2025年中考英语临考押题卷(浙江卷)

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2025-06-18
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听力考试正式开始。I'm really excited about seeing the famous paintings by picasso. Me too. I'm glad mr. Smith chose the art museum for our school trip this year. Listen to the next question. tom. Do you know zippers were invented in eighteen ninety three? Wow, that's interesting. They've really changed how we close things up, haven't they? sure. And they became popular around nineteen seventeen. Listen to the next question. judy, i'm sorry for breaking your flower pot. It's not mine. I guess it's nan's. You know, mary and Linda don't grow flowers. Listen to the next question. So many people have got a cold from the sudden change in weather. One day hot, but the next day cold. Yeah, that seems that we are experiencing four seasons these days. Listen to the next question. Guess one, our english teacher will dance at the school party. Wow, IT must be a fantastic party. I can't wait for IT. Listen to the next question. What are you doing, Steve? I'm preparing some notes for a report about our city's population. You know, the population of our city is doubled in the past five years. Yes, five years ago, there were only three point five million people, but now the number is seven million. I'm worried that the population increase will cause some problems. i'm afraid. So luckily, the government is going to provide more public services. That's good news. What are you doing, Steve? I'm preparing some notes for a report about our city's population. You know, the population of our city is doubled in the past five years. Yes, five years ago there were only three point five million people, but now the number is seven million. I'm worried that the population increase will cause some problems. i'm afraid. So luckily, the government is going to provide more public services. That's good news. Listen to the next question. How was your weekend? Jones. great. I went to, went jo theater and watched the play romeo and Juliet. Wow, it's one of my favorite plays. really. What do you think of? IT. fantastic. Each time I watch IT. I feel relaxed, me too. During the two hours, we were moved and cheered for every actor from time to time. IT seems that you really enjoyed yourself there. Sure, though the actors were not that famous, the music left me a deep impression. I'm looking forward to watching IT again. How was your weekend? Jones. great. I went to when you theater and watched the play romeo and Juliet. Wow, it's one of my favorite place. really. What do you think of? IT. fantastic. Each time I watch IT, I feel relaxed. Me too. During the two hours, we were moved and cheered for every actor from time to time. IT seems that you really enjoyed yourself there. sure. Though the actors were not that famous, the music left me a deep impression. I'm looking forward to watching IT again. Listen to the next question, attention, boys and girls. He's some information about our school trip to this tea garden. The tea garden is not far, so we can walk there and enjoy the beautiful countryside. Along the way, we will meet at the school gate and start a date tomorrow morning. IT takes about forty minutes to arrive there. We have planned lots of fun activities. In the morning. You can learn to pick leads from the farmers that at noon, free lunch will be saved at the tea garden. After lunch, you can watch the farmers make tea and help them to pack the tea. Before going back, you will have time to buy some t at the garden store, so you'd Better bring some money with you. We'll go back at for thirty P. M. Last but not least, you'll required to write a passage about the trip and handed to me next monday. I hope you'll enjoy your trip attention, boys and girls. Here's some information about our school trip to these tea garden. The tea garden is not far, so we can walk there and enjoy the beautiful countryside. Along the way, we will meet at the school gate and start a date tomorrow morning. IT takes about forty minutes to arrive there. We have planned lots of fun activities in the morning. You can learn to pick leads from the farmers said at noon. Free lunch will be saved at the tea garden. After lunch, you can watch the farmers make tea and help them to pack the tea. Before going back, you will have time to buy some t at the garden store, so you'd Better bring some money with you. We'll go back at for thirty P. M, last but not least, you required to write a passage about the trip and handed to me next monday. I hope you'll enjoy your trip. 听力部分到此结束。 2025年中考临考押题卷(浙江专用) 英 语 (考试时间:100分钟 试卷满分:120分) 注意事项: 1.本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分。答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2.回答第Ⅰ卷时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。 3.回答第Ⅱ卷时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 4.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力部分 一、听力(本题有15小题,第一、二节每小题1分,第三节每小题2分;满分20分) 第一节 听小对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,回答问题。 1.Where will they go on the school trip? A.To an art museum. B.To a history museum. C.To a science museum. 2.When were zippers invented? A.In 1893. B.In 1917. C.In 1987 3.Whose flowerpot did the man break probably? A.Judy’s. B.Nancy’s. C.Linda’s. 4.What are they mainly talking about? A.The changeable weather. B.The health problems. C.The four seasons. 5.What’s the most probable relationship between the two speakers? A.Teacher and student. B.Brother and sister. C.Classmates. 第二节 听长对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,回答问题。 听对话,回答各小题。 6.What is the population of the city now? A.3.5 million. B.7 million. C.10.5 million. 7.How is the government going to solve the problem? A.By saving more water. B.By closing more factories. C.By offering more public services. 听对话,回答各小题。 8.What did Joan watch this weekend? A.A play. B.A parade. C.A film. 9.How long did it last? A.For about one hour. B.For about two hours. C.For about three hours. 10.Why did she like it? A.Because of the music. B.Because of the actors. C.Because of the clothes. 第三节 听长对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,回答问题。 听下面一段独白,回答五个小题。独白读两遍。 11.How will the students go to the Lee’s Tea Garden? A.By bike. B.By bus. C.On foot. 12.When will the students start the trip? A.At 7:20. B.At 8:00. C.At 8:40. 13.What will the students do in the morning? A.Learn to pick tea leaves. B.Help the farmers pack tea. C.Watch the farmers make tea. 14.Why do the students need to bring money with them? A.To buy tickets. B.To buy lunch. C.To buy tea. 15.Who may the speaker be? A.A teacher. B.A guide. C.A farmer. 第二部分 笔试部分 二、阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项。 A Dancers Wanted for Our School’s 50th Anniversary To celebrate our school’s 50th anniversary (周年纪念日), we are going to choose a number of dancers. Come and show yourself at 9:30 a.m. this Friday in the concert hall. Join Us! We are Heart Beat. We have a pianist, a guitarist and a drummer (鼓手). We need YOU to sing with us, Join us at 4:00 p.m. this Tuesday in the school music hall. Let’s play wonderful music together! Shining Club We have all kinds of clay figurine (泥塑) works for you. You can learn about Chinese traditional art from them. Create your own figurine and take it home. TIME: 9:00 a.m. next Wednesday PLACE: Room A201 Famous Environmentalist to Give a Talk Air pollution is causing more and more problems. What can we do? A well-known environmentalist will come to our school and give a talk. Come to know more and take action! TIME: 3:30 p.m.