2025届江西省华大新高考联盟高三下学期名校高考预测卷（三模） 英语试题

华大新高考联盟2025年名校高考预测卷 英语 命(审)题单位：西北工大附中 郑州外国语学校 湖南师大附中 湖北省武昌实验中学 山西大学附中 江西师大附中 合肥一中 重庆八中 华中师范大学考试研究院 本试卷共四部分，共12页。满分150分。考试时间120分钟。 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £19. 15. B. £9. 18. C. £9. 15. 答案是C。 1. What is the man looking for? A. A birthday cake. B. A scarf for himself. C. A gift for his mom. 2. What will the speakers do this weekend? A. See a movie. B. Walk on the beach. C. Fly kites in the park. 3. What is the woman’s plan for the weekend? A. Relaxing at home. B. Catching up on work. C. Visiting her grandparents. 4. What will the man probably do? A. Draw pictures. B. Write stories. C. Play sports. 5. What does the man probably do? A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A salesman. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. When will the woman go to the movies? A. At 6 p. m. B. At 7 p. m. C. At 9 p. m. 7. How will the woman buy the tickets? A. By calling cinema’s staff. B. By going to the cinema. C. By visiting the cinema’s website. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What does Tim remind Lisa to bring for the trip? A. Drinks. B. An umbrella. C. Snacks. 9. What did Tim do last night? A. He watched TV. B. He played games. C. He finished his homework. 10. What is Lisa most excited to see at the museum? A. Statues. B. Paintings. C. Handicrafts. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. What was the man’s childhood like? A. Peaceful and adventurous. B. Busy and colorful. C. Challenging and complex. 12. Where did the man attend university? A. In Greenfield. B. In London. C. In a nearby town. 13. Why does the man frequently return to his hometown? A. To meet his friends. B. To stay with his mother. C. To maintain his family’s old house. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the relationship between the two speakers? A. School friends. B. Boss and secretary. C. Salesman and customer. 15. What are the speakers trying to decide? A. Where to park downtown. B. How to repair an old bike. C. Whether to buy a bike online. 16. How much does the online bike cost? A. $100. B. $120. C. $150. 17. What does the woman focus on about the online bike? A. Its size and fit. B. Its high price. C. Its misleading photos. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What is a common misunderstanding about the garden? A. It uses lamps. B. It sells drinks. C. It only grows flowers. 19. What can visitors do on the tour? A. Taste fresh snacks. B. Catch fish by the lake. C. Bring their own drinks. 20. What is the main topic of the talk? A. A guide to local farming. B. A tour of the new garden. C. A lesson on catching birds. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A On March 22, 2025, millions of people worldwide celebrated Earth Hour. The annual event encouraged individuals and businesses to turn off their lights for one hour, from 8: 30 to 9: 30 p.m. local time. This symbolic act serves as a reminder of the urgent need to protect our planet from climate change and environmental damage. The Origin of Earth Hour Earth Hour began in Sydney, Australia, 18 years ago. On March 31, 2007, the Australian chapter of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) asked the city’s residents and businesses to switch off all lights for an hour. Over two million households and 2,100 enterprises took part. Even landmarks like the Sydney Opera House and the Sydney Harbour Bridge went dark. This small action resulted in a 10 percent reduction in electricity use during a typical evening hour in Sydney. The first event’s success got the world’s attention. By 2009, nearly 4,000 cities worldwide had joined the initiative. Today, Earth Hour is the world’s largest grassroots environmental movement. It is observed in over 180 countries and territories. Earth Hour has sparked real environmental initiatives globally. It has helped establish a marine sanctuary (保护区) in Argentina and an Earth Hour forest in Uganda. In French Polynesia, the movement inspired the creation of the Managed Marine Area to protect marine ecosystems. Participation Joining Earth Hour is easy. Simply turn off non-essential lights and electrical appliances for one hour. Use the time to enjoy a candlelight dinner with family and friends or plan a picnic under the stars. For an extended experience, go camping and make it an “Earth Night”. Beyond Earth Hour Earth Hour is a reminder that small daily habits can lead to meaningful changes. Let us all do our part in saving the only home we have. 1. What probably contributes to Earth Hour’s growth? A. Business financing. B. Landmark promotion. C. Government support. D. Sydney’s initial success. 