2025届河南省开封市等2地高三下学期普通高等学校招生全国统一考试模拟英语试题

2025年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试模拟试题 英语(一) 注意事项： 1.本试卷共12页。时间120分钟，满分150分。答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷指定位置，并将姓名、考场号、座位号、准考证号填写在答题卡上，然后认真核对条形码上的信息，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2.作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。作答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并收回。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C。 1. What does the man suggest doing? A. Buying sunscreen nearby. B. Canceling their beach trip. C. Packing their bags again. 2. When does the woman’s train leave? A. At 6:30 pm. B. At 7:00 pm. C. At 7:30 pm. 3. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a hallway. B. In a café. C. In an office. 4. What caused the event to be canceled? A. Bad weather. B. Poor planning. C. Few volunteers. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Choosing a university. B. Starting a business. C. Making an application. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What’s the probable relationship between Michael and Tommy? A. Classmates. B. Brothers. C. Teacher and student. 7. What does the woman ask the man to do? A. Do housework. B. Fix the laptop. C. Finish a project. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Where did Mark go first? A. A bookstore. B. A grocery store. C. A clothing store. 9. What did Mark originally intend to buy? A. Snacks. B. Fresh fruit. C. A magazine. 10. What did the woman do while waiting for Mark? A. She cooked dinner. B. She watched a movie. C. She read travel updates. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. What is Falcon 9? A. A spacecraft. B. A satellite. C. A rocket. 12. When was Sputnik 1 sent up? A. In 1957. B. In 1977. C. In 2010. 13. How does the man know so much about space? A. He reads a lot about space. B. He’s been working at NASA. C. He often visits space museums. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What club has the man already joined? A. A film club. B. A sports club. C. A book club. 15. How often do the members of the film club meet? A. Once a month. B. Twice a month. C. Three times a month. 16. Which movie is the woman watching now? A. Inception. B. Interstellar. C. The Shawshank Redemption. 17. How does the man feel about the film club? A Surprised. B. Discouraged. C. Interested. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What is the main purpose of the International Day of Charity? A. To honor Mother Teresa. B. To address global poverty. C. To celebrate the UN’s work. 19. Why was September 5 chosen as the International Day of Charity? A. It is a global holiday. B. It honors Teresa’s death. C. It is a UN founding date. 20. What did Mother Teresa achieve in 1979? A. She won a great prize. B. She started a charity. C. She helped the UN. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Planning to travel through Heathrow Airport in London? Here’s what you need to know. Boarding Pass All passengers must have a valid (有效的) boarding pass before entering the boarding area. For assistance, visit the information desks or call +44(0)344335 1802. Staff can help with seat distributions, gate numbers, and other inquiries. Flight Schedules Heathrow makes every effort to keep flights on time, but delays may occur due to weather, air traffic, or technical issues. Connections between flights are not guaranteed. Plan extra time if you have a tight schedule. Lost Property If you lose an item, call the Lost Property Office at +44(0)20 8745 6789(open Monday to Friday,9:00 am-5:00 pm), which is in Terminal(航站楼)3. Special Dates On public holidays, a modified Sunday schedule is usually in place. During major events like London Fashion Week, extra flights are added. For Christmas Day and other special schedules, check the official website or call +44(0)344335 1801. Accessible Services Heathrow is fully accessible, with ramps (活动梯) and lifts for wheelchair users. For mobility assistance, such as moving through terminals or boarding, call +44(0)20 8745 6790. Domestic Flight Schedule Departure Time Departure Terminal Destination Arrival Time 06:30 am Terminal 5 Edinburgh Airport 08:00 am 07:15 am Terminal 5 Glasgow Airport 08:45 am 08:00 am Terminal 5 Manchester Airport 09:30 am 09:30 am Terminal 5 Belfast International Airport 10:45 am 11:00 am Terminal 5 Edinburgh Airport 12:30 pm 12:45 pm Terminal 5 Glasgow Airport 02:15 pm 02:00 pm Terminal 5 Manchester Airport 03:30 pm 03:30 pm Terminal 5 Belfast International Airport 04:45 pm 05:00 pm Terminal 5 Edinburgh Airport 06:30 pm 06:15 pm Terminal 5 Glasgow Airport 07:45 pm 07:30 pm Terminal 5 Manchester Airport 09:00 pm 08:45 pm Terminal 5 Belfast International Airport 10:00 pm 1. What can passengers do for their seating needs? A. Plan extra time for connections. B. Go to the information desks. C. Visit the Lost Property Office. D. Avoid traveling on public holidays. 