-5:30 p.m. next Thursday PLACE: Hall 2 16.If Tina wants to show her dancing ability, where should she go? A.To Hall 2. B.To the music hall. C.To Room A201. D.To the concert hall. 17.What is the talk probably about? A.How to play wonderful music together. B.How to protect the environment better. C.How to learn about Chinese traditional art. D.How to celebrate our school’s 50th Anniversary. 18.Where can we probably read the passage? A.In a city guidebook. B.On a school noticeboard. C.In a local newspaper. D.On a community website. B Ed was a professional football player, but in 2017 he had an accident in a swimming pool. After that, he couldn’t move his body from the shoulders down. Doctors told him that he’d probably never walk again, but Ed didn’t want to believe this. He had recently got engaged (订婚) to the woman who is now his wife and he said that she was the main reason he wanted to get better. He spent six days staring at his toes (脚趾) and trying to make them move—and, finally, he succeeded! This was the start of a long journey. While in hospital, Ed met Paul, a man in his late thirties. Doctors had also told Paul he would never walk again, but Ed encouraged him not to give up and six months later, Paul told Ed he was walking with a stick. Only a year after his accident, Ed climbed the highest mountain in Wales. Since then he has also climbed a 6, 500-meter mountain in Nepal and he said that after each big climb he noticed his body could do new movements. Two years later, 31-year-old Ed climbed 8, 848 meters, the height of the world’s highest mountain, by going up and down his parents’ stairs 2, 783 times. When he finished, he told a news reporter he had loved it although it sometimes was “painful” and “boring”. He also raised £46, 00 for charity. Ed hopes his story can help people. That’s why he started his own charity, M2M, which aims to support “people facing challenges in life.” 19.Who did Ed want to get better mainly for? A.His parents. B.His doctor. C.His friend. D.His wife. 20.What is Ed like according to Paragraph 3? A.Brave. B.Helpful. C.Honest. D.Hard-working. 21.What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 5 refer to? A.Raising money. B.Climbing the mountains. C.Visiting parents. D.Going up and down stairs. 22.What would be the best title for the passage? A.A Football Player B.A Challenge Lover. C.A Charity Worker D.A Mountain Climber C On April 24, 2025, China sent the Shenzhou-20 manned spaceship into space. This day marks the 10th anniversary (周年) of “China Space Day,” a time to celebrate the country’s space achievements. It all started with China’s first satellite, Dongfanghong-1, launched in 1970. The mission carried three astronauts: Chen Dong (the team leader), Chen Zhongrui, and Wang Jie. Chen Dong is an experienced astronaut who has been to space twice before (on Shenzhou-11 in 2016 and Shenzhou-14 in 2022). He will become the first astronaut from China’s second group to complete three space trips. The other two astronauts are new to space and will work as pilots and engineers. The Shenzhou-20 team will stay in China's space station for about six months. They have three main tasks: Crew(机组人员)Chang’e: They will replace the Shenzhou-19 astronauts, who have been in space for over 150 days. Those astronauts will return to Earth on April 29. Science Experiments: The crew will study how living things survive in space. For example, they will watch zebrafish (to learn about bone and heart health in low gravity), planarian worms (China’s first experiment on how animals regrow body parts in space), and streptomyces (tiny living things used in making medicine). These tests aim to solve problems for future long trips in space. Spacewalks: The astronauts will put in equipment (设备), fix the station, and test new technologies outside the spaceship. During their mission, the astronauts will welcome the Tianzhou-9 supply ship and the Shenzhou-21 manned mission. This will help keep supplies and teamwork going smoothly. They plan to come back to Earth in late October 2025 at the Dongfeng Landing Site. 23.What makes Chen Dong special in the Shenzhou-20 mission? A.He is the team leader of Shenzhou-19. B.He has the least space experience in the crew. C.He will be the first second-group astronaut to finish three space trips. D.He will lead the Shenzhou-21 manned mission. 24.How does Shenzhou-20 mission contribute to future long-term space exploration? A.By doing experiments on living things in low gravity. B.By organizing celebrations for the 10th anniversary of China Space Day. C.By returning the Shenzhou-19 astronauts to Earth. D.By only replacing the Shenzhou-19 astronauts without any other research. 25.Why do they study zebrafish in space? A.To make new medicines with tiny living things B.To learn about bone and heart health in low gravity. C.To see how animals regrow body parts. D.To study the swimming speed of zebrafish in space. 26.Which task is NOT mentioned for crew during spacewalks? A.Putting in equipment outside the spaceship. B.Fixing the space station. C.Testing new technologies. D.Doing medical operations on animals. D “Wow! Look at that! Isn’t it a real fish?” The bionic (仿生) fish, named “Jinlin”, was swimming lively like a real one. It was developed by researchers at Shanghai Ocean University. This invention isn’t just for fun—it shows how humans copy nature to solve problems. That is a science called bionics. Over millions of years, animals and plants have developed smart ways to survive. For example, kingfishers are experts at moving fast between air and water with very little noise. Through their study, scientists discovered that the birds’ long beaks (喙) enabled this ability. Then they used the knowledge to change the front of the high-speed train. This change cut down noise level, increased speed by 10% and greatly saved energy. This combination (结合) of biology and engineering is the key to success in bionics. And it has set the stage for the rise of other new technologies. Driven by robotics and AI, bionics has grown rapidly. The AI-powered bionic fish “Jinlin” can be used for environmental protection and deep sea exploration. In medicine, bionic arms can work similarly to real arms. Sensors allow the user to “feel” touch and pressure. Motors help the bionic arms make movements, like human muscles (肌肉). With AI, the bionic arms are able to “learn” new tasks and become smarter over time. These inventions are examples to show how bionics bridges biology and new technologies to solve humans’ problems. Although so much progress has been made, bionics faces challenges. Nature’s designs are hard to copy perfectly. As for bionic arms, one key area of development is Brain-Computer Interface (脑机接口). More work on direct communication between the brain and bionic arms is required to control movements as naturally as real arms. Researchers are also working on creating new materials and structures which can sense and repair themselves. While there’s still a long way to go, the future of bionics is full of possibilities. Stay hungry. Stay foolish. Maybe you’ll be the next one to change the world! 