七年级下学期期末仿真模拟卷02-2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期期末考点大串讲(鲁教版五四制)

2024-2025学年七年级下学期期末仿真模拟卷02（鲁教版五四制） （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。 3．回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分） 第一节 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1．A．Neither story is interesting. B．This story is more interesting. C．Both of the stories are interesting. 2．A．The woman will make a shopping list. B．The woman will go to the market. C．The woman will pay for the things. 3．A．Her brother feels happy today. B．Her brother isn’t at home today. C．Her brother feels sick today. 4． A．You can ride to the library. B．You can walk to the library. C．You can go to the library by bus. 5．A．The hall is in our classroom. B．The hall is beside our classroom. C．The hall is a long way from our classroom. 第二节 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6．What does David usually have for breakfast? A．Hamburgers. B．Eggs. C．Apples. 7．Which station will they listen to? A．Jazz 107.9 FM. B．Jazz 103.9 FM. C．Jason 107.9 FM. 8．What does Sarah often do in the tree house? A．She often plays games. B．She often reads books. C．She often does homework. 9．Why does Mary like their new apartment? A．Because it has a nice balcony. B．Because it’s close to Mary’s school. C．Because it’s bigger than their old house and the view is nice. 10．What does Jean mean? A．She wants to eat some beef. B．She wants to eat some mutton. C．She wants to eat some fish. 第三节 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11．What does Miss Brown teach? A．Music. B．P. E. C．Maths. 12．Is Miss Brown tall or short? A．She is tall. B．She is short. C．She isn’t tall or short. 13．What color is Miss Brown’s hair? It’s __________. A．Black B．brown C．black and brown 14．Is the P. E.teacher tall or short? A．Yes, he is tall. B．He is tall. C．He is short. 15．Who plays basketball well? A．Miss Brown. B．The tall man. C．The short man. 第四节 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16．What does Tom like doing? A．Collecting fans. B．Collecting stamps. C．Collecting coins. 17．How often does Li Ming play table tennis? A．Twice a week. B．Twice a day. C．Every day. 18．Who taught Li Ming to do sports ? A．His brother. B．His father. C．His mother. 19．How long does Li Ming spend on music every day? A．Twenty minutes. B．Thirty minutes. C．Sixty minutes. 20．What does Li Ming think of hobbies? A．Hobbies can bring us happiness. B．Hobbies are interesting and important. C．We’d better not spend all our time on hobbies. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） A Gardening (园艺) is popular in many parts of the world. It brings us beautiful flowers, fresh fruit and vegetables. But you can get more from your garden. Gardening helps to keep healthy. Today’s people sit indoors for too long and don’t get much exercise. When you garden, you have to move around. It’s a good chance for you to exercise your body by watering flowers or doing some digging (挖土) . Besides, when you are in your garden, you can feel the warm sunshine. This means you are getting Vitamin D．It helps your bodies use calcium (钙) , and it keeps your bones (骨骼) strong. ▲ It gets them off the computer, TV and phone. Gardening can be a great teacher to teach children about nature and healthy eating. It can also help them to understand the meaning of “No pains, no gains”. Gardening is a great way to meet people and build friendships. When you are gardening, you are outdoors. So it is a perfect time to talk with your neighbors. Most people love to talk about their hobbies, and so do gardeners. They usually enjoy showing people what they are growing. And most enjoy sharing advice and stories about their gardens. 21．When it’s_________, you can get Vitamin D in your garden. A．sunny B．cloudy C．snowy D．rainy 22．According to the passage, _________ is one of the gardening activities. A．watching TV B．playing with phones C．walking dogs D．watering flowers 23．Which of the following can be the best for ▲ in Paragraph 3? A．Gardening will be good for your bones. B．Gardening may help people to feel happy. C．Gardening is a great activity to do with children. D．Gardening can be a good way to meet neighbors. 24．Which is the best title of the passage? A．Keep Healthy B．Enjoy Gardening C．Outdoor Activities D．Friendships with Neighbors 25．What is the structure (结构) of the passage? A． B． C． D． B You can find caffeine in many common drinks like coffee, tea, cola, iced tea, and energy drinks. Caffeine makes you feel more awake and gives you a short quick feeling of energy. However, it also makes your heart beat faster. Many children enjoy drinking cola, but drinking too much can lead to problems. When you take in (摄入) too much caffeine in one day, you might: feel nervous, worried, or unhappy; get an upset stomach or headache; have trouble focusing; find it hard to fall asleep at night. Among these drinks, energy drinks have the most caffeine. For example, a can of Red Bull has about three times more caffeine than a can of cola. Research shows that: A cola (355ml can) has about 35mg of caffeine. This number is far too much for children. Now that we know the effects of too much caffeine, let’s look at more healthy choices and habits… 26．In which-drink can you find caffeine? A．Milk B．Water C．Juice D．Cola 27．If a child drinks too much coffee, what might happen? A．They might feel worried B．They might feel sleepy C．