2 Which number should passengers call for issues on public holidays? A. +44(0)20 8745 6789. B. +44(0)344 335 1801. C. +44(0)20 8745 6790. D. +44(0)344 335 1802. 3. What can we learn from Domestic Flight Schedule? A. The flight to Glasgow takes 90 minutes. B. There’s a flight to Manchester each hour. C. Edinburgh-bound flights leave twice daily. D. The earliest flight to Belfast is at 10:45 am. B In 2019, I had a great life on paper: a stable job, boyfriend, and a basement apartment in Washington, DC. But I wanted more. At age 30, I chose to be a digital nomad (游民), sold everything, and bought a one-way ticket to Bali to travel. I couldn’t imagine my future without it. After Bali, I went to Southeast Asia through Java, then Singapore. I met my mom in Malaysia and went with her to Angkor Wat in Cambodia. Then I continued alone to Thailand and Vietnam. I learned to dive in Koh Lanta, saw the largest Buddhist temple in the world at sunrise in central Java, and did a six-day motorcycle trip through Hà Giang. After Vietnam, I had to spend the next couple of years back and forth to the US. In 2022 came my Latin America travels: Puerto Rico, Colombia, Brazil, Costa Rica, Ecuador, Peru, Mexico, and Guatemala. I went paragliding in Bogotá, hiked Guatemala’s Acatenango to watch the erupting Fuego Volcano, and celebrated Día de los Muertos in Oaxaca. Being a bilingual (双语) Latina, I felt at home and easily connected with locals. After that, I found a cheap flight from Mexico City to Rome. I finally got why everyone loves the food, people, and lifestyle in Italy. In addition to Italy, I went to Greece, Spain, France, Albania, and Romania. I celebrated my 35th birthday with friends who flew from all over the world to sail with me in Paros. Some people feel it’s difficult to befriend Europeans as an outsider. But I largely found people who were warm, kind, happy to help, and patient with me practicing their language. In a way, being a digital nomad is my extreme solution to work-life balance. I’ve had more once-in-a-lifetime experiences in the last five years than I would have in a lifetime if I’d stayed at my 9-to-5 in DC. With great excitement, I am anticipating seeing who I’ll meet and what I’ll learn. 4. Why did the author decide to give up her stable life? A. She desired to experience the world outside. B. She wanted to escape her job and boyfriend. C. She felt unhappy with her basement apartment. D. She was influenced too much by financial issues. 5. What does the author’s experience in Latin America demonstrate? A. She found the region less adventurous. B. She struggled to adapt to local customs. C. She felt a strong sense of belonging there. D. She kept fighting against language barriers. 6. Which can best describe the author? A. Patient and modest. B. Intelligent and caring. C. Ambitious and adventurous. D. Responsible and creative. 7. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text? A. To encourage others to be digital nomads. B. To share her personal travel experiences. C. To criticize traditional work-life balance. D. To promote specific travel destinations. C Faced with rising concerns about student mental health and school performance, many schools have reached for a seemingly obvious solution: banning phones during school hours. But the first worldwide study of its kind from the University of Birmingham reveals why this approach might mean putting a Band-Aid (创可贴) on a broken arm. Researchers examined 30 English secondary schools to evaluate how different approaches to student phone use impacted mental well-being and other key outcomes. Of the schools studied, 20 had restrictive policies while 10 permitted phone use, which reflected the broader landscape of school phone policies in England, where the vast majority of schools (1,245) had restrictive policies compared to just 96 with permissive approaches. Among the restrictive schools, 16 required phones to be kept turned off in bags during school hours, while 4 had stricter measures like storing phones in lockers, special pouches, or the school office, or banning them from campus entirely. The permissive schools either allowed phone use during specific times like lunch breaks (9 schools) or permitted unrestricted use (1 school). Students at schools with restrictive policies spent