27.Why does the writer mention “Jinlin” at the beginning of the passage? A.To suggest some new ideas. B.To lead into the topic of bionics. C.To explain the habits of fish. D.To show the importance of bionics. 28.What can we learn from Paragraph 3? A.Robotics and AI have developed fast because of bionics. B.The bionic fish “Jinlin” is used for medical purposes. C.Motors allow the bionic arms to make movements. D.Sensors help bionic arms learn new tasks over time. 29.According to Paragraph 4, how would scientists make bionic arms more like real ones? ① By connecting motors with smart phones. ② By developing new materials and structures. ③ By improving Brain-Computer Interface. ④ By changing the shape and look of bionic arms. A.①② B.②③ C.①④ D.③④ 30.Which of the following shows the use of bionics? A.Drawing a picture of birds by watching real birds. B.Building a house with natural materials like wood. C.Designing a camera by copying some insects’ eyes. D.Learning to dance by studying monkeys’ movements. 三、任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分) 阅读下面材料,从A~E五个选项中(其中一项是多余选项),选择合适的选项将其序号填入第1~4题,并完成第5题。 Do you know that when you’re kind to others, it’s good for your own happiness too? Even small acts of kindness can make you more confident and help you feel more connected to the people around you. Kindness means doing something thoughtful and generous for others without thinking anything in return. It could be a small, simple act, like holding open a door, or something that takes time and effort, like making a playlist for your friend. Kindness isn’t just something you do. It also means thinking about others’ feelings, as well as your own. Scientists have discovered that when you are kind to someone, your body is filled with good feelings that make you feel calmer, healthier and happier. When you volunteer for a local farm, for example, you feel part of a community. This can make you feel better about yourself and build friendships. Kindness is also something that flows outwards, like ripples (涟漪) in a pool. Bring more kindness into your life. Start with something simple and easy, like sending a message to a friend you haven’t spoken to for a while. Try to do something you enjoy, while remembering that you are doing it for others, and see if you can turn kindness into a habit. “Being kind to ourselves can feel difficult at times,” the Mental Health Foundation says. “Try to find ways each day to be kind to yourself, like reading a book or listening to your favorite song. Use kind words when describing yourself or the things you have done that day.” A.What does kindness mean? B.How to show our kindness? C. How is kindness good for you? D.Don’t forget to show kindness to yourself too. E. If you treat others kindly, they may pass on the kindness. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.What is your way to be kind to yourself? (10 词以内) 第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分40分) 第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项。 Parenting can be difficult, but at the end of the day, the No. 1 thing any parent needs to do is to love and support. Everything else is extra (额外的). That means even if a parent doesn’t make much money, they can still be a 36 parent. Quimado doesn’t have much in life, but he has a 37 . And to him, that is everything. The rubbish collector became 38 after a GMA News article showed just how much he loves his family. In the 39 , the father of four explained how he got to work at 4 a. m. From there he collects rubbish and 40 his health by touching a lot of harmful objects. It’s far from a good job, but it’s a job. He does it because he wants a better life for his kids. He wants them to 41 their studies, and he’ll do whatever it takes to support them. “It’s 42 because I have many children. Though it’s hard, I can 43 it,” he said. Quimado’s dream came true 44 his daughter Jenny graduated from college in April 2018. It’s been a 45 journey, but the dad said he was proud of her. Jenny is also proud of how hard her father has worked to get her to this 46 . “His work is honorable, and I’m 47 of him,” Jenny often says. And that’s what pleases Quimado the most. Some kids might feel it’s a (n) 48 to have a father who is a rubbish collector. She strongly 49 hard work is hard work. She also knows what you do for a living doesn’t 50 define (定义) you. “When people ask, ‘What does your father do?’ she answers, ‘A rubbish collector!’ She is not shy,” Quimado added. 36.A.serious B.lucky C.creative D.successful 37.A.choice B.family C.future D.promise 38.A.well-known B.warm-hearted C.open-minded D.hard-working 39.A.speech B.performance C.story D.notice 40.A.tests B.worries C.protects D.risks 41.A.finish B.remember C.enjoy D.plan 42.A.useful B.similar C.challenging D.impossible 43.A.depend on B.deal with C.try on D.agree with 44.A.unless B.if C.though D.when 45.A.crowded B.long C.common D.popular 46.A.world B.competition C.position D.situation 47.A.proud B.afraid C.careful D.glad 48.A.trick B.secret C.shame D.accident 49.A.doubts B.believes C.accepts D.imagines 50.A.quickly B.gradually C.suddenly D.fully 第二节 词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分) A. 将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中,每词仅用一次。 all kinds of, bad, help, chance, create A group of animal lovers in Brazil helps 51 hurt animals. They use computers to 52 animal body parts. Three-dimensional (3D) printing can make 53 things. It can make a bottle or a toy truck. In one case, the Brazil team used 3D printing 54 a tortoise (海龟). A forest fire had destroyed almost all of her shell. The group named the tortoise Freddy and gave her another 55 at life. First, they took photos of Freddy. They also took photos of a healthy tortoise with a complete shell. Then they used a computer program to design a new plastic shell for Freddy. The finished shell fit Freddy’s body well. B. 阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式 (每空一词)。 Late one night, Gulliver received a warning that some nobles (贵族) wanted him killed. Even the emperor of Lilliput wanted to give him less food to 56 (节约) money. It was true Gulliyer was very expensive, 57 (迅速地), he wrote a letter to the emperor, “I’m off to visit Blefuscu, as I promised.” Then he hurried down to the sea 58 (之间) Lilliput and Blefuscu. The king of Blefuscu 59 (他自己) came out to meet Gulliver. “Welcome!” cried the king. “Stay as long as you like.” 60 (散步) on the beach a week later, Gulliver saw out at sea a small boat, but a full-sized one. It was floating upside down in the water. Gulliver rushed to the king. He begged, “Can you help me rescue (营救) the boat? This could be my chance to go home.” “Of course,” said the king. “Take some ships to help you.” Gulliver swam out to the boat, holding ropes from each of the ships. With the ships pulling and Gulliver pushing, the boat was 61 (带) safely to bank. Gulliver and the 62 (国王) men set about fixing the boat for his long journey home. Soon, the boat was finished. “I’d like to leave now,” Gulliver told the king. “But no one at home will 63 (相信) my story. Could I take some of your people with me?” “It is 64 (不可能的) for me to allow that,” said the king. “But you may take some cows and a sheep.” He also gave Gulliver fifty bags of gold coins. “I don’t want you to go,” he said. “But I have 65 (理解) why you have to go.” “Thank you,” said Galliver. “I’ll nevet forget you all.” 