They might become stronger D．Their focus would be better 28．Paragraph 3 mainly answers the question: ________ A．What does caffeine do? B．Why is too much caffeine bad for you? C．Where can we find caffeine? D．What is caffeine? 29．According to the passage, how much caffeine is in one can of Red Bull? A．About 35 mg B．About 70 mg C．About 105 mg D．About 140 mg 30．What might the writer talk about next? A．The best time to have energy drinks B．Safe ways to drink caffeine C．The history of energy drinks D．Ways to make energy drinks C Scientists say they have had a “conversation” with a humpback whale (座头鲸). The scientists are from the University of California, the Alaska Whale Foundation and the SETI Institute (Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence Institute 搜寻地球外文明研究所). They teamed up and communicated with a humpback whale named Twain. They communicated in “humpback language” for 20 minutes. Their conversation took place after the scientists sent a “contact call” into the ocean off the coast of Alaska. Twain heard the call and responded (回应). She swam to the research boat, circled it and chatted. The SETI Institute said it was the first ever communication between humans and a humpback whale. The scientists said their conversation with Twain was not a deep one. Professor Brenda Mc Cowan said it was more like greetings. Whales use contact calls to let other whales know where they are. The scientists made the same call 36 times over a 20-minute period. Each time, Twain responded by calling back. She even matched the intervals (间隔) between each call that the researchers made, which greatly surprised the scientists. Professor Brenda Mc Cowan told the Business Insider website that this research could make it easier to talk to aliens (外星人). She said, “There are many kinds of intelligent beings on this planet. By studying them, we can better understand what aliens might be like.” Based on this research, scientists may identify calls from space and make first contact with aliens in the future. 31．Where did the “conversation” take place? A．In the SETI Institute. B．In the Alaska Whale Foundation. C．In the ocean off the coast of Alaska. D．In the University of California. 32．Which of the following is TRUE about Twain? A．Twain was in poor health. B．Twain jumped out of the water 36 times. C．Twain responded to the scientist’s call 20 times. D．Twain was so smart that the scientists all felt surprised. 33．What can we learn from the last paragraph? A．Scientists have received calls from space. B．There are few intelligent beings on Earth. C．This research may help humans contact aliens. D．People can talk with other animals in the future. 34．Which question is answered in this passage? A．Why do the scientists want to search for aliens? B．How many scientists took part in the research? C．What will people do to protect humpback whales? D．How did the scientists have a “conversation” with Twain? 35．Where is the passage possibly from? A．A science magazine. B．A health report. C．A storybook. D．A travel guide. D What would you like for lunch? Maybe, a battery (电池)? Although it sounds unusual, some eatable electronic things have been developed by scientists. Robofood, a program led by the Swiss Federal Institute of Technology, has been the pioneer. Together with scientists from Wageningen University, it has made a new drone (无人机). Half of the parts inside can be eaten! The program plans to create robots that can be eaten by mixing food science and robots in a new way. According to the scientists, the wings of the drone were made from rice cakes, oil and chocolate. This drone can find missing people and carry food or medicine necessary to them. However, the main problem is finding stronger eatable materials for the drone’s wings to prepare for bad weather and high temperatures. Robofood also developed an eatable sensor (感应器) to help watch stomach sickness. It’s eaten by the patient to check the conditions inside. Different from other sensors nowadays, it can be broken down (降解) in less than 24 hours. This way, there’s no danger of it leaving anything inside the body. Another invention of Robofood also helps with environmental protection. The world’s first fully eatable batteries can help deal with the growing problem of throwing away used batteries. Some parts of the battery are made of vitamin B₂ and another natural ingredient that can be found in many fruits including apples. So the new battery can be more friendly to the environment. 36．How does the writer start this passage? A．By telling a story. B．By using a saying. C．By asking a question. D．By giving an example. 37．What does Robofood plan to create? A．Amazing drones. B．Eatable robots. C．Useful sensors. D．Natural batteries. 38．What problem does Robofood’s drone have? A．The materials are not fully eatable. B．The materials are not strong enough. C．The drone can easily break during flying. D．The drone cannot take off in bad weather. 39．Compared to other sensors, what can Robofood’s sensors do? A．They can be taken as medicine. B．They can check more carefully. C．They can be safer for human body. D．They can stay in the human body longer. 40．What’s the purpose of writing this article? A．To introduce a new kind of food. B．To tell us how to make eatable robots. C．To introduce the inventions of Robofood. D．To show the importance of environmental protection. 