2. What is the main goal of Earth Hour? A. To promote tourism in Sydney. B. To support business development. C. To encourage energy conservation. D. To celebrate technological advancements. 3. What can be inferred about Earth Hour today? A. It’s centered on Sydney’s local events. B. It is a widely recognized movement. C It’s required in over 180 countries. D. Its influence has declined over time. B Joss Naylor, known as the “Iron Man” of fell running, was born in 1936 in Wasdale Head, Cumbria. Fell running is a sport of off-trail mountain racing, and Naylor became a symbol of endurance and determination. As a sheep farmer by profession, he became famous for his remarkable physical abilities. In 1971, Naylor became the sixth person to complete the Bob Graham Round, a 24-hour challenge covering 66 miles and 42 peaks in the Lake District. He did better than expected by climbing 61 peaks in just 23 hours and 37 minutes. The following year, he tackled 63 peaks, and in 1975, he reached 72 peaks, all under 24 hours. At age 50 in 1986, he completed the Wainwright Round, which involved climbing 214 peaks in seven days, setting a record that stood until 2014. Naylor’s feats were even more impressive considering the physical challenges he faced. Growing up on a farm, he suffered many injuries, starting with a punishment from his mother. At age 19, he had all the cartilage (软骨) removed from one knee, and by 22, he had two discs (椎间盘) removed. Doctors told him to avoid hard exercise and even gave him a special underwear to wear, which he ignored. Instead, he returned to his work as a sheep farmer. In the 1960 Wasdale Fell Race, Naylor hadn’t officially entered but joined in wearing his work boots. He quickly took the lead but fell down because of cramps (肌肉抽筋), finishing last. Despite this, he kept racing, improving with each race. In 1971, after completing the Bob Graham Round, he set a new record in the National Three Peaks Challenge, climbing the highest peaks in England, Scotland and Wales within 12 hours, a record that still stands. Naylor faced countless injuries over the years, including losing all his toenails and skin on his feet during a two-day race in 1976. He even lost a race in 1970 after being kicked by a cow. However, no amount of pain, whether from injuries or animals, could stop him. His reputation grew, and in June 2024, hundreds of fell runners honored him by running eight miles up the valley near his home to his funeral. 4. What can we conclude about Naylor’s early life? A He was very good at school sports. B. He faced frequent physical injuries. C. He lacked proper running equipment. D. He struggled with farm responsibilities. 5. What can be inferred about Joss Naylor’s personality? A. He worried a lot about injuries. B. He gave up easily when he failed. C. He stayed strong and kept going. D. He thought little of tough exercises. 6. Why did Naylor’s physical achievements seem extraordinary? A. He competed in several countries. B. He achieved records despite injuries. C. He improved alternative medical treatments. D. He was the first to attempt the challenges. 7. What does the 2024 funeral event imply about Naylor? A. He lived far away from his community. B. He pursued recognition from the public. C. He continued competing until his last days. D. He earned runners’ respect and admiration. C A growing number of companies are building humanoid robots, and these mechanical look-alikes are starting to appear in car factories and delivery places. Some businesses even promise robots for home use. Yet one big question still has no answer: Why bother? Why make a robot in a human shape when it could take any imaginable form? The usual answer is that humanoid robots could, in principle, handle any physical jobs a person can. But that “in principle” is doing a lot of heavy lifting. If you’ve watched videos of these robots, you’ll get it — they’re often clumsy, awkward machines. Sure, the technology helping them stand and move has come a long way, but they’re still not as quick or graceful as humans. Meanwhile, robots built for a single job — like an arm shifting goods between conveyor belts (传送带) — are now commonplace. Designed with one purpose, they do it really well, unlike humanoid robots, which aim to do everything but often master nothing. Another argument is that a human shape makes it easier for people to work with or control robots. This holds some water, especially since many of these machines still need skilled human operators. Companies