠迪出生于2004年，2岁时，即2006年听力受损。故选B。 27.细节理解题。根据“Hoping to make her brave and confident (自信的). Peng’s father took his daughter to the nearest swimming pool when she was six.”可知，彭惠迪的父亲起初送女儿去学游泳是为了让其勇敢自信。故选D。 28.词句猜测题。根据“When things got too much to bear, her coach and parents just told her to have a break. So she took a vacation to have a relax. After that…”可知，彭惠迪在学业和游泳的双重压力下感到难以承受时会度假放松一下，但是之后会更加专注于日常练习。划线部分单词dedicated意为“专注的”。故选A。 29.推理判断题。根据“and her talent was dug out by a coach”可知，彭惠迪在游泳方面是有天赋的。根据“After that, she was even more dedicated to daily practice.”可知，彭惠迪坚持练习游泳，可知她非常勤奋努力。故选D。 30.主旨大意题。根据“She has become much more outgoing and confident through swimming.”及全文可知，彭惠迪虽然听力受损，但是她坚持游泳梦并为之付出努力。通过游泳，她变得勇敢且自信。故从她的故事中我们可以知道：自信来自于力量。故选C。 C China has made a system of laws to protect the environment. It has helped build beautiful China, according to a work report. The system includes the Environmental Protection Law and a lot of laws in some other areas, such as the Yangtze River Protection Law, the Yellow River Protection Law, the Black Soil (土壤) Protection Law, the law on the Qinghai-Tibet Plateau and so on. These environmental protection laws assist with beautiful China. China protects and improves the environment in which people live. It has made great efforts to prevent and control pollution. Over the past five years, the air quality (质量) has stayed at the good level on 86.5 percent of the days in cities. The country has also made progress in preventing and controlling soil pollution and continued to protect forests, rivers, lakes and so on. What’s more, China has managed to make laws to protect wild animals and plants, provide homes for many animals and teach the public to help them. Animals are friends of humans, and protecting animals is also to protect the home of humans. A good environment is important to humans. Without the fresh air or clean water, we can’t live on the earth. The Chinese government has taken action to protect both. the environment and ourselves. 31. There are at least ________ laws in Paragraph 2. A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 32. The underlined word “assist” in Paragraph 2 is similar to ________. A. part B. agree C. help D. deal 33. According to Paragraph 3, we have done something to protect the animals, including ________. ①providing homes for many animals ②giving animals more food ③teaching the public to help animals ④making laws to protect wild animals and plants A. ①②③ B. ①③④ C. ①②④ D. ②③④ 34. Over the past five years, the air quality in cities has generally stayed at the ________ level. A. bad B. terrible C. poor D. good 35. What’s the main idea of the passage? A. A system of laws has been made to protect soil around China. B. The country has made progress in preventing river pollution. C. China protects and improves the environment in which people live. D. China has taken action to protect the environment and humans. 答案:31. A 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. D 解析:【导语】本文主要介绍了中国已采取了很多行动保护环境和人类。 31.细节理解题。根据“The system includes the Environmental Protection Law and a lot of laws in some other areas, such as the Yangtze River Protection Law, the Yellow River Protection Law, the Black Soil (土壤) Protection Law, the law on the Qinghai-Tibet Plateau and so on”可知该体系包括《环境保护法》和其他一些领域的许多法律，如《长江保护法》、《黄河保护法》、《黑土保护法》、《青藏高原法》等。故选A。 32.词义猜测题。根据“These environmental protection laws assist with beautiful China.”可知这些环境保护法有助于建设美丽的中国，故此处划线部分和help意义相近。故选C。 33.细节理解题。