第二节 阅读理解七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Music is everywhere around us. It can bring people together and have a strong influence on our emotions. 41 Here are some amazing facts about music. First, music can help with stress relief. When you’re feeling stressed out, listening to soft and gentle music can calm your nerves. 42 According to a study, people who listened to slow-tempo music had lower blood pressure and a slower heart rate compared to those who didn’t listen to music. Second, it can improve cognitive abilities. 43 For example, learning to play a musical instrument can enhance a child’s memory, attention, and problem-solving skills. Even just listening to music can boost your brainpower. Some students find that listening to classical music while studying helps them focus better. Music also has a social aspect. 44 Concerts and music festivals are great places where people from different backgrounds gather to enjoy their favorite music. It creates a sense of community and shared experience. Moreover, music can be a powerful form of self-expression. Artists use music to convey their feelings, thoughts, and stories. 45 Through music, we can connect with others on a deeper emotional level. A．Many studies have shown that music has a positive impact on the brain. B．When we listen to their music, we can understand their perspectives and emotions. C．It can bring people of all ages and cultures together. D．It is often used in medical treatments to help patients recover faster. E．Whether it’s through singing, playing an instrument, or just listening, music enriches our lives. F．The rhythm and melody can have a soothing effect on our body and mind. G．Different types of music can have different effects on our mood. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A：Hello! May I speak to Jack, please? B： 46 Who’s that? A：Hello, Jack. This is Ann. What are you doing? B： 47 A：Wow, you are so busy. Do you want to play basketball with me? B： 48 It’s too difficult for me. A：What about visiting the zoo? B：That’s good. I like to see animals. 49 And you? A：Me too. They are so smart, and they have beautiful ivory. B：OK. Then how do we go to the zoo? By bike? A： 50 It’s kind of far. B：OK. See you later! 46．A．I’m Jack. B．I’m Jack speaking. C．This is Jack speaking. D．That is Jack. 47．A．I’m doing the dishes. B．He is reading a book. C．She is swimming. D．My mother is cooking. 48．A．Sure, I’d love to. B．Sure, I like playing basketball. C．No, I need to do homework. D．No, I don’t like basketball. 49．A．I like tigers best. B．Elephants are my favorite animals. C．My favorite animal is pandas. D．Koalas are so cute. 50．A．We need to take the bus there. B．We go there by bike. C．We can walk there. D．We meet at your home. 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。 In a big forest, there lives a kind elephant named Luna. She has long ears, a strong trunk, and big eyes. Luna is very smart and always ready to 51 others. One morning, Luna sees a little monkey 52 in a tree. “What’s wrong?” she asks. The monkey says, “I want to get the bananas at the 53 , but I’m afraid to fall.” Luna smiles and uses her trunk to 54 the bananas. The monkey stops crying and thanks her happily and 55 the bananas with her. Near the river, Luna meets a turtle (乌龟) named Toby. Toby wants to cross the river but moves very 56 . “Climb onto my back,” says Luna. She carries Toby across the never safely. Toby says, “You’ re so 57 , Luna!” One day, a heavy rain comes. The forest becomes wet. A baby deer 58 its way and starts to cry. Luna hears the cry and 59 the sound. She finds the baby deer and 60 it back to its family. The mother deer is very thankful. Luna also helps the birds find 61 when it’s snowy. She uses her trunk to find worms (虫子) from the ground. The birds sing loudly to thank her. The animals in the forest all love Luna. They say, “We 62 Luna as our close friend.” Luna says, “We should help each other. That’s what friends do.” Every evening, Luna takes a rest under the big tree. She looks at the stars and feels happy. She knows that being kind makes the forest a 63 place for everyone. Animals are like a big family. They 64 each other and live in peace (和平). Just like Luna, every animal has its own 65 to help others. They make our world more wonderful. 51．A．kill B．catch C．teach D．help 52．A．sitting B．sleeping C．crying D．laughing 53．A．top B．mat C．foot D．middle 54．A．cut B．pick C．eat D．use 55．A．leaves B．talks C．plays D．shares 56．A．quickly B．slowly C．quietly D．noisily 57．A．blind B．lucky C．kind D．poor 58．A．finds B．loses C．gets D．takes 59．A．follows B．goes C．builds D．sees 60．A．carries B．lends C．sells D．forgets 61．A．drinks B．sweets C．food D．vegetables 62．A．save B．treat C．care D．hear 63．A．boring B．dangerous C．happy D．huge 64．A．go with B．look for C．belong to D．look after 65．A．ways B．problems C．looks D．colors 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 There are some apps on my phone, like WeChat, QQ and TikTok. I use 66 (they) quite often. I usually talk with my friends in WeChat. I keep lots of photos and videos in my QQ and I enjoy 67 (watch) short videos or buying things from TikTok. They are really interesting 68 useful. Now, I’d like 69 (tell) you something about another app, Red Note. Red Note 70 (be) also a popular app in China. The users of Red Note are young, and most of them are women. There are more pictures about 71 (day) life. For example, if you want to learn how to cook dish 72 (good), you can choose Red Note. Different people have different 73 (hobby). However, you can find many people with the same ones as you on Red Note. I like the apps a lot and now I am writing 74 article with an app. But I know, it’s bad 75 my eyes if I use the phone for a long time. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76． — ? —Yes, she can play it very well. 77． —How is the weather in Jinan now? — . 78． —How does John get to school? — . 79． —What are you doing now? — . 80． —What time does Tina usually brush her teeth? — . 第二节 写作（满分25分） 81．如今，很多人喜欢在互联网上点餐。老师要求你们在下周一的英语课上就互联网点餐这一现象，谈谈它的利与弊。请你根据写作要求，谈谈你的看法。 Ordering Food Online, Good or Bad? Advantages (优点) 方便 (convenient) 快捷，品种多样，节省时间…… Disadvantages (缺点) 塑料包装袋 (plastic bags) 对环境 (environment) 不利，经常吃外卖食品 (takeaway) 对健康不好…… Your idea …… 写作要求： (1)文中需要包含表格中所提示的全部要点，可适当发挥，书写规范； (2)文中不得出现本人姓名或校名； (3)词数70个左右 (开头已给出，不计入总词数)。 Ordering Food Online, Good or Bad? Nowadays, many people like ordering food online. Is it good or bad? ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2 / 22 1 / 22 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$听力考试正式开始。This story is as interesting as that one. This story is as interesting as that one. Listen to the . next question. Yes, maam is two hundred and thirty UN in all. Yes, madam, it's two hundred and thirty UN in all. Listen to the . next question. Her brother doesn't feel well today. Her brother doesn't feel well today. Listen to the . next question. You can go to the library by a bus instead of riding. You can go to the library by bus instead of riding. Listen to the . next question. The hall is next to our classroom. The hole is next to our classroom. Listen to the next question. What do you usually have for breakfast, David? I don't like hamburgers or eggs. I usually have some apples. Listen to the . next question. Let's listen to jazz one o seven point nine FM is IT the best radio station? Yes, IT plays the most interesting music. Let's listen to jazz one o seven point nine FM is IT the best radio station? Yes, IT plays the most interesting music. Listen to the next question. What's special about your home, Sarah? We have a tree house in the backyard. I often read books there. What's special about your home? Sarah? We have a tree house in the backyard. I often read books that. Listen to the . next question. Do you like our new farm house? Mary. yeah, I like IT very much, is bigger than our old house, and the bee from the balcony is nice. Do you like our new farm house? Mary. yeah, I like you very much. It's bigger than our old house, and the view from the balcony is nice. Listen to the . next question. Would you when jack like some beef for dinner? Gene. oh no, i'd like mutton and jack would like fish. Would you and jack like some beef for dinner? Jane. oh no, i'd like mutton and jack. we'd like fish. Listen to the . next question. Do you like miss Brown? Miss Brown, our new music teacher? I don't know what does SHE look like. He is tall and thin, and he has curly Brown hair. And where's funny round glasses? Well, who's that man with short, straight black hair? The tall man, or the short one? The short one? Oh, he is our P. E. Teacher, mr. john. He is a good basketball player. Don't you like miss Brown? Miss Brown, our new music teacher? I don't know what does SHE look like. He is tall and thin, and he has curly Brown hair. And where's funny round glasses? Well, who's that man with short, straight black hair? The tall man or the short one. the short one. oh, he is our P. E. Teacher, mr. john. He is a good basketball player. Listen to the next question. My name is liming. I have a good friend, tom. He has a large collection of stamps. I like playing table tennis and listening to music in my free time. I play table tennis with my brother. Every wednesday, saturday afternoon, I learned to play IT from my father when I was Young, and he helps me keep IT all the time. Music is my real hobby. I spend half an hour listening to music after I finished my homework. Every day. IT makes me relaxed and happy. I think different people have different hobbies. Hobbies can make us grow as a person, develop our interests and help us learn new skills. Sometimes they can bring us success, but we shouldn't spend all our time on our favorite hobby. My name is liming. I have a good friend, tom. He has a large collection of stamps. I like playing table tennis and listening to music in my free time. I play table tennis with my brother every wednesay saturday afternoon, I learned to play IT from my father when I was Young, and he helps me keep IT all the time. Music is my real hobby. I spend half an hour listening to music after I finished my homework every day. IT makes me relaxed and happy. I think different people have different hobbies. Hobbies can make us grow as a person, develop our interests and help us learn new skills. Sometimes they can bring us success, but we shouldn't spend all our time on our favorite hobby. 听力部分到此结束。 2024-2025学年七年级下学期期末仿真模拟卷02（鲁教版五四制） （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。 3．回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分） 第一节 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1．A．Neither story is interesting. B．This story is more interesting. C．Both of the stories are interesting. 