often avoid admitting this, calling it a short-term phase, but the dream of fully independent, AI-powered humanoid robots — ones that match or beat human workers — remains a long shot. For now, what we’ve got are human-shaped shells guided by people behind the scenes. When Elon Musk introduced Tesla’s Optimus robot in 2021, he proudly claimed it could teach, babysit, walk dogs, fetch groceries, or pour drinks. Yet those robots weren’t AI-driven, and each was controlled by a hidden human. Notice a pattern? These tasks—low-wage, service-oriented jobs — suggest that, for now, humanoid robots just mask human effort with a shiny surface. Some remote-controlled robots serve real purposes, like in deep-sea exploration. But those machines aren’t shaped like humans — they look like capsules or small vehicles, and they work just fine. The idea that robots must be human-shaped is a failure of imagination. Yes, humanoid robots look impressive. They remind us of the fantasies in science fictions where machines handle all difficult tasks. But today, they are mostly marketing tools, masking human labor. And a robot that doesn’t truly improve life is missing the point. 8. What does the underlined phrase “holds some water” mean in paragraph 3? A. Provides sufficient evidence. B. Makes much sense. C. Is partly reasonable. D. Is widely accepted. 9. Why does the author mention Tesla’s Optimus robot? A. To prove humanoid robots are better. B. To highlight its impressive technology. C. To show it can replace human workers. D. To suggest it is in the charge of humans. 10. What is the author’s attitude toward humanoid robots? A. Skeptical. B. Optimistic. C. Neutral. D. Cautious. 11. What is the best title for the passage? A. When Humanoid Robots Miss Potential B. How Humanoid Robots Miss Goals C. What Humanoid Robots Lack Now D. Why Humanoid Robots Fall Short D Much has been discussed about how modern lifestyles lead to insufficient sleep, unlike our ancestors who lived in simpler times. However, an analysis of 54 global sleep studies reveals that individuals in small, non-industrial societies actually sleep less than those in more industrialized regions. “Everyone I speak to in Canada and the US complains about poor sleep,” says Leela McKinnon from the University of Toronto Mississauga. “But the data doesn’t support that. ” It is commonly believed that the rise of devices like smartphones has resulted in reduced sleep — often referred to as a sleep-loss epidemic. Yet, many studies reporting a decline in sleep duration rely on self-reported data, which is an unreliable measure. Research using more reliable methods, such as activity monitors or brainwave tracking, has not indicated a decrease in sleep over recent decades. For instance, a 2016 review of 168 studies found no significant drop in sleep duration over the past 50 years. However, these studies primarily focused on industrialized nations, leaving the question of whether sleep patterns were different before industrialization unanswered. The availability of wrist-based activity monitors made it easier to study sleep in non-industrial societies. Such studies have revealed short sleep durations. For instance, among hunter-gatherers, the San peoples in southern Africa sleep for 6.7 hours a night on average. McKinnon and her colleague David Samson, also from the University of Toronto Mississauga, have participated in several relevant studies. They compared sleep habits in industrialized nations — like the US and Australia — with those in smaller, non-industrial communities, including local groups in the Amazon, Madagascar, and Tanna Island in the Pacific. Their analysis, the most comprehensive to date, involved direct measurements of sleep in 866participants aged 18 and older with no serious health issues. They discovered that individuals in non-industrial societies averaged 6. 4 hours of sleep, while those in industrial societies averaged 7. 1 hours. Additionally, people in non-industrial societies were asleep for 74% of their time in bed, compared to 88%in industrialized areas, a concept known as sleep efficiency. Samson believes that people in industrialized societies sleep longer and better because their environment is more suitable for sleep. “We see that we’ve made some real gains in the safety and security of our sleep sites,” he says. “We no longer need to worry about rival groups or predators at night.” 12. What does Leela McKinnon think of sleep complaints? A. They are unique to Canada. B. They are supported by data. C. They are overstated by people. D. They are caused by smartphones. 