根据“China has managed to make laws to protect wild animals and plants, provide homes for many animals and teach the public to help them”可知中国还制定了保护野生动植物的法律，为许多动物提供了家园，并教导公众帮助它们。故选B。 34.细节理解题。根据“Over the past five years, the air quality (质量) has stayed at the good level”可知在过去的五年里，空气质量一直保持在良好水平。故选D。 35.主旨大意题。根据“The Chinese government has taken action to protect both. the environment and ourselves.”以及本文内容可知本文主要介绍了中国已采取了很多行动保护环境和人类。故选D。 D Imagine being able to talk to your future self and get to know what your life might be like years from now. A new online chat platform (平台) called Future You has made this possible. Future You was created by scientists from different research institutes (机构). Powered by AI, the program begins by asking users questions about their personalities, present-day lives and future plans. It then uses this information to create a simulation (模拟) of the user at the age of 60. This allows users to ask questions and get advice for the future from “themselves”. The platform can also produce a photo for each user, showing how they might look at age 60. The simulation is very realistic (逼真的). Future You is much more clearly understood than what a person could only imagine about their future selves. According to the platform’s website, Future You is meant to help users develop more long-term thinking. During the process, a person can feel connected to his or her future self. The stronger the connection, the more likely a person is to make good decisions. In this case, they will benefit their long-term well-being (幸福), in areas such as money, education, or health. The scientists tested Future You on 344 volunteers. Compared to those who chatted with a general AI or only filled out surveys, those interacting (交流) with Future You for 10 to 30 minutes felt less worried and more positive about the uncertain nature of the future. ★ . People probably have offered some untrue information to the simulation as a result of interacting with their future self. In addition, the AI program can’t make various predictions and only offer a look into one possible future. So we shouldn’t take Future You's words as completely true. 36. On Future You, you can ______. A. B. C. D. 37. What is needed to create a realistic simulation? A. Some personal information of the user. B. Some questions of the user. C. Some advice of the user. D. Some predictions of the user. 38. By interacting with Future You, users can benefit much except ______. A. developing more long-term thinking B. feeling more positive about their future C. making connection to their future D. earning a lot of money 39. Which of the following can be put in ★ ? A. Interacting with Future You is popular B. Talking with future self is cool C. Future You also has its limits D. The platform will be put into use 40. What might be the best title for the passage? A. Heading For the Future B. Talking With an Older You C. Being the Best of Yourself D. Learning From the Past 答案：36.C 37.A 38.D 39.C 40.B 解析：【导语】说明文,本文介绍AI聊天平台Future You，它通过分析用户信息模拟其60岁形象并互动，助力培养长期思维、缓解未来焦虑，但存在信息偏差等局限 。 36.文章核心功能是“模拟用户60岁的自己，实现交流并获取建议”。选项C（对应“与未来自我互动”的场景）符合 “create a simulation... ask questions from ‘themselves’” 的描述。故选C. 37 第二段明确 “asks users questions about their personalities, present - day lives and future plans. It then uses this information to create a simulation”，即 用户的个人信息（性格、现状、计划） 是创建模拟的依据，对应选项A。 38. A：第四段 “help users develop more long - term thinking” 支持； B：第五段 “felt... more positive about the uncertain future” 支持；C：第四段 “feel connected to his or her future self” 支持； D：文中 “benefit... in areas such as money” 指长期幸福包含金钱层面，而非“赚很多钱”，逻辑不符，故为例外。