【答案】C 【原文】This story is as interesting as that one. 2．A．The woman will make a shopping list. B．The woman will go to the market. C．The woman will pay for the things. 【答案】C 【原文】Yes, madam. It’s 230 yuan in all. 3．A．Her brother feels happy today. B．Her brother isn’t at home today. C．Her brother feels sick today. 【答案】C 【原文】Her brother doesn’t feel well today. 4． A．You can ride to the library. B．You can walk to the library. C．You can go to the library by bus. 【答案】C 【原文】You can go to the library by bus instead of riding. 5．A．The hall is in our classroom. B．The hall is beside our classroom. C．The hall is a long way from our classroom. 【答案】B 【原文】The hall is next to our classroom. 第二节 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6．What does David usually have for breakfast? A．Hamburgers. B．Eggs. C．Apples. 【答案】C 【原文】A: What do usually have for breakfast, David? B: I don’t like hamburgers or eggs. I usually have some apples. 7．Which station will they listen to? A．Jazz 107.9 FM. B．Jazz 103.9 FM. C．Jason 107.9 FM. 【答案】A 【原文】W: Let’s listen to Jazz 107.9 FM. M: Is it the best radio station? W: Yes, it plays the most interesting music. 8．What does Sarah often do in the tree house? A．She often plays games. B．She often reads books. C．She often does homework. 【答案】B 【原文】M: What’s special about your home, Sarah? W: We have a tree house in the backyard. I often read books there. 9．Why does Mary like their new apartment? A．Because it has a nice balcony. B．Because it’s close to Mary’s school. C．Because it’s bigger than their old house and the view is nice. 【答案】C 【原文】M: Do you like our new farmhouse, Mary? W: Yeah, I like it very much. It’s bigger than our old house and the view from the balcony is nice. 10．What does Jean mean? A．She wants to eat some beef. B．She wants to eat some mutton. C．She wants to eat some fish. 【答案】B 【原文】M: Would you and Jack like some beef for dinner, Jean? W: Oh, no. I’d like mutton, and Jack would like fish. 第三节 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11．What does Miss Brown teach? A．Music. B．P. E. C．Maths. 12．Is Miss Brown tall or short? A．She is tall. B．She is short. C．She isn’t tall or short. 13．What color is Miss Brown’s hair? It’s __________. A．Black B．brown C．black and brown 14．Is the P. E.teacher tall or short? A．Yes, he is tall. B．He is tall. C．He is short. 15．Who plays basketball well? A．Miss Brown. B．The tall man. C．The short man. 【答案】11．A 12．A 13．B 14．C 15．C 【原文】略 第四节 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16．What does Tom like doing? A．Collecting fans. B．Collecting stamps. C．Collecting coins. 17．How often does Li Ming play table tennis? A．Twice a week. B．Twice a day. C．Every day. 18．Who taught Li Ming to do sports ? A．His brother. B．His father. C．His mother. 19．How long does Li Ming spend on music every day? A．Twenty minutes. B．Thirty minutes. C．Sixty minutes. 20．What does Li Ming think of hobbies? A．Hobbies can bring us happiness. B．Hobbies are interesting and important. C．We’d better not spend all our time on hobbies. 【答案】16．B 17．A 18．B 19．B 20．C 【原文】 My name is Li Ming, I have a good friend, Tom. He has a large collection of stamps. I like playing table tennis and listening to music in my free time. I play table tennis with my brother every Wednesday and Saturday afternoon. I learned to play it from my father when I was young. And he helps me keep it all the time. Music is my real hobby. I spend half an hour listening to music after I finish my homework every day. It makes me relaxed and happy. I think different people have different hobbies. Hobbies can make us grow as a person, develop our interests and help us learn new skills. Sometimes they can bring us success. But we shouldn’t spend all our time on our favourite hobbies. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） A Gardening (园艺) is popular in many parts of the world. It brings us beautiful flowers, fresh fruit and vegetables. But you can get more from your garden. Gardening helps to keep healthy. Today’s people sit indoors for too long and don’t get much exercise. When you garden, you have to move around. It’s a good chance for you to exercise your body by watering flowers or doing some digging (挖土) . Besides, when you are in your garden, you can feel the warm sunshine. This means you are getting Vitamin D．It helps your bodies use calcium (钙) , and it keeps your bones (骨骼) strong. ▲ It gets them off the computer, TV and phone. Gardening can be a great teacher to teach children about nature and healthy eating. It can also help them to understand the meaning of “No pains, no gains”. Gardening is a great way to meet people and build friendships. When you are gardening, you are outdoors. So it is a perfect time to talk with your neighbors. Most people love to talk about their hobbies, and so do gardeners. They usually enjoy showing people what they are growing. And most enjoy sharing advice and stories about their gardens. 21．When it’s_________, you can get Vitamin D in your garden. A．sunny B．cloudy C．snowy D．rainy 22．According to the passage, _________ is one of the gardening activities. A．watching TV B．playing with phones C．walking dogs D．watering flowers 23．Which of the following can be the best for ▲ in Paragraph 3? A．Gardening will be good for your bones. B．Gardening may help people to feel happy. C．Gardening is a great activity to do with children. D．Gardening can be a good way to meet neighbors. 24．