第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分) 阅读下面短文,在空格处填入一个适当的词或括号中所给词的正确形式。 On April 19, 2025, the world’s first humanoid robot half-marathon (人形机器人半程马拉松) took place in Yizhuang, Beijing. Hundreds of people got together to watch this wonderful event. All of 66 (they) were excited to see robots run alongside human athletes. They took photos and recorded this historic moment. The race began at 7:30 a. m. At first all robots looked confident. They moved smoothly and 67 (quick). The crowd cheered aloud. But not all robots could finish the race. Many robots faced challenges. The track (跑道) had steep slopes (陡坡), grassy areas, and gravel roads (碎石路).These problems made it hard 68 robots to keep balance. Some robots wore special shoes 69 (protect) their “feet”. Others used AI to adjust (调整) their speed and direction. The robot “Tiangong Ultra” 70 (win) the race with a time of 2 hours, 40 minutes and 42 seconds. Its lightweight body and cooling (冷却) system helped it run 71 (fast) than other robots. The robot “N2Xiaowantong” was 72 second to cross the finishing line and 73 (welcome) by people because it ran in a more human-like pose. Engineers said the event was a good test for robot technology. “We’ve learned a lot about 74 robots can work in real-world situations,” said one engineer. “This is just the beginning.” In the future, these robots might help in factories, hospitals, or even at home. This race shows robot technology has taken a big step forward. Who knows what we 75 (see) in the next humanoid robot marathon? 第四部分 书面表达(共一节,满分20分) 76.AI (人工智能) 的发展催生出了许多智能产品,陪护机器人 (companion robot) 就是其中之一。如果你的父母不在家,你是否会选择和陪护机器人待在一起呢?请你根据写作要求,结合自身实际,从以下观点中任选其一,用英语写一篇短文,陈述你对陪护机器人的观点。 YES NO ☆ wise and knows a lot ☆ can talk with me ☆ will never get tired ☆ expensive ☆ can’t look after me like a real person ☆ needs to be charged (充电) 写作要求: 1.文中须包含所选观点的要点提示,可适当发挥; 2.文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和学校名称; 3.词数80左右 (开头已给出,不计入总词数)。 Will you choose to stay with a companion robot if your parents are not at home? __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试卷第1页,共3页 试卷第1页,共3页 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$ 2025年中考临考押题卷(浙江专用) 英 语 (考试时间:100分钟 试卷满分:120分) 注意事项: 1.本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分。答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2.回答第Ⅰ卷时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。 3.回答第Ⅱ卷时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 4.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力部分 一、听力(本题有15小题,第一、二节每小题1分,第三节每小题2分;满分20分) 第一节 听小对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,回答问题。 1.Where will they go on the school trip? A.To an art museum. B.To a history museum. C.To a science museum. 【答案】A 【原文】W: I’m really excited about seeing the famous paintings by Picasso. M: Me, too! I’m glad Mr. Smith chose the art museum for our school trip this year. 2.When were zippers invented? A.In 1893. B.In 1917. C.In 1987 【答案】A 【原文】W: Tom, do you know zippers were invented in 1893? M: Wow, that’s interesting! They’ve really changed how we close things up, haven’t they? W: Sure! And they became popular around 1917. 3.Whose flowerpot did the man break probably? A.Judy’s. B.Nancy’s. C.Linda’s. 【答案】B 【原文】M: Judy, I’m sorry for breaking your flowerpot. W: It’s not mine. I guess it’s Nancy’s. You know Mary and Linda don’t grow flowers. 4.What are they mainly talking about? A.The changeable weather. B.The health problems. C.The four seasons. 【答案】A 【原文】W: So many people have got a cold from the sudden change in weather, one day hot but the next day cold. M: Yeah. It seems that we are experiencing four seasons these days. 5.What’s the most probable relationship between the two speakers? A.Teacher and student. B.Brother and sister. C.Classmates. 【答案】C 【原文】M: Guess what? Our English teacher will dance at the school party! W: Wow. It must be a fantastic party. I can’t wait for it. 第二节 听长对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,回答问题。 听对话,回答各小题。 6.What is the population of the city now? A.3.5 million. B.7 million. C.10.5 million. 7.How is the government going to solve the problem? A.By saving more water. B.By closing more factories. C.By offering more public services. 【答案】6.B 7.C 【原文】A: What are you doing, Steve? B: I’m preparing some notes for a report about our city’s population. You know, the population of our city is doubled in the past five years. A: Yes, five years ago there were only 3~5 million people, but now the number is 7 million. B: I’m worried that the population increase will cause some problems. A: I’m afraid so. Luckily, the government is going to provide more public services. B: That’s good news. 听对话,回答各小题。 8.What did Joan watch this weekend? A.A play. B.A parade. C.A film. 9.How long did it last? A.For about one hour. B.For about two hours. C.For about three hours. 10.Why did she like it? A.Because of the music. B.Because of the actors. C.Because of the clothes. 【答案】8.A 9.B 10.A 【原文】A: How was your weekend Joan? B: Great. I went to wheneno theatre and watched the play romeo and juliet. A: Wow, it’s one of my favourite plays. B: Really, what do you think of it? A: Fantastic. Each time I watch it, I feel relaxed. B: Me too. During the two hours we were moved and cheered for every actor from time to time. A: It seems that you really enjoyed yourself there. B: Sure. Though the actors were not that famous, the music left me a deep impression. A: I’m looking forward to watching it again. 第三节 听长对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,回答问题。 听下面一段独白,回答五个小题。独白读两遍。 11.How will the students go to the Lee’s Tea Garden? A.By bike. B.By bus. C.On foot. 12.When will the students start the trip? A.At 7:20. B.At 8:00. C.At 8:40. 13.What will the students do in the morning? A.Learn to pick tea leaves. B.Help the farmers pack tea. C.Watch the farmers make tea. 14.Why do the students need to bring money with them? A.To buy tickets. B.To buy lunch. C.To buy tea. 15.Who may the speaker be? A.A teacher. B.A guide. C.A farmer. 【答案】11.C 12.B 13.A 14.C 15.A 【原文】 Attention, boys and girls. Here’s some information about our school trip to Lee’s Tea Garden. The tea garden is not far, so we can walk there and enjoy the beautiful countryside along the way. We will meet at the school gate and start at 8:00 tomorrow morning. It takes about 40 minutes to arrive there. We have planned lots of fun activities! In the morning, you can learn to pick leaves from the farmers there. At noon, free lunch will be served at the tea garden. After lunch, you can watch the farmers make tea and help them to pack the tea. Before going back, you will have time to buy some tea at the garden store, so you’d better bring some money with you. We’ll go back at 4:30 pm. Last but not least, you’ re required to write a passage about the trip and hand it to me next Monday. I hope you’ll enjoy your trip. 第二部分 笔试部分 二、阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项。 