about 40 minutes less on their phones and 30 minutes less on social media during school hours compared to students at permissive schools. However, when researchers looked at total daily phone use, including time spent outside school hours and on weekends, they found no significant differences between the two groups. Regardless of their schools’ policy, all students used smartphones an average of 4 to 6 hours per day. This substantial daily usage showed consistent associations with poorer mental health outcomes, reduced sleep quality, less physical activity, and more behavioral issues in the classroom. “This suggests that reducing this time spent on phones is an important focus. But we need to do more than focus on schools alone, and consider phone use within and outside of school, across a whole day and the whole week,” explains lead author Dr. Victoria Goodyear. 8. How does the study find schools’ mobile phone policy? A. It helps heal the mental problem. B. It improves students’ academic studies. C. It’s contradictory to school rules. D. It fails to resolve the concerns at its root. 9. What is paragraph 3 mainly about? A. Schools’ approaches to phone use. B. Phone usage differences in England. C. Impacts of phone use on grades. D. Mental health outcomes of phone use. 10. What did researchers discover about students’ phone use? A. Its policies cut down school phone use. B. Its rules show no total use difference. C. Its patterns remain unchanged. D. Its overuse is a mental health risk. 11. What does Goodyear suggest in the last paragraph? A. Enforcing stricter bans on phone use. B. Limiting phone use in and out of school. C. Focusing on phone use during school hours. D. Encouraging students’ balanced phone habits. D Imagine sitting down with an AI model for a two-hour interview. A friendly voice guides you through a conversation that ranges from your childhood, and your formative memories, to your thoughts on your career. Not long after, a virtual replica (复制品) of you is able to represent your values and preferences with surprising accuracy. That’s now possible, according to a new paper from a team. Led by Joon Sung Park, a Stanford PhD student in computer science, the team gathered 1,052 people who varied by age, gender, race, region, and education. Through interviews with these individuals, the team developed digital agent replicas that mirrored their personalities and behaviors. As a test of how effectively these agents matched the humans they were based on, participants did a series of personality tests, twice each, two weeks apart; then the agents completed the same exercises. The results were 85% similar. In the paper the replicas are called simulation (模拟) agents, and the impetus for creating them is to make it easier for researchers in social sciences and other fields to conduct studies that would be expensive, impractical, or unethical to do with real human subjects. If you can create AI models that behave like real people, the thinking goes, you can use them to test everything from how well interventions on social media prevent misinformation to what behaviors cause traffic jams. However, just as image generation technology has made it easy to create harmful deepfakes (深度伪造) of people without their permission, any agent generation technology raises questions about the ease with which people can build tools to personify others online, saying or authorizing things they didn’t intend to say. Besides, the evaluation methods the team used to test how well the AI agents replicated their corresponding humans were also fairly basic. These included the General Social Survey and assessments of the Big Five Personality Traits, which are commonly used in social science research. The AI agents were also worse at replicating the humans in behavioral tests like interpreting how participants consider values such as fairness. 12. Why were the participants required to do the personality tests? A. To improve the interview process with AI. B. To evaluate the diversity of the participants. C. To measure the accuracy of the AI replicas. D. To conduct social experiments more efficiently. 13. What does the underlined word “impetus” in paragraph 3 mean? A. Challenge. B. Platform. C. Medium. D. Motivation. 14. What is the author’s view on AI replicas? A. They have limitations. B. They perfectly copy humans. C. They’re worse than deepfakes. D. They replace human subjects. 