Which is the best title of the passage? A．Keep Healthy B．Enjoy Gardening C．Outdoor Activities D．Friendships with Neighbors 25．What is the structure (结构) of the passage? A． B． C． D． 【答案】21．A 22．D 23．C 24．B 25．C 【解析】本文主要介绍了做园艺的好处。 21．细节理解题。根据“Besides, when you are in your garden, you can feel the warm sunshine. This means you are getting Vitamin D.”可知，阳光充足的时候在花园里可以获得维生素D。故选A。 22．细节理解题。根据“It’s a good chance for you to exercise your body by watering flowers or doing some digging.”可知，浇花是园艺活动之一。故选D。 23．推理判断题。第三段主要讲述园艺对孩子的好处，C选项“Gardening is a great activity to do with children.”（园艺是一项和孩子们一起做的很棒的活动）符合语境。故选C。 24．最佳标题题。根据全文可知，文章主要介绍了园艺的好处，B选项“Enjoy Gardening”（享受园艺）符合文章主旨。故选B。 25．篇章结构题。文章第一段引出园艺的话题，第二段讲述园艺有助于保持健康，第三段讲述园艺对孩子的好处，第四段讲述园艺可以结交朋友，是总分结构。故选C。 B You can find caffeine in many common drinks like coffee, tea, cola, iced tea, and energy drinks. Caffeine makes you feel more awake and gives you a short quick feeling of energy. However, it also makes your heart beat faster. Many children enjoy drinking cola, but drinking too much can lead to problems. When you take in (摄入) too much caffeine in one day, you might: feel nervous, worried, or unhappy; get an upset stomach or headache; have trouble focusing; find it hard to fall asleep at night. Among these drinks, energy drinks have the most caffeine. For example, a can of Red Bull has about three times more caffeine than a can of cola. Research shows that: A cola (355ml can) has about 35mg of caffeine. This number is far too much for children. Now that we know the effects of too much caffeine, let’s look at more healthy choices and habits… 26．In which-drink can you find caffeine? A．Milk B．Water C．Juice D．Cola 27．If a child drinks too much coffee, what might happen? A．They might feel worried B．They might feel sleepy C．They might become stronger D．Their focus would be better 28．Paragraph 3 mainly answers the question: ________ A．What does caffeine do? B．Why is too much caffeine bad for you? C．Where can we find caffeine? D．What is caffeine? 29．According to the passage, how much caffeine is in one can of Red Bull? A．About 35 mg B．About 70 mg C．About 105 mg D．About 140 mg 30．What might the writer talk about next? A．The best time to have energy drinks B．Safe ways to drink caffeine C．The history of energy drinks D．Ways to make energy drinks 【答案】26．D 27．A 28．B 29．C 30．B 【解析】本文是一篇说明文，介绍了咖啡因常见于多种饮品，摄入过多有不良影响，还以红牛为例说明其含量高，最后将探讨健康摄入方式。 26．细节理解题。根据“You can find caffeine in many common drinks like coffee, tea, cola, iced tea, and energy drinks.”可知，在可乐中可以找到咖啡因。而牛奶、水、果汁在文中未提及含有咖啡因。故选D。 27．细节理解题。根据“When you take in (摄入) too much caffeine in one day, you might: feel nervous, worried, or unhappy; get an upset stomach or headache; have trouble focusing; find it hard to fall asleep at night.”可知，如果一个孩子喝了太多含咖啡因的咖啡，可能会感到担忧。故选A。 28．推理判断题。根据“Many children enjoy drinking cola, but drinking too much can lead to problems.”可知，第三段主要讲述了孩子喝太多含咖啡因的饮料会导致一些问题，如感到紧张、担忧、不开心、肠胃不适、头痛、注意力不集中、难以入睡等，主要回答了为什么过多的咖啡因对你有害这个问题。故选B。 29．细节理解题。根据“Among these drinks, energy drinks have the most caffeine. For example, a can of Red Bull has about three times more caffeine than a can of cola.”以及“A cola (355ml can) has about 35mg of caffeine.”可知，一罐红牛的咖啡因含量大约是一罐可乐的三倍，一罐可乐含35mg咖啡因，所以一罐红牛大约含35×3=105mg咖啡因。故选C。 30．推理判断题。根据“Now that we know the effects of too much caffeine, let’s look at more healthy choices and habits…”可知，既然我们知道了过多咖啡因的影响，接下来作者可能会谈论饮用咖啡因的安全方式。故选B。 C Scientists say they have had a “conversation” with a humpback whale (座头鲸). The scientists are from the University of California, the Alaska Whale Foundation and the SETI Institute (Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence Institute 搜寻地球外文明研究所). They teamed up and communicated with a humpback whale named Twain. They communicated in “humpback language” for 20 minutes. Their conversation took place after the scientists sent a “contact call” into the ocean off the coast of Alaska. Twain heard the call and responded (回应). She swam to the research boat, circled it and chatted. The SETI Institute said it was the first ever communication between humans and a humpback whale. The scientists said their conversation with Twain was not a deep one. Professor Brenda Mc Cowan said it was more like greetings. Whales use contact calls to let other whales know where they are. The scientists made the same call 36 times over a 20-minute period. Each time, Twain responded by calling back. She even matched the intervals (间隔) between each call that the researchers made, which greatly surprised the scientists. Professor Brenda Mc Cowan told the Business Insider website that this research could make it easier to talk to aliens (外星人). She said, “There are many kinds of intelligent beings on this planet. By studying them, we can better understand what aliens might be like.” Based on this research, scientists may identify calls from space and make first contact with aliens in the future. 31．Where did the “conversation” take place? A．In the SETI Institute. B．In the Alaska Whale Foundation. C．In the ocean off the coast of Alaska. D．In the University of California. 32．Which of the following is TRUE about Twain? A．Twain was in poor health. B．Twain jumped out of the water 36 times. C．Twain responded to the scientist’s call 20 times. D．Twain was so smart that the scientists all felt surprised. 33．What can we learn from the last paragraph? A．Scientists have received calls from space. B．