故选D. 39.★后内容 “users might offer untrue info... AI can’t make various predictions” 均在阐述 平台的局限，选项C“Future You also has its limits” 能承上启下，概括后文核心。故选C. 40.文章围绕 “Future You平台让用户与‘老年的自己’交流” 展开，B选项 “Talking With an Older You” 精准概括主题；A（泛谈未来）、C（自我提升）、D（借鉴过去）均偏离核心。故选B. 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 We all love spending time by the sea. Some lucky ones might live on the coast and enjoy the benefits (益处) all around the year. ____41____ Most of us would say we feel healthier by the ocean. In the past, doctors would actually suggest spending time by the sea to their patients. And research has shown that people who live on the coast are more likely to believe their health is good compared to those living in a city. So how do we benefit, exactly? Well, to start with, it’s great for our mental (心理) health. Scientists have discovered that we have something called a blue mind. They have shown that watching, listening to the waves (海浪) or being in the ocean helps our brains slow down. ____42____ This is why people who have trouble sleeping are often told to listen to recordings of the sound of waves hitting the beach to help them relax at bedtime. ____43____ We go out a lot more when we’re on holiday by the sea. We often become more active on holidays and people who live on the coast are usually more active too. ____44____ Walking on sand requires more effort than on the pavement. And the sea air is good for people with breathing problems too. There is less pollution in the air near the ocean and in autumn and winter the air is fresher. This is healthier than the dry air in homes with central heating. It has even been found that the chemicals in sea water may help us have healthy skin. ____45____ We look forward so much to having our next one! A. Breathing the air in the city makes you more active. B. Others usually have to wait for the next vacation. C. Being by the sea is also good for our physical health. D. Kids especially like to have fun by the sea in summer. E. Naturally we often feel so great at the end of a seaside holiday. F. The sound of them can help us relax and feel free from stress. G. And if you take your walks on the beach, this is a lot better. 答案: 41. B 42. F 43. C 44. G 45. E 解析:【导语】本文是一篇说明文，介绍如何从海边受益。 41.根据“Some lucky ones might live on the coast and enjoy the benefits (益处) all around the year.”可知，一些幸运的人可能住在海边，一年四季都能享受到好处。结合选项，此处是some...others...结构，选项B“其他人通常要等到下一个假期。”符合语境，故选B。 42.根据“They have shown that watching, listening to the waves (海浪) or being in the ocean helps our brains slow down.”可知，他们已经证明，观察、倾听海浪或在海洋中可以帮助我们的大脑慢下来。此处提到帮助我们慢下来的大海的声音，选项F“它们的声音可以帮助我们放松，摆脱压力。”符合语境，故选F。 43.根据“We go out a lot more when we’re on holiday by the sea. We often become more active on holidays and people who live on the coast are usually more active too.”可知，当我们在海边度假时，我们外出的次数要多得多。我们经常在假期变得更活跃，住在海边的人通常也更活跃。此处提到在海边对人们的好处，选项C“在海边对我们的身体健康也有好处。”符合语境，故选C。 44.根据“Walking on sand requires more effort than on the pavement.”可知，在沙滩上行走比在人行道上行走更费力气。此处提到在沙滩上行走，选项G“如果你在沙滩上散步，这就好多了。”符合语境，故选G。 45.根据“We look forward so much to having our next one!”可知，我们非常期待我们的下一次，因为度假的经历很棒，所以期待下一次在海边度假。选项E“在海边度假结束时，我们自然会感觉很棒。”符合语境，故选E。 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 Gina: Hi, Mark. Do you have any free time this Sunday? Mark:   46 . What are you going to do? Gina: I’m going to watch a folk art exhibition. My paper-cutting works will be shown there. Mark: Wow, that’s amazing!   