A Dancers Wanted for Our School’s 50th Anniversary To celebrate our school’s 50th anniversary (周年纪念日), we are going to choose a number of dancers. Come and show yourself at 9:30 a.m. this Friday in the concert hall. Join Us! We are Heart Beat. We have a pianist, a guitarist and a drummer (鼓手). We need YOU to sing with us, Join us at 4:00 p.m. this Tuesday in the school music hall. Let’s play wonderful music together! Shining Club We have all kinds of clay figurine (泥塑) works for you. You can learn about Chinese traditional art from them. Create your own figurine and take it home. TIME: 9:00 a.m. next Wednesday PLACE: Room A201 Famous Environmentalist to Give a Talk Air pollution is causing more and more problems. What can we do? A well-known environmentalist will come to our school and give a talk. Come to know more and take action! TIME: 3:30 p.m.-5:30 p.m. next Thursday PLACE: Hall 2 16.If Tina wants to show her dancing ability, where should she go? A.To Hall 2. B.To the music hall. C.To Room A201. D.To the concert hall. 17.What is the talk probably about? A.How to play wonderful music together. B.How to protect the environment better. C.How to learn about Chinese traditional art. D.How to celebrate our school’s 50th Anniversary. 18.Where can we probably read the passage? A.In a city guidebook. B.On a school noticeboard. C.In a local newspaper. D.On a community website. 【答案】16.D 17.B 18.B 【导语】本文是一篇应用文,主要介绍了学校为庆祝50周年纪念日招募舞者、Heart Beat乐队招募歌手、Shining Club的泥塑活动以及一位著名环保主义者的讲座信息。 16.细节理解题。根据文章第一段“To celebrate our school’s 50th anniversary (周年纪念日), we are going to choose a number of dancers. Come and show yourself at 9:30 a.m. this Friday in the concert hall.”可知,如果Tina想展示她的舞蹈能力,她应该去音乐厅。故选D。 17.推理判断题。根据文章最后一段“Air pollution is causing more and more problems. What can we do? A well-known environmentalist will come to our school and give a talk. Come to know more and take action!”可知,讲座可能关于如何更好地保护环境。故选B。 18.推理判断题。根据文章内容,主要介绍了学校的一些活动信息,包括招募舞者、乐队招募歌手、泥塑活动以及环保讲座等,这些信息更可能出现在学校的公告栏上。故选B。 B Ed was a professional football player, but in 2017 he had an accident in a swimming pool. After that, he couldn’t move his body from the shoulders down. Doctors told him that he’d probably never walk again, but Ed didn’t want to believe this. He had recently got engaged (订婚) to the woman who is now his wife and he said that she was the main reason he wanted to get better. He spent six days staring at his toes (脚趾) and trying to make them move—and, finally, he succeeded! This was the start of a long journey. While in hospital, Ed met Paul, a man in his late thirties. Doctors had also told Paul he would never walk again, but Ed encouraged him not to give up and six months later, Paul told Ed he was walking with a stick. Only a year after his accident, Ed climbed the highest mountain in Wales. Since then he has also climbed a 6, 500-meter mountain in Nepal and he said that after each big climb he noticed his body could do new movements. Two years later, 31-year-old Ed climbed 8, 848 meters, the height of the world’s highest mountain, by going up and down his parents’ stairs 2, 783 times. When he finished, he told a news reporter he had loved it although it sometimes was “painful” and “boring”. He also raised £46, 00 for charity. Ed hopes his story can help people. That’s why he started his own charity, M2M, which aims to support “people facing challenges in life.” 19.Who did Ed want to get better mainly for? A.His parents. B.His doctor. C.His friend. D.His wife. 20.What is Ed like according to Paragraph 3? A.Brave. B.Helpful. C.Honest. D.Hard-working. 21.What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 5 refer to? A.Raising money. B.Climbing the mountains. C.Visiting parents. D.Going up and down stairs. 22.What would be the best title for the passage? A.A Football Player B.A Challenge Lover. C.A Charity Worker D.A Mountain Climber 【答案】19.D 20.B 21.D 22.B 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文,主要讲述了职业足球运动员Ed在遭遇事故后,凭借坚强的意志力和妻子的支持,不仅自己康复,还帮助他人并创立慈善机构的故事。 19.细节理解题。根据文章第2段“He had recently got engaged (订婚) to the woman who is now his wife and he said that she was the main reason he wanted to get better. ”可知,Ed康复的主要动力是他的未婚妻 (现为妻子)。故选D。 20.推理判断题。根据文章第3段“Ed encouraged him not to give up”可推知,Ed是一个乐于助人的人。故选B。 21.词句猜测题。根据文章第5段“Two years later, 31-year-old Ed climbed 8, 848 meters, the height of the world’s highest mountain, by going up and down his parents’ stairs 2, 783 times.”可知,Ed通过上下父母家的楼梯2,783次,攀登了8,848米。可推知,“it”指代的是“上下楼梯”这一行为。故选D。 22.最佳标题题。全文围绕Ed克服身体障碍、挑战自我并帮助他人的故事展开,重点突出他对生活的积极态度和对挑战的热爱。故选B。 C On April 24, 2025, China sent the Shenzhou-20 manned spaceship into space. This day marks the 10th anniversary (周年) of “China Space Day,” a time to celebrate the country’s space achievements. It all started with China’s first satellite, Dongfanghong-1, launched in 1970. The mission carried three astronauts: Chen Dong (the team leader), Chen Zhongrui, and Wang Jie. Chen Dong is an experienced astronaut who has been to space twice before (on Shenzhou-11 in 2016 and Shenzhou-14 in 2022). He will become the first astronaut from China’s second group to complete three space trips. The other two astronauts are new to space and will work as pilots and engineers. The Shenzhou-20 team will stay in China's space station for about six months. They have three main tasks: Crew(机组人员)Chang’e: They will replace the Shenzhou-19 astronauts, who have been in space for over 150 days. Those astronauts will return to Earth on April 29. Science Experiments: The crew will study how living things survive in space. For example, they will watch zebrafish (to learn about bone and heart health in low gravity), planarian worms (China’s first experiment on how animals regrow body parts in space), and streptomyces (tiny living things used in making medicine). These tests aim to solve problems for future long trips in space. Spacewalks: The astronauts will put in equipment (设备), fix the station, and test new technologies outside the spaceship. During their mission, the astronauts will welcome the Tianzhou-9 supply ship and the Shenzhou-21 manned mission. This will help keep supplies and teamwork going smoothly. They plan to come back to Earth in late October 2025 at the Dongfeng Landing Site. 23.What makes Chen Dong special in the Shenzhou-20 mission? A.He is the team leader of Shenzhou-19. B.He has the least space experience in the crew. C.He will be the first second-group astronaut to finish three space trips. D.He will lead the Shenzhou-21 manned mission. 24.How does Shenzhou-20 mission contribute to future long-term space exploration? A.By doing experiments on living things in low gravity. B.By organizing celebrations for the 10th anniversary of China Space Day. C.By returning the Shenzhou-19 astronauts to Earth. D.By only replacing the Shenzhou-19 astronauts without any other research. 25.Why do they study zebrafish in space? A.To make new medicines with tiny living things B.To learn about bone and heart health in low gravity. C.To see how animals regrow body parts. D.To study the swimming speed of zebrafish in space. 26.Which task is NOT mentioned for crew during spacewalks? A.Putting in equipment outside the spaceship. B.Fixing the space station. C.Testing new technologies. D.Doing medical operations on animals. 【答案】23.C 24.A 25.B 26.D 【导语】本文介绍了中国第二批宇航员陈冬将完成三次太空旅行,还阐述了神舟20号任务的科学实验与太空行走等内容 。 23.细节理解题。根据“Chen Dong is an experienced astronaut who has been to space twice before...He will become the first astronaut from China's second group to complete three space trips.”