There are few intelligent beings on Earth. C．This research may help humans contact aliens. D．People can talk with other animals in the future. 34．Which question is answered in this passage? A．Why do the scientists want to search for aliens? B．How many scientists took part in the research? C．What will people do to protect humpback whales? D．How did the scientists have a “conversation” with Twain? 35．Where is the passage possibly from? A．A science magazine. B．A health report. C．A storybook. D．A travel guide. 【答案】31．C 32．D 33．C 34．D 35．A 【解析】本文主要介绍了科学家与座头鲸的“对话”，这是人类与座头鲸之间的首次交流。 31．细节理解题。根据“Their conversation took place after the scientists sent a “contact call” into the ocean off the coast of Alaska.”可知，对话发生在阿拉斯加海岸的海洋中。故选C。 32．推理判断题。根据“The scientists made the same call 36 times over a 20-minute period. Each time, Twain responded by calling back. She even matched the intervals (间隔) between each call that the researchers made, which greatly surprised the scientists.”可知，科学家们在20分钟内发出了36次同样的信号，每次Twain都会回应，她甚至匹配了研究人员每次通话之间的间隔，这可说明Twain非常聪明，科学家们对此感到惊讶。故选D。 33．细节理解题。根据“Professor Brenda Mc Cowan told the Business Insider website that this research could make it easier to talk to aliens (外星人).”可知，这项研究可能有助于人类与外星人联系。故选C。 34．推理判断题。根据“They communicated in ‘humpback language’ for 20 minutes. Their conversation took place after the scientists sent a ‘contact call’ into the ocean off the coast of Alaska.”可知，文中阐述了科学家通过“座头鲸语言”与Twain交谈了20分钟，因此回答了是如何与Twain进行“对话”的。故选D。 35．推理判断题。通读全文可知，本文主要介绍了科学研究和与鲸鱼的“对话”，这通常出现在科学杂志中。故选A。 D What would you like for lunch? Maybe, a battery (电池)? Although it sounds unusual, some eatable electronic things have been developed by scientists. Robofood, a program led by the Swiss Federal Institute of Technology, has been the pioneer. Together with scientists from Wageningen University, it has made a new drone (无人机). Half of the parts inside can be eaten! The program plans to create robots that can be eaten by mixing food science and robots in a new way. According to the scientists, the wings of the drone were made from rice cakes, oil and chocolate. This drone can find missing people and carry food or medicine necessary to them. However, the main problem is finding stronger eatable materials for the drone’s wings to prepare for bad weather and high temperatures. Robofood also developed an eatable sensor (感应器) to help watch stomach sickness. It’s eaten by the patient to check the conditions inside. Different from other sensors nowadays, it can be broken down (降解) in less than 24 hours. This way, there’s no danger of it leaving anything inside the body. Another invention of Robofood also helps with environmental protection. The world’s first fully eatable batteries can help deal with the growing problem of throwing away used batteries. Some parts of the battery are made of vitamin B₂ and another natural ingredient that can be found in many fruits including apples. So the new battery can be more friendly to the environment. 36．How does the writer start this passage? A．By telling a story. B．By using a saying. C．By asking a question. D．By giving an example. 37．What does Robofood plan to create? A．Amazing drones. B．Eatable robots. C．Useful sensors. D．Natural batteries. 38．What problem does Robofood’s drone have? A．The materials are not fully eatable. B．The materials are not strong enough. C．The drone can easily break during flying. D．The drone cannot take off in bad weather. 39．Compared to other sensors, what can Robofood’s sensors do? A．They can be taken as medicine. B．They can check more carefully. C．They can be safer for human body. D．They can stay in the human body longer. 40．What’s the purpose of writing this article? A．To introduce a new kind of food. B．To tell us how to make eatable robots. C．To introduce the inventions of Robofood. D．To show the importance of environmental protection. 【答案】36．C 37．B 38．B 39．C 40．C 【解析】本文介绍了由瑞士联邦理工学院领导的Robofood项目开发的几项可食用电子设备创新成果。 36．推理判断题。根据第一段“What would you like for lunch? Maybe, a battery (电池)?”可知，本文通过提问引发读者兴趣，故选C。 37．细节理解题。根据第二段“The program plans to create robots that can be eaten by mixing food science and robots in a new way.”可知，Robotfood计划创造可被食用的机器人。故选B。 38．细节理解题。根据第三段“However, the main problem is finding stronger eatable materials for the drone’s wings to prepare for bad weather and high temperatures.”可知，无人机的主要问题是需要寻找更坚固的可食用材料以应对恶劣天气和高温，说明现有材料强度不足。故选B。 39．推理判断题。根据第四段“Different from other sensors nowadays, it can be broken down (降解) in less than 24 hours. This way, there’s no danger of it leaving anything inside the body.”可知，Robofood的传感器可以24小时内降解，避免了体内残留风险，因此它们会对人体更安全。故选C。 40．主旨大意题。通读全文可知，全文通过可食用无人机、传感器、电池三个典型案例来系统介绍Robofood的创新成果。故选C。 第二节 阅读理解七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Music is everywhere around us. It can bring people together and have a strong influence on our emotions. 41 Here are some amazing facts about music. First, music can help with stress relief. When you’re feeling stressed out, listening to soft and gentle music can calm your nerves. 42 According to a study, people who listened to slow-tempo music had lower blood pressure and a slower heart rate compared to those who didn’t listen to music. Second, it can improve cognitive abilities. 43 For example, learning to play a musical instrument can enhance a child’s memory, attention, and problem-solving skills. Even just listening to music can boost your brainpower. Some students find that listening to classical music while studying helps them focus better. Music also has a social aspect. 