47 Gina: They are about flowers, fishes and butterflies. They are a symbol of happiness and good luck in China. Mark:   48 . Where do you learn paper-cutting? Gina: In our school art club. Mark: Well. I also like Chinese culture very much and I wanted to learn it.   49 Gina: Sure! We welcome new members. Would you like to watch the show with me? Mark: Yes, I’d love to. Thanks for inviting me.   50 Gina: Let’s meet at the school gate at 8:30 in the morning. Mark: OK. See you then. 46. A. That sounds great. B. Yes, nothing much. C. I agree with you. D. Yes, that’s a good idea. 47. A. What does it mean? B. What are they doing? C. Why do you like it? D. What are they about? 48. A. I think so. B. Nothing serious. C. It’s wonderful! D. With pleasure! 49. A. Can I join your club? B. What club shall I join? C. What should I do? D. How can I do it well? 50. A. How far is it? B. When are you free? C. Where are you going? D. When and where shall we meet? 答案：46. B 47. D 48. C 49. A 50. D 解析： 46. Gina询问Mark周日是否有空，Mark需直接回应有无时间。选项B“Yes, nothing much.”（有，没什么事）符合语境，直接回答有空。其他选项A、C、D均为对提议的回应，而非对“有无时间”的回答。 47. Gina提到剪纸作品会参展，Mark问“它们是关于什么的”，对应答句“They are about flowers...”。选项D“What are they about?”符合提问内容。A问含义、B问动作、C问原因，均与答句不符。 48. Gina解释剪纸图案的象征意义后，Mark应表达赞叹。选项C“It’s wonderful!”（太棒了）符合语境。A“我也这么认为”、B“没什么大不了”、D“乐意之至”均与上下文情绪不匹配。 49. Mark表示想学习中国文化，结合Gina回答“Sure! We welcome new members.”可知，Mark询问能否加入俱乐部。选项A“Can I join your club?”正确。B问加入什么俱乐部、C问该做什么、D问如何做好，均与答句无关。 50. Gina回答“早上8:30在校门口见面”，可知Mark询问见面时间和地点。选项D“When and where shall we meet?”精准对应。A问距离、B问空闲时间、C问去向，均不符合答句内容。 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 At my heaviest I weighed 370 pounds. I had a very poor relationship with food: I used it to kill bad feelings,to make 51 feel better, and to celebrate. Worried about my health, I tried many different kinds of ways butthey didn’t work. I came to believe that I could do 52 about my weight. When I was 57, my weight problem began to affect me 53 . I had spent more time in the hospital and 54 catch up with my 7-year-old grandson when we took a walk. And I had to walk downstairs very slowly and carefully — I couldn’t see the steps when I 55 ! I didn’t want to live the rest of my life like that! That year, I joined a club where we were asked to create a project that would touch the world. A member shared her 56 she had not only lost 125 pounds, but also raised 25,000 for homeless children. I was 57 by her story, so I created the Better Me, Better World 58 . My goal was to lose 150pounds in one year and raise $ 50,000 for a charity which was 59 thirty years ago to end hunger. 60 I began to carry on my project, I was filled with the fear that I would face the same difficulties which made me give up again. To my joy, after two weeks’ hard work, there were some encouraging 61 showing that I was going on the right way: I could sleep much better at night and I could walk farther 62 the path in the park! 63 I sent letters to everyone I knew, telling them about my project and how perfectly it worked! Donations began to rush in from many people. Of course, I also 64 the useful suggestions from my doctor and my fitness coach strictly, and I began to eat small and healthy meals. My money-raising focus also gave me new power to exercise regularly. A year later, I 65 my goal: I lost 150 pounds and raised $ 50,000! I feel that I’ve been given a second life to do something that is meaningful and helpful! 