13. Why do people in industrial societies sleep better? A. They sleep less but feel better. B. Their sleep technology is advanced. C. They are more used to short sleep. D. Their sleep environments are safer. 14. What is the passage mainly about? A Non-industrial societies sleep better. B. Technology greatly reduces sleep time. C. Industrialization worsens sleep quality. D. Research challenges beliefs about sleep. 15. Where is this passage most likely from? A. A health guide. B. A history book. C. A science journal. D. A travel magazine. 第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Many of us start a “health kick” or “organization drive”, seeking to change all our behaviors at once. ___16___ A typical reason why New Year’s resolutions don’t work is that people try to change too many things at once. Changing even a small habit requires time and effort, and trying to change several things at once often results in failure. Taking one step at a time may involve breaking a habit into smaller parts and addressing each part individually. ___17___ Starting small can be effective; for example, if you want to drink more water, begin with one glass daily at the same time. After a few days, gradually increase your intake instead of attempting to drink eight glasses right away. ___18___ Instead of trying to reinvent yourself, focus on adjusting the aspects you’re unhappy with. Aiming for “good enough” in your habits boosts your chances of success, while striving for “perfect” can lead to failure. For instance, giving up cigarettes might be achievable, but expecting to cut out all treats, drink three liters of water daily, and go to the gym five times a week is unrealistic. Include small rewards into your plan for achieving milestones. This could include a treat (not chocolate if you’re trying to lose weight), a small gift, or time spent enjoying a movie or a hot bath. ___19___ Finally, seek support from trusted individuals and replace bad habits with better ones. ___20___ By focusing on gradual changes and realistic goals, you can improve your chances of long-term success. A. Invite support. B. Be realistic about your goals. C. However, this rarely leads to success. D. Find ways to remind yourself why you are doing this. E. Celebrate your achievements, but avoid self-criticism. F. It’s essential to create a clear plan outlining what you will do and when. G. Finding alternative activities can make it easier to break unwanted behaviors. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Brian Phoenix was a 71-year-old DJ with forty years of experience. He has recently gained unexpected ___21___ after a TikTok video of him using CDs at a wedding went viral. The video, shared by Miranda Dolph, showed him ___22___ tracks from his massive CD collection, contrasting modern playlist-driven weddings. Dolph’s post, which was viewed over 9 million times, called Phoenix the ___23___ old DJ. And Phoenix, amazed by how people ___24___, joked, “It’s not like I was saving a baby from a burning building. I’m just standing there. So, I find that amazing! ” Phoenix told Good Morning America. “I initially ignored Phoenix’s ___25___ until I saw him digging through his impressive CDs and lining up songs, which ___26___ me. You see, today most DJs just use playlists and computers, and don’t ___27___ go through all the CDs. His devotion inspired viewers,” Dolph ___28___. After the video ___29___, Dolph contacted him, sharing a follow-up message in which Phoenix encouraged everyone not to let society limit them but instead dance to their own ____30____. Phoenix dreamed of being a DJ since childhood. In his sixth grade, friends called his home to order songs, which he was ____31____ to play over the phone. Decades later, he remained ____32____ in his craft, performing weekly at weddings. “Whatever your ____33____ is, don’t let anybody play with it or influence you. Chase your dreams and never ____34____. Go out there and do it for as long as you want, ” Phoenix said, adding that not giving up is a major ingredient to ____35____. 