可知,陈东的特殊之处在于他将成为中国第二批宇航员中完成三次太空旅行的第一人。故选C。 24.细节理解题。根据“Science Experiments: The crew will study how living things survive in space. For example, they will watch zebrafish (to learn about bone and heart health in low gravity)…These tests aim to solve problems for future long trips in space”可知,神舟20号任务通过在低重力环境下对生物进行实验,来为未来长期太空探索解决问题。故选A。 25.细节理解题。根据“they will watch zebrafish (to learn about bone and heart health in low gravity)”可知,研究斑马鱼是为了了解低重力环境下骨骼和心脏的健康情况。故选B。 26.细节理解题。根据“Spacewalks: The astronauts will put in equipment, fix the station, and test new technologies outside the spaceship.”可知,句中提到了太空行走的任务包括安装设备、维修空间站和测试新技术。选项D“对动物进行医疗手术”,文中未提及。故选D。 D “Wow! Look at that! Isn’t it a real fish?” The bionic (仿生) fish, named “Jinlin”, was swimming lively like a real one. It was developed by researchers at Shanghai Ocean University. This invention isn’t just for fun—it shows how humans copy nature to solve problems. That is a science called bionics. Over millions of years, animals and plants have developed smart ways to survive. For example, kingfishers are experts at moving fast between air and water with very little noise. Through their study, scientists discovered that the birds’ long beaks (喙) enabled this ability. Then they used the knowledge to change the front of the high-speed train. This change cut down noise level, increased speed by 10% and greatly saved energy. This combination (结合) of biology and engineering is the key to success in bionics. And it has set the stage for the rise of other new technologies. Driven by robotics and AI, bionics has grown rapidly. The AI-powered bionic fish “Jinlin” can be used for environmental protection and deep sea exploration. In medicine, bionic arms can work similarly to real arms. Sensors allow the user to “feel” touch and pressure. Motors help the bionic arms make movements, like human muscles (肌肉). With AI, the bionic arms are able to “learn” new tasks and become smarter over time. These inventions are examples to show how bionics bridges biology and new technologies to solve humans’ problems. Although so much progress has been made, bionics faces challenges. Nature’s designs are hard to copy perfectly. As for bionic arms, one key area of development is Brain-Computer Interface (脑机接口). More work on direct communication between the brain and bionic arms is required to control movements as naturally as real arms. Researchers are also working on creating new materials and structures which can sense and repair themselves. While there’s still a long way to go, the future of bionics is full of possibilities. Stay hungry. Stay foolish. Maybe you’ll be the next one to change the world! 27.Why does the writer mention “Jinlin” at the beginning of the passage? A.To suggest some new ideas. B.To lead into the topic of bionics. C.To explain the habits of fish. D.To show the importance of bionics. 28.What can we learn from Paragraph 3? A.Robotics and AI have developed fast because of bionics. B.The bionic fish “Jinlin” is used for medical purposes. C.Motors allow the bionic arms to make movements. D.Sensors help bionic arms learn new tasks over time. 29.According to Paragraph 4, how would scientists make bionic arms more like real ones? ① By connecting motors with smart phones. ② By developing new materials and structures. ③ By improving Brain-Computer Interface. ④ By changing the shape and look of bionic arms. A.①② B.②③ C.①④ D.③④ 30.Which of the following shows the use of bionics? A.Drawing a picture of birds by watching real birds. B.Building a house with natural materials like wood. C.Designing a camera by copying some insects’ eyes. D.Learning to dance by studying monkeys’ movements. 【答案】27.B 28.C 29.B 30.C 【导语】本文介绍了仿生学这一科学领域,通过模仿自然界的生物结构和功能来解决人类面临的问题。 27.推理判断题。根据“This invention isn’t just for fun—it shows how humans copy nature to solve problems. That is a science called bionics.”可知文章开头提到“Jinlin”是为了引出仿生学这一主题。故选B。 28.细节理解题。根据“Motors help the bionic arms make movements”可知马达帮助仿生手臂进行运动。故选C。 29.细节理解题。根据“As for bionic arms, one key area of development is Brain-Computer Interface...Researchers are also working on creating new materials and structures which can sense and repair themselves.”可知科学家们通过开发新的材料和结构以及改进脑机接口来使仿生手臂更接近真实手臂。故选B。 30.推理判断题。根据“it shows how humans copy nature to solve problems. That is a science called bionics.”可知仿生学是指人类通过模仿自然来解决问题,选项C“通过模仿昆虫的眼睛设计相机”是典型的仿生学应用。故选C。 三、任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分) 阅读下面材料,从A~E五个选项中(其中一项是多余选项),选择合适的选项将其序号填入第1~4题,并完成第5题。 Do you know that when you’re kind to others, it’s good for your own happiness too? Even small acts of kindness can make you more confident and help you feel more connected to the people around you. Kindness means doing something thoughtful and generous for others without thinking anything in return. It could be a small, simple act, like holding open a door, or something that takes time and effort, like making a playlist for your friend. Kindness isn’t just something you do. It also means thinking about others’ feelings, as well as your own. Scientists have discovered that when you are kind to someone, your body is filled with good feelings that make you feel calmer, healthier and happier. When you volunteer for a local farm, for example, you feel part of a community. This can make you feel better about yourself and build friendships. Kindness is also something that flows outwards, like ripples (涟漪) in a pool. Bring more kindness into your life. Start with something simple and easy, like sending a message to a friend you haven’t spoken to for a while. Try to do something you enjoy, while remembering that you are doing it for others, and see if you can turn kindness into a habit. “Being kind to ourselves can feel difficult at times,” the Mental Health Foundation says. “Try to find ways each day to be kind to yourself, like reading a book or listening to your favorite song. Use kind words when describing yourself or the things you have done that day.” A.What does kindness mean? B.How to show our kindness? C. How is kindness good for you? D.Don’t forget to show kindness to yourself too. E. If you treat others kindly, they may pass on the kindness. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.What is your way to be kind to yourself? (10 词以内) 【答案】31.A 32.C 33.E 34.D 35.Enjoy some delicious food. 【导语】本文主要介绍了善良的定义及好处。 31.根据“Kindness means doing something thoughtful and generous for others without thinking anything in return.”可知,后文解释了善良的定义。选项A“善良是什么意思?”符合语境。故选A。 32.根据“Scientists have discovered that when you are kind to someone, your body is filled with good feelings that make you feel calmer, healthier and happier.”可知,后文介绍了善良的好处。选项C“善良对你有什么好处?”符合语境。故选C。 33.根据“Bring more kindness into your life.”可知,后文提到了善良会传递,选项E“如果你善待他人,他们可能会传递你的善意。”符合语境。故选E。 34.根据“Being kind to ourselves can feel difficult at times”可知,设空处应该说要善待自己,选项D“别忘了也要善待自己。”符合语境。故选D。 35.开放性问题,言之有理即可。参考答案为:Enjoy some delicious food. 第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分40分) 第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项。 