51. A. yourself B. myself C. herself D. ourselves 52. A. everything B. something C. nothing D. anything 53. A. seriously B. secretly C. carefully D. suddenly 54. A. mustn’t B. shouldn’t C. couldn’t D. needn’t 55. A. looked up B. looked down C. looked across D. looked over 56. A. invention B. success C. housework D. accident 57. A. amazed B. worried C. scared D. hurt 58. A. homework B. business C. project D. subject 59. A. discovered B. found C. set D. invented 60. A. When B. If C. Because D. Since 61. A. meanings B. objects C. thoughts D. signs 62. A. along B. across C. past D. under 63. A. Angrily B. Finally C. Luckily D. Excitedly 64. A. followed B. appeared C. suggested D. remembered 65. A. lost B. missed C. reached D. beat 答案：51. B 52. C 53. A 54. C 55. B 56. B 57. A 58. C 59. C 60. B 61. D 62. A 63. D 64. A 65. C 解析：【导语】本文主要讲述了作者从前为了消除坏情绪而乱吃东西，导致自己体重超标，到了50多岁，肥胖问题已经严重影响了健康，后来在别人的影响下，作者开始制定并实施减肥计划，最终减肥成功。 51．句意：我用它来消除不好的感觉，让自己感觉更好，并庆祝。 yourself你自己；myself我自己；herself她自己；ourselves我们自己。根据“I used it to kill bad feelings”可知，让我自己感觉更好，故选B。 52．句意：我开始相信我对自己的体重无能为力。 everything一切；something某事；nothing没什么事；anything任何事。根据“I tried many different kinds of ways but they didn’t work”可知，尝试了很多种方法都不奏效，所以什么都做不了了，故选C。 53．句意：57岁时，我的体重问题开始严重影响我。 seriously严重地；secretly秘密地；carefully仔细地；suddenly突然。根据“I had spent more time in the hospital”可知，超重问题变得更严重，故选A。 54．句意：我在医院里的时间更长，当我们散步时，我无法赶上我7岁的孙子。 mustn’t禁止；shouldn’t不应该；couldn’t不可以；needn’t不必。根据“When I was 57, my weight problem began to affect me …”可知，作者体重问题更严重，走路都无法赶上孙子，故选C。 55．句意：我往下看时看不到台阶。 looked up向上看；looked down向下看；looked across展望；looked over检查。根据“And I had to walk downstairs very slowly and carefully ”可知，下楼时应该是往下看，故选B。 56．句意：一位成员分享了她的成功，她不仅减掉了125磅，还为无家可归的孩子筹集了2.5万磅。 invention发明；success成功；housework家务；accident事故。根据“she had not only lost 125 pounds, but also raised 25,000 for homeless children”可知，介绍她成功的故事，故选B。 57．句意：我被她的故事惊呆了，所以我创建了“更好的我，更好的世界”计划。 amazed惊奇的；worried担心的；scared害怕的；hurt受伤的。根据“she had not only lost 125 pounds, but also raised 25,000 for homeless children”可知，对这个成功的案例感到惊讶，故选A。 58．句意：我被她的故事惊呆了，所以我创建了“更好的我，更好的世界”这个项目。 homework作业；business商业；project计划；subject科目。根据“I began to carry on my project”可知，设立了一个项目计划，故选C。 59．句意：我的目标是在一年内减掉150磅，并为30年前设立的一个旨在结束饥饿的慈善机构筹集5万美元。 discovered发现；found发现；set设立；invented发明。根据“a charity which was… thirty years ago”可知，这个慈善机构是30年前成立的，故选C。 60．句意：当我开始进行我的项目，我充满了恐惧，我将面临同样的困难，使我再次放弃 When当……时；If如果；Because因为；Since自从。根据“I began to carry on my project, I was filled with the fear that I would face the same difficulties which made me give up again”可知，当开始实施项目时充满了恐惧，故选A。 61．句意：令我高兴的是，经过两周的努力，有一些令人鼓舞的迹象表明我正在走上正确的道路。 meanings意思；objects目标；thoughts思想；signs迹象。根据“showing that I was going on the right way: I could sleep much better at night”可知，有好的迹象表明作者的决定是正确的，故选D。 62．句意：我晚上可以睡得更好，我可以沿着公园的小路走得更远。 along沿着；across穿过；past经过；under在……之下。根据“walk farther… the path in the park”可知，沿着公园的小路散步，故选A。 63．句意：我兴奋地给我认识的每个人写信，告诉他们我的项目以及它是如何完美地工作的。 Angrily生气地；Finally最终；Luckily幸运地；Excitedly兴奋地。根据“I could sleep much better at night and I could walk farther… the path in the park”可知，作者实施的这个计划让他沉重的身体可以走得更远，所以他兴奋地告诉认识的人，故选D。 64．句意：当然，我也严格遵循了医生和健身教练的建议。 followed遵守；appeared出现；suggested建议；remembered记得。根据“the useful suggestions from my doctor and my fitness coach strictly”可知，遵守了医生和教练的建议，故选A。 65．句意：一年后，我达到了我的目标。 lost失去；missed错过；reached到达；beat击败。根据“My goal was to lose 150 pounds in one year and raise ＄50,000 for a charity”以及“I lost 150 pounds and raised ＄50,000”可知，达到了目标，故选C。 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 What is the 66.__________(good) virtue (美德)? What can we learn from water? Laozi, a famous Chinese thinker who lived around 2,500 years ago, might have 67.