21. A. independence B. insight C. knowledge D. popularity 22. A. learning B. selecting C. copying D. translating 23. A. humblest B. saddest C. cutest D. noblest 24. A. responded B. argued C. wondered D. doubted 25. A. right B. presence C. request D. status 26. A. transported B. alarmed C. froze D. struck 27. A. randomly B. necessarily C. endlessly D. occasionally 28. A. claimed B. analysed C. recalled D. requested 29. A. stretched out B. tracked in C. broke up D. took off 30. A. state B. music C. mood D. addiction 31. A. hesitant B. curious C. clumsy D. happy 32. A. rooted B. valued C. seasoned D. trapped 33. A. memory B. secret C. dream D. inspiration 34. A. grow B. settle C. struggle D. react 35. A. integrity B. honor C. wisdom D. success 第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 On March 2, 2025, the 97th Academy Awards ceremony in the film industry took place at the Dolby Theatre in Los Angeles, ___36___ (host) by comedian Conan O’Brien. Wicked co-stars Ariana Grande and Cynthia Erivo opened the ceremony ___37___ singing songs from the movie. In a historic moment, Flow won the award for best animated feature, making it the first film from Latvia, a small country in northeastern Europe, ___38___ (win) an Oscar. As the first Latvian film chosen for an Academy Award, Flow followed a lone cat working with other animals to survive in a world hit by a ___39___ (mass) flood. The film, told from the cat’s perspective without dialogue, ___40___ (make) on a small budget with a team of about 20 animators. Accepting the Oscar, director and co-writer Gints Zilbalodis said it was the ___41___ (recognize) that would inspire independent animators worldwide. Wicked also shined: the first Black man named Paul Tazewell won the Oscar for best costume designer who received ___42___ long round of clapping and called the award “a very significant honor”, while Nathan Crowley and Lee Sandales secured Best Production Design. Sean Baker ___43___ (complete) dominated the awards, setting a record by winning Best Director, Original Screenplay, and Film Editing for Anora, ___44___ also took Best Picture. Star Mikey Madison earned Best Actress, ____45____ (cap) the grand occasion. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 46. 假定你是李华，就读于一所国际学校，你校为了增加学生课间的运动量，设计了“举手之劳，锻炼的不只是手臂”的标语。请你写一篇英语发言稿，内容包括： 1. 解读标语的含义； 2. 提出你的倡议。 注意： 1. 写作词数应为80个词左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I just finished the amazing four-day Inca Trail hike to Machu Picchu, and drunk on nature, was feeling perfectly confident. The clean Peruvian air still refreshed my lungs and the brain fog caused by my daily phone use hadn’t returned. The bad events that came next started once I turned my phone back on. Responding to a Twitter request for Peru tips, a stranger posted: “Try mountain biking down a volcano in Arequipa! ” Those eight words changed everything. I quickly said goodbye to my biking friend and changed my flight. As someone who loves excitement, the idea seemed too good to miss. I’ve skydived, slid down sand hills, flown with parachutes, and leaped (跳) off New Zealand’s tallest tower. I share this not to boast, but to acknowledge a pattern in my life. Normal life always made me feel dull without regular adventures to make me feel alive. Riding down a volcano sounded like something I couldn’t let pass. I had trouble finding a tour group that would take me alone, which should have been a warning, but I finally managed to find one. I began the two-hour journey up the volcano with my guide and driver. At 4, 200 meters, the volcano towers over the city. As the car moved over rocky bumps (隆起部分), a familiar mix of fear and excitement filled me—the feeling of being truly alive. At the top, I put on the necessities and extra clothes. At first, going down the winding rocky path was wonderful. I sang Life by Des’ree as excitement rushed through me. My guide pointed out three rough shortcuts straight down the slope(斜坡). I said no to the first three as they looked too steep(陡峭的), but finally agreed to the fourth. Suddenly the ground was almost at a 30-degree angle. I stopped singing. Fear shot through me. I yelled loudly. “Good job, Mr. Gary! ” My guide laughed as I made it down a steep part. “Remember, don’t brake on the slope. ” 注意： 1. 续写词数应为150个左右; 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 The bike then went alarmingly fast. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ During my wrist injury recovery, I’ve reconsidered risky activities. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 华大新高考联盟2025年名校高考预测卷 英语 命(审)题单位：西北工大附中 郑州外国语学校 湖南师大附中 湖北省武昌实验中学 山西大学附中 江西师大附中 合肥一中 重庆八中 华中师范大学考试研究院 本试卷共四部分，共12页。满分150分。考试时间120分钟。 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £19. 15. B. £9. 18. C. £9. 15. 答案是C。 1. What is the man looking for? A. A birthday cake. B. A scarf for himself. C. A gift for his mom. 2. What will the speakers do this weekend? A. See a movie. B. Walk on the beach. C. Fly kites in the park. 3. What is the woman’s plan for the weekend? A. Relaxing at home. B. Catching up on work. C. Visiting her grandparents. 