Parenting can be difficult, but at the end of the day, the No. 1 thing any parent needs to do is to love and support. Everything else is extra (额外的). That means even if a parent doesn’t make much money, they can still be a 36 parent. Quimado doesn’t have much in life, but he has a 37 . And to him, that is everything. The rubbish collector became 38 after a GMA News article showed just how much he loves his family. In the 39 , the father of four explained how he got to work at 4 a. m. From there he collects rubbish and 40 his health by touching a lot of harmful objects. It’s far from a good job, but it’s a job. He does it because he wants a better life for his kids. He wants them to 41 their studies, and he’ll do whatever it takes to support them. “It’s 42 because I have many children. Though it’s hard, I can 43 it,” he said. Quimado’s dream came true 44 his daughter Jenny graduated from college in April 2018. It’s been a 45 journey, but the dad said he was proud of her. Jenny is also proud of how hard her father has worked to get her to this 46 . “His work is honorable, and I’m 47 of him,” Jenny often says. And that’s what pleases Quimado the most. Some kids might feel it’s a (n) 48 to have a father who is a rubbish collector. She strongly 49 hard work is hard work. She also knows what you do for a living doesn’t 50 define (定义) you. “When people ask, ‘What does your father do?’ she answers, ‘A rubbish collector!’ She is not shy,” Quimado added. 36.A.serious B.lucky C.creative D.successful 37.A.choice B.family C.future D.promise 38.A.well-known B.warm-hearted C.open-minded D.hard-working 39.A.speech B.performance C.story D.notice 40.A.tests B.worries C.protects D.risks 41.A.finish B.remember C.enjoy D.plan 42.A.useful B.similar C.challenging D.impossible 43.A.depend on B.deal with C.try on D.agree with 44.A.unless B.if C.though D.when 45.A.crowded B.long C.common D.popular 46.A.world B.competition C.position D.situation 47.A.proud B.afraid C.careful D.glad 48.A.trick B.secret C.shame D.accident 49.A.doubts B.believes C.accepts D.imagines 50.A.quickly B.gradually C.suddenly D.fully 【答案】 36.D 37.B 38.A 39.C 40.D 41.A 42.C 43.B 44.D 45.B 46.C 47.A 48.C 49.B 50.D 【导语】本文讲述了垃圾收集工父亲辛勤养家,女儿毕业,爱与骄傲超越职业。 36.句意:这意味着即使父母挣的钱不多,他们仍然可以尽到父母的责任。 serious严肃的;lucky幸运的;creative有创造力的;successful成功的。 根据“That means even if a parent doesn’t make much money, they can still be a…parent.”并结合上下文,父母即使不富有,只要提供爱和支持,就能成为“成功的”父母,故选D。 37.句意:基马多的生活并不富裕,但他有一个家庭。 choice选择;family家庭;future未来;promise承诺。根据“And to him, that is everything”可知,此处是说基马多虽穷,但拥有家庭,故选B。 38.句意:在GMA新闻的一篇文章展示了他是多么爱他的家人之后,这位垃圾收集者就出名了。 well-known著名的;warm-hearted热心的;open-minded开明的;hard-working勤奋的。根据“after a GMA News article showed just how much he loves his family.”可知,新闻报道使他广为人知,故选A。 39.句意:在这个故事中,四个孩子的父亲解释了他是如何在凌晨4点上班的,从那里他收集垃圾,并冒着健康风险接触很多有害物品。 speech演讲;performance表演;story故事;notice通知。根据“the father of four explained how he got to work at 4 a. m.”可知,在“故事”(指新闻报道)中,他描述自己的工作细节,与“article”呼应。故选C。 40.句意:在这个故事中,四个孩子的父亲解释了他是如何在凌晨4点上班的,从那里他收集垃圾,并冒着健康风险接触很多有害物品。 tests测试;worries担忧;protects保护;risks冒险。收集垃圾时接触有害物品,“冒着风险”健康,risks体现工作危险性。故选D。 41.句意:他希望他们完成学业,他会尽一切努力支持他们。 finish完成;remember记住;enjoy享受;plan计划。根据“their studies, and he’ll do whatever it takes to support them.”可知,他希望孩子“完成”学业,以便有更好生活,与“support them”目标一致。故选A。 42.句意:这很有挑战性,因为我有很多孩子。 useful有用的;similar相似的;challenging有挑战性的;impossible不可能的。根据“ because I have many children.”可知,此处指虽难但有挑战性。故选C。 43.句意:虽然很难,但我能应付。 depend on依赖;deal with处理;try on试穿;agree with同意。根据“Though it’s hard, I can…it,”可知,此处是说他能应对困难,故选B。 44.句意:2018年4月,当他的女儿Jenny大学毕业时,基马多的梦想成真了。 unless除非;if如果;though尽管;when当……时。根据“Quimado’s dream came true…his daughter Jenny graduated from college”可知,此处指女儿毕业时梦想实现了,故选D。 45.句意:这是一段漫长的旅程,但父亲说他为她感到骄傲。 crowded拥挤的;long长的;common普通的;popular受欢迎的。根据“It’s been a…journey, but the dad said he was proud of her”可知,供女儿读书的旅程“漫长的”,强调多年艰辛。故选B。 46.句意:Jenny也为她父亲的努力工作让她获得这个职位而感到自豪。 world世界;competition竞争;position职位;situation情况。父亲努力让她达到这个“位置”,如大学毕业的成就,与“proud”呼应。故选C。 47.句意:“他的工作很光荣,我为他感到骄傲,”Jenny经常说。 proud骄傲的;afraid害怕的;careful小心的;glad高兴的。根据“His work is honorable, and I’m”可知,应该说为他感到骄傲。故选A。 48.句意:有些孩子可能会觉得有一个收垃圾的父亲是件羞耻的事。 trick把戏;secret秘密;shame羞耻;accident事故。根据“Some kids might feel it’s a (n)…to have a father who is a rubbish collector.”可知,此处是说有些孩子或视之为羞耻,有些孩子可能觉得父亲是垃圾收集员是“耻辱”,但Jenny不这么认为。故选C。 49.句意:她坚信努力就是努力。 doubts怀疑;believes相信;accepts接受;imagines想象。根据“hard work is hard work”可知,她“相信”努力工作就是努力工作,体现坚定态度。故选B。 50.句意:她也知道你的职业并不能完全定义你。 quickly迅速地;gradually逐渐地;suddenly突然地;fully充分地。根据“She also knows what you do for a living doesn’t…define (定义) you.”可知,职业不能“完全”定义一个人,强调个人价值不限于职业。故选D。 第二节 词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分) A. 将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中,每词仅用一次。 all kinds of, bad, help, chance, create A group of animal lovers in Brazil helps 51 hurt animals. They use computers to 52 animal body parts. Three-dimensional (3D) printing can make 53 things. It can make a bottle or a toy truck. In one case, the Brazil team used 3D printing 54 a tortoise (海龟). A forest fire had destroyed almost all of her shell. The group named the tortoise Freddy and gave her another 55 at life. First, they took photos of Freddy. They also took photos of a healthy tortoise with a complete shell. Then they used a computer program to design a new plastic shell for Freddy. The finished shell fit Freddy’s body well. 【答案】51.badly 52.create 53.all kinds of 54.to help 55.chance 【导语】本文主要讲述了巴西的一群动物爱好者利用3D打印技术帮助受伤动物的故事 51.句意:巴西的一群动物爱好者帮助严重受伤的动物。根据“A group of animal lovers in Brazil helps…hurt animals”及备选词可知,这里指严重受伤的动物,bad“坏的”,形容词;此处应用副词形式修饰动词hurt,故填badly。 52.句意:他们使用电脑来制作动物身体部位。根据“They use computers to…animal body parts”及备选词可知,这里指制作动物身体部位,create“制作”,动词;此处用不定式表目的,故填create。 53.句意:3D打印可以制作各种各样的东西。根据“Three-dimensional (3D) printing can make…things”及备选词可知,这里指各种各样的东西,all kinds of“各种各样的”,形容词短语作定语,故填all kinds of。 54.句意:在一个案例中,巴西团队使用3D打印来帮助一只海龟。根据“In one case, the Brazil team used 3D printing…a tortoise”及备选词可知,这里指帮助一只海龟,help“帮助”,动词;此处用不定式表目的,故填to help。 55.句意:该团队给这只海龟取名为Freddy,并给了她重生的机会。根据“The group named the tortoise Freddy and gave her another…at life”及备选词可知,这里指重生的机会,chance“机会”,名词,故填chance。 B. 阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式 (每空一词)。 Late one night, Gulliver received a warning that some nobles (贵族) wanted him killed. Even the emperor of Lilliput wanted to give him less food to 56 (节约) money. It was true Gulliyer was very expensive, 57 (迅速地), he wrote a letter to the emperor, “I’m off to visit Blefuscu, as I promised.” Then he hurried down to the sea 58 (之间) Lilliput and Blefuscu. The king of Blefuscu 59 (他自己) came out to meet Gulliver. “Welcome!” cried the king. “Stay as long as you like.” 60 (散步) on the beach a week later, Gulliver saw out at sea a small boat, but a full-sized one. It was floating upside down in the water. Gulliver rushed to the king. He begged, “Can you help me rescue (营救) the boat? This could be my chance to go home.” “Of course,” said the king. “Take some ships to help you.” Gulliver swam out to the boat, holding ropes from each of the ships. With the ships pulling and Gulliver pushing, the boat was 61 (带) safely to bank. Gulliver and the 62 (国王) men set about fixing the boat for his long journey home. Soon, the boat was finished. “I’d like to leave now,” Gulliver told the king. “But no one at home will 63 (相信) my story. Could I take some of your people with me?” “It is 64 (不可能的) for me to allow that,” said the king. “But you may take some cows and a sheep.” He also gave Gulliver fifty bags of gold coins. “I don’t want you to go,” he said. “But I have 65 (理解) why you have to go.” “Thank you,” said Galliver. “I’ll nevet forget you all.” 