15. What’s the best title for the text? A. AI Replicas: Impacts for Social Research B. AI Replicas: Changing the Ways of Research C. AI Replicas: Potential Applications and Concerns D. AI Replicas: Accuracy in Mirroring Individual Traits 第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Heritage (遗产) railways are often referred to as preserved railways. Now, these railways are typically operated by volunteers and enthusiasts. They are considered living museums. ____16____ One of them is their role in preserving industrial heritage. Railways were crucial in the industrial revolution. They facilitated the movement of goods and people. In turn, they drove economic growth and societal change. ____17____ They showcase the evolution of rail technology, from steam-powered engines to diesel and electric locomotives (机车). They can illustrate the innovation that shaped modern transportation. Heritage railways also hold significant cultural and social value. They bring back memories of a bygone era, reminding visitors of the social fabric that used to center on rail travel. ____18____ They might bring back childhood journeys or family stories. The stations serve as community centers, hosting events and gatherings that develop a sense of belonging and shared heritage. ____19____ They offer hands-on learning experiences for all ages, from school groups studying history and engineering to individuals interested in the mechanics of locomotives. The knowledgeable volunteers who operate these railways provide insights and stories that enrich the learning experience, making history come alive in a way that textbooks cannot. Beyond their historical and cultural significance, heritage railways contribute to local economies. ____20____ Thus, this supports businesses in the surrounding areas. The preservation and operation of these railways also create jobs, both directly and indirectly, stimulating economic activity and helping sustain rural communities. As such, heritage railways deserve our support and appreciation for the invaluable contributions they make to society. A. They hold so many incredible values. B. They preserve local and national heritage. C. Heritage railways often operate on random routes. D. Educationally, heritage railways are invaluable resources. E. For many, these railways represent a link to personal history. F. They attract tourists, who spend money on tickets, and investors. G. They provide a window into the great engineering achievements of past eras. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 An 83-year-old man named Walt Butler lost his home of 60 years in the Eaton Fire that destroyed parts of Altadena, California. Despite losing everything, Butler was determined to rebuild and help his neighbors. “I can’t ____21____ to get my place squared away and help others,” he said ____22____. The fire, one of several in Los Angeles, burned over 14,000 acres, killed 16 people, and destroyed 7,000 structures. Butler narrowly ____23____, saying, “If I didn’t outrun it, it would’ve gotten me.” Butler was ____24____ as “the heart and soul of Altadena and Pasadena” for his ____25____ to the community over the years. He coached track and field at Pasadena City College, which led to ____26____ in three state championships. He helped homeless kids and seniors ____27____ and ran a sporting goods store, where he ____28____ shoes to those in need. “When I look back to my youth, I can’t help but ____29____ my holey shoes,” he said. After his ____30____ was shared on social media, a fundraising program for him ____31____ over $900,000. Butler was moved to tears by the ____32____ and planned to use the money to rebuild his community and continue his ____33____ cause. “I lost everything, but I still have my health and my life,” he said with a smile. “I’ll ____34____ the path that guides me to help others.” His ____35____ has inspired many, showing the power of community and hope. 21. A. afford B. wait C. manage D. expect 22. A. quickly B. casually C. firmly D. eventually 23. A. arrived B. returned C. escaped D. hid 24. A. simple B. careful C. different D. famous 25. A. commitment B. adjustments C. limitations D. opposition 26. A. trends B. victories C. bonuses D. challenges 27. A. at last B. in case C. as well D. by chance 28. A. gave away B. put aside C. brought up D. took out 29. A. ignore B. repair C. admire D. picture 30. A. idea B. story C. impression D. task 31. A. withdrew B. donated C. raised D. spent 32. A. attention B. support C. payment D. permission 33. A. painful B. peaceful C. stressful D. meaningful 34. A. change B. predict C. design D. follow 35. A. positivity B. chance C. demand D. habit 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Xin Ming Zhu Ⅲ, a high-speed carbon fiber passenger ferry (渡轮) with a seating