4. What will the man probably do? A. Draw pictures. B. Write stories. C. Play sports. 5. What does the man probably do? A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A salesman. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. When will the woman go to the movies? A. At 6 p. m. B. At 7 p. m. C. At 9 p. m. 7. How will the woman buy the tickets? A. By calling cinema’s staff. B. By going to the cinema. C. By visiting the cinema’s website. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What does Tim remind Lisa to bring for the trip? A. Drinks. B. An umbrella. C. Snacks. 9. What did Tim do last night? A. He watched TV. B. He played games. C. He finished his homework. 10. What is Lisa most excited to see at the museum? A. Statues. B. Paintings. C. Handicrafts. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. What was the man’s childhood like? A. Peaceful and adventurous. B. Busy and colorful. C. Challenging and complex. 12 Where did the man attend university? A. In Greenfield. B. In London. C. In a nearby town. 13. Why does the man frequently return to his hometown? A. To meet his friends. B. To stay with his mother. C. To maintain his family’s old house. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the relationship between the two speakers? A. School friends. B. Boss and secretary. C. Salesman and customer. 15. What are the speakers trying to decide? A. Where to park downtown. B. How to repair an old bike. C. Whether to buy a bike online. 16. How much does the online bike cost? A. $100. B. $120. C. $150. 17. What does the woman focus on about the online bike? A. Its size and fit. B. Its high price. C. Its misleading photos. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What is a common misunderstanding about the garden? A. It uses lamps. B. It sells drinks. C. It only grows flowers. 19. What can visitors do on the tour? A. Taste fresh snacks. B. Catch fish by the lake. C. Bring their own drinks. 20. What is the main topic of the talk? A. A guide to local farming. B. A tour of the new garden. C. A lesson on catching birds. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. D 2. C 3. B B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. C 6. B 7. D C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. D 10. A 11. D D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. C 13. D 14. D 15. C 第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. C 17. F 18. B 19. E 20. G 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. B 31. D 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. D 第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. hosted 37. by 38. to win 39. massive 40. was made 41. recognition 42. a 43. completely 44. which 45. capping 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear fellow students, Our school’s slogan, “Raising hands exercises more than arms” carries a deep message. Simple motions during breaks not only strengthen our muscles but also refresh our minds, preparing us for better learning. I strongly support this campaign. Research shows that short physical activities can boost concentration by 20%. Instead of sitting still, let’s stretch and move to recharge. This healthy habit benefits both our studies and future lives. Together, let’s embrace this wisdom: when we lift our arms, we are raising our overall wellbeing. Join me in making break time movement a daily habit! 第二节(满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】 The bike then went alarmingly fast. I grew scared. I held off braking as far as possible. Seeing my guide waving wildly ahead to slow down, I braked hard and slid, dust flying everywhere. My back wheel lifted, throwing me over the handles. The bike landed on me. I felt a terrible pain in my wrist. Defeated, I asked my guide to call a covered vehicle to take me down. And I went to a clinic. My wrist was broken so badly that several months later it still isn’t fully healed. During my wrist injury recovery, I’ve reconsidered risky activities. I now understand that short moments of excitement aren’t worth long recovery times. I’ve stopped dangerous sports like mountain biking and extreme climbing. A doctor recently has found I have attention problems, which explains my past risky choices. The thrill of “live for the moment” fades when you’re in a hospital with a huge bill. While I still enjoy safe adventures like camping, I’ve learned to value my health more than temporary thrills. This experience has changed how I see risk and responsibility. Sometimes planning for tomorrow is better than risking today. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$