【答案】 56.save 57.Quickly 58.between 59.himself 60.Walking 61.brought 62.king’s 63.believe 64.impossible 65.understood 【导语】本文摘自《格列佛游记》。主要讲述小人国Lilliput的人准备除掉格列佛,格列佛听到风声,逃到另一个小人国Blefuscu国,最终平安回家的故事。 56.句意:甚至连利力浦特的皇帝都想少给他一些食物以节省钱。save“节约”,不定式符号to后跟动词原形。故填save。 57.句意:迅速地,他给皇帝写了一封信。quickly“迅速地”,副词修饰整个句子,且句首单词首字母大写。故填Quickly。 58.句意:然后他急忙跑到利力浦特和不来夫斯古之间的海边。between ... and“两者之间”。故填between。 59.句意:不来夫斯古国王亲自出来迎接格列佛。himself“他自己”,反身代词。故填himself。 60.句意:一周后,在海滩上散步时,格列佛看见海面上有一艘小船,但却是一艘全尺寸的船。walk“散步”,空处用现在分词作状语,且句首单词首字母大写。故填Walking。 61.句意:随着船只的拉动和格列佛的推力,船被安全地带到了岸边。bring“带”,此处用过去分词brought与was一起构成一般过去时的被动结构。故填brought。 62.句意:格列佛和国王的手下开始修理船,准备回家的长途旅行。king“国王”,此处修饰名词men,用名词所有格形式。故填king’s。 63.句意:但是家里没有人相信我的故事。believe“相信”,will后跟动词原形。故填believe。 64.句意:我不可能允许这样做。impossible“不可能的”,形容词作表语。故填impossible。 65.句意:但是我理解你为什么要走。understand“理解”,此处用过去分词与have一起构成现在完成时结构。故填understood。 第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分) 阅读下面短文,在空格处填入一个适当的词或括号中所给词的正确形式。 On April 19, 2025, the world’s first humanoid robot half-marathon (人形机器人半程马拉松) took place in Yizhuang, Beijing. Hundreds of people got together to watch this wonderful event. All of 66 (they) were excited to see robots run alongside human athletes. They took photos and recorded this historic moment. The race began at 7:30 a. m. At first all robots looked confident. They moved smoothly and 67 (quick). The crowd cheered aloud. But not all robots could finish the race. Many robots faced challenges. The track (跑道) had steep slopes (陡坡), grassy areas, and gravel roads (碎石路).These problems made it hard 68 robots to keep balance. Some robots wore special shoes 69 (protect) their “feet”. Others used AI to adjust (调整) their speed and direction. The robot “Tiangong Ultra” 70 (win) the race with a time of 2 hours, 40 minutes and 42 seconds. Its lightweight body and cooling (冷却) system helped it run 71 (fast) than other robots. The robot “N2Xiaowantong” was 72 second to cross the finishing line and 73 (welcome) by people because it ran in a more human-like pose. Engineers said the event was a good test for robot technology. “We’ve learned a lot about 74 robots can work in real-world situations,” said one engineer. “This is just the beginning.” In the future, these robots might help in factories, hospitals, or even at home. This race shows robot technology has taken a big step forward. Who knows what we 75 (see) in the next humanoid robot marathon? 【答案】 66.them 67.quickly 68.for 69.to protect 70.won 71.faster 72.the 73.was welcomed 74.how 75.will see 【导语】本文是一篇新闻报道。文章主要报道了2025年4月19日在北京亦庄举行的全球首场人形机器人半程马拉松赛事,描述了比赛过程、机器人表现及技术意义。 66.句意:所有人都兴奋地看到机器人与人类运动员一起奔跑。介词“of”后需接代词宾格形式,they的宾格为them。故填them。 67.句意:它们移动得流畅且快速。并列副词修饰动词“moved”,quick的副词形式为quickly。故填quickly。 68.句意:这些问题使机器人难以保持平衡。考查it is hard for sb. to do sth.表示“对某人来说做某事困难”。故填for。 69.句意:一些机器人穿着特殊的鞋子来保护它们的“脚”。动词不定式作目的状语,表示穿鞋的目的。故填to protect。 70.句意:机器人“天宫Ultra”以2小时40分42秒的成绩赢得了比赛。描述过去完成的动作,需用一般过去时,win的过去式为won。故填won。 71.句意:它的轻量化机身和冷却系统帮助它比其他机器人跑得更快。than前用比较级,fast的比较级为faster。故填faster。 72.句意:机器人“N2小顽童”第二个冲过终点线,它因为以更拟人的姿势跑步而受到人们的欢迎。序数词second前需加定冠词the。故填the。 73.句意:机器人“N2小顽童”第二个冲过终点线,它因为以更拟人的姿势跑步而受到人们的欢迎。“The robot”与“welcome”之间是被动关系,时态为一般过去时,被动语态结构为“was/were +过去分词”,主语为单数,be动词用was,welcome的过去分词为welcomed。故填was welcomed。 74.句意:“我们学到了很多关于机器人如何在现实场景中工作的知识。”一个工程师说。此处为宾语从句,表示方式用how。故填how。 75.句意:谁知道我们在下届人形机器人马拉松中会看到什么?根据“in the next humanoid robot marathon”可知,用一般将来时will do结构。故填will see。 第四部分 书面表达(共一节,满分20分) 76.AI (人工智能) 的发展催生出了许多智能产品,陪护机器人 (companion robot) 就是其中之一。如果你的父母不在家,你是否会选择和陪护机器人待在一起呢?请你根据写作要求,结合自身实际,从以下观点中任选其一,用英语写一篇短文,陈述你对陪护机器人的观点。 YES NO ☆ wise and knows a lot ☆ can talk with me ☆ will never get tired ☆ expensive ☆ can’t look after me like a real person ☆ needs to be charged (充电) 写作要求: 1.文中须包含所选观点的要点提示,可适当发挥; 2.文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和学校名称; 3.词数80左右 (开头已给出,不计入总词数)。 Will you choose to stay with a companion robot if your parents are not at home? __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】例文1 Will you choose to stay with a companion robot if your parents are not at home? As for me, I agree to have a companion robot at home. Here are my ideas about the robot. Firstly, the companion robot seems very wise and it knows a lot about all my subjects. When I have problems with my schoolwork, it will help me to solve the problems. Secondly, it can talk with me and then I won’t feel lonely when I stay at home alone. Thirdly, the robot will never get tired and it can keep playing with me until I get tired. In a word, it will be a great idea for me to stay with a companion robot if my parents are not at home. 例文2 Will you choose to stay with a companion robot if your parents are not at home? As for me, I refuse to have a companion robot at home. Here are my ideas about the robot. Firstly, the companion robot might be very expensive. I think my parents can’t afford to buy one. Secondly, the robot can’t look after me like a real person. If I fall ill, the robot can’t take care of me like my mother. Thirdly, the robot can’t work all the time. Sometimes it needs to be charged. It will lose its value if it has no power or battery. In all, I prefer to stay alone rather than stay with a companion robot if my parents are not at home. 【详解】以例文1为例 [总体分析] ①题材:本文是一篇材料作文; ②时态:“一般将来时”为主; ③提示:选择一个观点,根据提示内容进行写作,适当添加细节,并突出写作重点。 [写作步骤] 第一步,表明自己的选择——和陪护机器人待在一起; 第二步,从陪护机器人的优点出发,阐述自己这种选择的理由; 第三步,书写结语。 [亮点词汇] ①agree to do 同意做某事 ②have problems with 某方面有困难 ③keep doing 坚持做某事 [高分句型] ①When I have problems with my schoolwork, it will help me to solve the problems. (when引导时间状语从句) ②In a word, it will be a great idea for me to stay with a companion robot if my parents are not at home. (if引导条件状语从句,“主将从现”原则) 试卷第1页,共3页 试卷第1页,共3页 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$2025年中考临考押题卷(浙江专用) 英语·答题卡 姓名: 准考证号 条 码 粘 贴 处 缺考标记 注意事项 (_ 1. 答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚 考生禁止填涂 请将准考证条码粘贴在右但帕列条码粘贴处的方框内。 缺考标记!只能 3. 选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂:非选择题必须用0.5毫来黑色字迹的签字笔填写,字体工整 。 由监考老师负 请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答,超出范围的答案无效,在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 责用黑色字迹 保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。 的签字笔填 填涂样例。 正确 []错误[--lIV][×] 选择题(请用2B铅笔填涂 1.[A1IB][C]1D1 6.[A]1B11C11D] 11.[A]1B][C11D] 2.[A]IB][C][D] 71A]IB1|C1ID] 12.|A][B][C][D] 3.[A1IB]|C11D1 8.[A][B]1C1ID] 13.[A]1B]|C][D] 4.[A][B]|C]ID 9.[A]IB11C1ID] 14.[A][B]IC][D] 5.[A][B][C1[D1 10.[A]1B1[C1[D] 15.[A][B][C][D] 16.[A]1B1IC1[D] 21.[A][B]|C1[D] 26.[A][B][C][D] 31.[A][B][C][D]IE 17.[A]|B][C][D] 22.[A]|B1IC11D] 27.[A][B][C][D] 32.[A][B]|C]ID]IE 18.[A1IB1IC]1D] 23.[A]1B1IC11D] 28.[A11B]|C1[D] 33.[A][B1|C]IDlIE 19.[A][B][C][D] 24.[A][B][C][D] 29.[A][B][C][D] 34.[A][B][C]|D]IE 20.[A11B1IC1ID] 25.[A11B11C1[D] 30.[A][B]|C][D] 36.[A][B][C][D] 41.[A][B]|C][D] 46.[A][B][C][D] 42.[A][B]1C11D] 37.[A]|B][C]ID] 47.[A]IB]IC]ID] 43.[A][B]IC]ID] 38.[A][B][C][D] 48.[A][B][C][D] 44.[A]IB][C11D] 39.[A][B][C1[D] 49.[A][B][C][D] 45.[A]1B]IC]ID] 40.[A][B][C][D] 50.[A]1B]IC]ID] 英语答题卡第1页(共2页) 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! 三、任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分) 35. 第二节词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分) A.根据语境,从方框中选择恰当的单词,并使用其正确形式填空,使句子意思完整、通顺。 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 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