capacity of 500, has been officially delivered in Hong Kong on December 31,2024, ____36____ (make) it a milestone in China’s maritime (海事) innovation. The ferry is currently the largest carbon fiber vessel (船舶) in China in terms of passenger capacity. This vessel is a carbon fiber, ____37____ (conventional) powered, high-speed passenger ferry featuring an advanced lightweight design, measuring 44.75 meters in ____38____ (long) and 11 meters in width. On November 4, 2024, the ship ____39____ (launch) for the first time in Nansha, Guangzhou. It has established a standard for ____40____ (sustain) and ecofriendly advancements in the maritime transport sector of the Guangdong-Hong Kong-Macao Greater Bay Area. Carbon fiber materials provide superior advantages ____41____ (compare) with metals. Different from traditional ships, the carbon fiber vessel produces lower noise during operation, further saves fuel, reduces maintenance costs, ____42____ delivers substantial environmental benefits through reduced emissions and a lower carbon footprint. Passenger ferries play ____43____ crucial role in transportation for residents and tourists in Hong Kong. Taking Cheung Chau as an example, ferries are the primary means ____44____ (travel) to and from the island for more than 30,000 residents. . The daily passenger volume, on the Central — Cheung Chau route can reach up to 70,000 people during events. The ferries _____45_____ are operated by Sun Ferry Services Company Limited serve approximately 12 million passengers annually, reported the Nanfang Daily. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 46. 假定你是李华，你的美术作品在学校第21届艺术节作品展中获得了一等奖。请给你的新西兰笔友Peter写一封邮件，内容包括： 1.介绍作品; 2.你的心得。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80个左右; 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Peter, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 On a hot August day in 1972, Jacob, a 24-year-old firefighter, responded to a fire in a downtown Chicago apartment building. He and his crew were about to leave when a woman ran to them, screaming crazily, “My baby, where is my Kris?” The woman who lived in Apartment 529 explained that she’d left her 7-year-old son, Kris, alone for just a few minutes when she went down the street for some groceries. Jacob realized Kris was trapped in the fire. Against all odds, Jacob rushed back into the building. The heat was unbearable, but he pressed on. In Apartment 529, he found Kris unconscious (无意识的) on the floor. Jacob grabbed the boy and barely escaped as the building collapsed behind them. The crowd cheered as Jacob emerged, Kris alive in his arms. A few days later, Kris and his mother, Maria, visited Jacob at the fire station. Maria, tears streaming down her face, hugged Jacob tightly. “You gave me back my son,” she said. “We’ll never forget what you did.” Kris handed Jacob a handmade card that read, “Thank you for saving me.” From that day on, Kris began visiting Jacob weekly. He brought Jacob small gifts — homemade cookies, a candy bar, or a drawing. As the years passed, Kris grew into a young man. He worked as a teacher. Every year, without fail, they met to watch a baseball game, a tradition that kept their friendship alive. Jacob, now married with children of his own, often reflected on how Kris had become like family. Unfortunately, Jacob suffered end-stage kidney (肾) failure at 43. With no brothers or sisters and his wife the wrong blood type, Jacob was forced to depend on a donor kidney. Just when he needed it most, none were available. He really didn’t know where to turn. That’s when he got Kris’s call for their yearly baseball game. Learning of his condition accidentally, Kris asked him what his blood type was. 注意： 1.续写词数应为150个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Within an hour, Kris was at Jacob’s doorstep. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Fortunately, medical tests confirmed Kris was a perfect match. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试模拟试题 英语(一) 注意事项： 1.本试卷共12页。时间120分钟，满分150分。答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷指定位置，并将姓名、考场号、座位号、准考证号填写在答题卡上，然后认真核对条形码上的信息，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2.作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。作答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并收回。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C。 1. What does the man suggest doing? A. Buying sunscreen nearby. B. Canceling their beach trip. C. Packing their bags again. 2. When does the woman’s train leave? A. At 6:30 pm. B. At 7:00 pm. C. At 7:30 pm. 3. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a hallway. B. In a café. C. In an office. 