________ answer. Laozi tells us that the top character is just like water. All life in the world cannot live without water, but water never asks for anything in return. It benefits all, competing with none. It 68._________(simple) keeps giving quietly. Also, water often stays where people don’t like. This kind of low profile (低姿态) makes water the closest 69.________ the law of the universe (万物之规). In dealing with people, we can act as water. Do our best to help71._________(other) without trying to get anything back. At the same time, stay humble (谦虚的). Don’t always talk about the help you gave to other people. Even 71.________ you are in a difficult situation, you need to stay calm. After all, water will not choose where 72.__________(be) , and it just goes to where it is needed. The Chinese nation has always held dear Laozi’s ideas about water. In 2014, President Xi Jinping73.______ (mention) it at the welcome dinner of the 22nd APEC Economic Leaders’ Meeting in Beijing. He said APEC members 74.__________(bring) together by the water of the Pacific Ocean and have a shared responsibility to make the Pacific an ocean of peace, friendship and cooperation (合作). This is the wisdom water brings 75._______(we) . 答案:66.best 67.an 68.simply 69.to 70.others 71.if/though 72.to be 73.mentioned 74. are brought 75.us 解析:【导语】老子认为最高境界的品德如水，水滋养万物却不求回报、甘居低处。我们应学习水的谦逊、无私，即使身处困境也保持冷静，这是中国智慧的体现。 66. best：定冠词the后接形容词最高级，“最好的美德”。 67. an：“一个答案”，answer以元音音素开头，用an。 68. simply：修饰动词keeps，用副词“仅仅，只是”。 69. to：固定搭配“close to”表示“接近”。 70. others：指代“其他人”，此处为复数概念。 71. if/though：“even if/though”引导让步状语从句，意为“即使”。 72. to be：“where to be”为疑问词+不定式结构，作choose的宾语。 73. mentioned：2014年为过去时间，用一般过去时。 74. are brought：被动语态，“被汇聚”，与members复数一致。 75. us：作bring的间接宾语，用宾格形式。 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. A:________________________________________________________? B: It was invented in 1876. 77. A: Whose notebook is this? B:____________________________ because his name is on it. 78. A:What is the machine used for ? B:________________________________________. 79. A:What are you supposed to do when you meet people in China? B:__________________________________________________. 80. A:_____________________________________________________? B:For three years. 参考答案 76.When was the telephone invented? 77.It must belong to Tom./ It must be Tom’s. 78.It is used for making dumplings. 79. We’re supposed to shake hands. 80.How long have you had/ owned the scarf? 第二节 作文（满分25分） 假定你是李华。校英文报“STORY”专栏正在征集稿件，请你根据下面表格中的信息，以第一人称，用英语写一个故事投稿。 When Last Friday morning Where School sports ground Who I, my classmate What Take part in, help, feel proud 注意： 1.短文须包含表格中的关键词，请增加细节以使故事完整； 2.文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称； 3.词数80~100。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________参考范文 A memorable story Life is full of unforgettable moments, whether they’re about success, challenges or kindness. One story that happened last Friday left a deep impression on me. It was a bright morning on the schools ports ground filled with cheers. During the 100-meter race, a classmate suddenly fell. As I was responsible for first aid coordination, I quickly rushed to get help and brought water. Other classmates comforted him while we waited for the staff to arrive. Fortunately, he was fine after receiving treatment. However, I missed my own event in the process. At first, I felt a little disappointed, but that emotion soon turned into pride. I realized that giving up a small personal honor to help someone in need was truly meaningful. Sometimes, the greatest victories aren’t won on the track, but felt in the heart. 18 / 18 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$