4. What caused the event to be canceled? A Bad weather. B. Poor planning. C. Few volunteers. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Choosing a university. B. Starting a business. C. Making an application. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What’s the probable relationship between Michael and Tommy? A. Classmates. B. Brothers. C. Teacher and student. 7. What does the woman ask the man to do? A. Do housework. B. Fix the laptop. C. Finish a project. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Where did Mark go first? A. A bookstore. B. A grocery store. C. A clothing store. 9. What did Mark originally intend to buy? A. Snacks. B. Fresh fruit. C. A magazine. 10. What did the woman do while waiting for Mark? A. She cooked dinner. B. She watched a movie. C. She read travel updates. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. What is Falcon 9? A. A spacecraft. B. A satellite. C. A rocket. 12. When was Sputnik 1 sent up? A. In 1957. B. In 1977. C. In 2010. 13. How does the man know so much about space? A. He reads a lot about space. B He’s been working at NASA. C. He often visits space museums. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What club has the man already joined? A. A film club. B. A sports club. C. A book club. 15. How often do the members of the film club meet? A. Once a month. B. Twice a month. C. Three times a month. 16. Which movie is the woman watching now? A. Inception. B. Interstellar. C. The Shawshank Redemption. 17. How does the man feel about the film club? A. Surprised. B. Discouraged. C. Interested. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What is the main purpose of the International Day of Charity? A To honor Mother Teresa. B. To address global poverty. C. To celebrate the UN’s work. 19. Why was September 5 chosen as the International Day of Charity? A. It is a global holiday. B. It honors Teresa’s death. C. It is a UN founding date. 20. What did Mother Teresa achieve in 1979? A. She won a great prize. B. She started a charity. C. She helped the UN. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. B 3. A B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. A 5. C 6. C 7. B C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. A 10. D 11. B D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. C 13. D 14. A 15. C 第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. A 17. G 18. E 19. D 20. F 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. C 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. B 31. C 32. B 33. D 34. D 35. A 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. making 37. conventionally 38. length 39. was launched 40. sustainable 41. compared 42. and 43. a 44. to travel 45. that##which 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear Peter, I’m excited to tell you that I’ve won the first prize in the 21st School Art Festival Exhibition. I painted a campus landscape. In the painting, there are green trees, a beautiful lake with ducks, and students reading on the lawn. The combination of these elements creates a vivid and harmonious scene. Through this painting, I realized that art can capture the beauty around us. It makes me more observant and gives me a new way to express my love for the campus. Yours, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】 Within an hour, Kris was at Jacob’s doorstep. He came to see Jacob with a lifesaving message: “I’m the same blood type as you. You can have one of my kidneys.” Jacob was shocked. “I can’t ask you to do this,” Jacob said. But Kris said that had it not been for Jacob, he’d not have been alive, and he insisted, “You saved my life. Now it’s my turn to save yours.” Jacob heard this, his eyes filled with tears. He hugged Kris tightly, touched by the selflessness of his friend. “You’re like a son to me,” Jacob whispered, his voice trembling with emotion. Fortunately, medical tests confirmed Kris was a perfect match. The operation took place soon. It was a success, and Jacob’s health began to improve. As he recovered, Jacob often said, “Kris didn’t just give me a kidney. He gave me a second chance at life.” Kris knew their bond went far beyond repayment. “Jacob has been there for me my whole life,” Kris said. “This was the least I could do.” The two continued their tradition of watching baseball games together, now with even deeper appreciation for each other. Their story stood as a powerful reminder of the lasting strength of friendship and the deep significance of selfless deeds. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$