44 Concerts and music festivals are great places where people from different backgrounds gather to enjoy their favorite music. It creates a sense of community and shared experience. Moreover, music can be a powerful form of self-expression. Artists use music to convey their feelings, thoughts, and stories. 45 Through music, we can connect with others on a deeper emotional level. A．Many studies have shown that music has a positive impact on the brain. B．When we listen to their music, we can understand their perspectives and emotions. C．It can bring people of all ages and cultures together. D．It is often used in medical treatments to help patients recover faster. E．Whether it’s through singing, playing an instrument, or just listening, music enriches our lives. F．The rhythm and melody can have a soothing effect on our body and mind. G．Different types of music can have different effects on our mood. 【答案】41．E 42．F 43．A 44．C 45．B 【解析】本文主要介绍了音乐在我们生活中的各种影响，包括缓解压力、提高认知能力、社交方面以及自我表达等。 41．根据上下文“Music is everywhere around us. It can bring people together and have a strong influence on our emotions.…Here are some amazing facts about music.”可知，前文提到音乐对情绪的影响，后文引出具体事实，此处应提出观点不论何种音乐形式都能影响我们的生活来承上启下。选项E“无论是唱歌、演奏乐器，还是只是聆听，音乐都丰富了我们的生活。”符合语境。故选E。 42．根据上文“When you’re feeling stressed out, listening to soft and gentle music can calm your nerves.”可知，本文段主要介绍了音乐可以缓解压力的作用。选项F“节奏和旋律对我们的身心都有舒缓的作用。”符合语境。故选F。 43．根据上下文“Second, it can improve cognitive abilities.…For example, learning to play a musical instrument can enhance a child’s memory, attention, and problem-solving skills.”可知，本文段说明音乐提升认知能力，此处应提出研究表明的观点，后文举例证明研究的观点。选项A“许多研究表明，音乐对大脑有积极的影响。”符合语境。故选A。 44．根据下文“Concerts and music festivals are great places where people from different backgrounds gather to enjoy their favorite music.”可知，后文举例说明了音乐会和音乐节能把不同背景的人聚集在一起欣赏他们喜欢的音乐。选项C“它可以把所有年龄和文化的人聚集在一起。”符合语境。故选C。 45．根据上下文“Artists use music to convey their feelings, thoughts, and stories.…Through music, we can connect with others on a deeper emotional level.”可知，前文提到艺术家用音乐表达自我，后文提到通过音乐可以与他们得到情感共鸣。选项B“当我们听他们的音乐时，我们可以理解他们的观点和情感。”符合语境。故选B。 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A：Hello! May I speak to Jack, please? B： 46 Who’s that? A：Hello, Jack. This is Ann. What are you doing? B： 47 A：Wow, you are so busy. Do you want to play basketball with me? B： 48 It’s too difficult for me. A：What about visiting the zoo? B：That’s good. I like to see animals. 49 And you? A：Me too. They are so smart, and they have beautiful ivory. B：OK. Then how do we go to the zoo? By bike? A： 50 It’s kind of far. B：OK. See you later! 46．A．I’m Jack. B．I’m Jack speaking. C．This is Jack speaking. D．That is Jack. 47．A．I’m doing the dishes. B．He is reading a book. C．She is swimming. D．My mother is cooking. 48．A．Sure, I’d love to. B．Sure, I like playing basketball. C．No, I need to do homework. D．No, I don’t like basketball. 49．A．I like tigers best. B．Elephants are my favorite animals. C．My favorite animal is pandas. D．Koalas are so cute. 50．A．We need to take the bus there. B．We go there by bike. C．We can walk there. D．We meet at your home. 【答案】46．C 47．A 48．D 49．B 50．A 【解析】本文是一篇Ann打电话邀请Jack去动物园的对话。 46．根据上文“Hello! May I speak to Jack, please?”可知，双方在打电话。再根据下文“Hello, Jack.”可知，此处表示“我是Jack。”在打电话介绍自己时，常用“This is…(speaking)”。选项C“This is Jack speaking.”符合语境。故选C。 47．根据问句“What are you doing?”可知，此处应该回答自己在做什么。选项A“我在洗碗。”符合语境。故选A。 48．结合上文“Do you want to play basketball with me? ”并根据下句“It’s too difficult for me.”可知，对我来说打篮球太难了。所以此处应该表示不喜欢打篮球。选项D“不，我不喜欢篮球。”符合语境。故选D。 49．根据下文“Me too. They are so smart, and they have beautiful ivory.”可知，我也是。它们很聪明，并且它们有漂亮的象牙。由此可知，此处应该表示自己喜欢的动物是大象。选项B“大象是我最喜欢的动物。”符合语境。故选B。 50．根据问句“Then how do we go to the zoo? By bike?”可知，那我们怎么去动物园？骑自行车吗？这是在谈论交通方式。根据下句“It’s kind of far.”可知，有点远。结合选项可知，此处应该表示坐公交车去那里。选项A“我们需要坐公交车去那里。”符合语境。故选A。 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。 In a big forest, there lives a kind elephant named Luna. She has long ears, a strong trunk, and big eyes. Luna is very smart and always ready to 51 others. One morning, Luna sees a little monkey 52 in a tree. “What’s wrong?” she asks. The monkey says, “I want to get the bananas at the 53 , but I’m afraid to fall.” Luna smiles and uses her trunk to 54 the bananas. The monkey stops crying and thanks her happily and 55 the bananas with her. Near the river, Luna meets a turtle (乌龟) named Toby. Toby wants to cross the river but moves very 56 . “Climb onto my back,” says Luna. She carries Toby across the never safely. Toby says, “You’ re so 57 , Luna!” One day, a heavy rain comes. The forest becomes wet. A baby deer 58 its way and starts to cry. Luna hears the cry and 59 the sound. She finds the baby deer and 60 it back to its family. The mother deer is very thankful. Luna also helps the birds find 61 when it’s snowy. She uses her trunk to find worms (虫子) from the ground. The birds sing loudly to thank her. The animals in the forest all love Luna. They say, “We 62 Luna as our close friend.” Luna says, “We should help each other. That’s what friends do.” Every evening, Luna takes a rest under the big tree. She looks at the stars and feels happy. She knows that being kind makes the forest a 63 place for everyone. Animals are like a big family. They 64 each other and live in peace (和平). Just like Luna, every animal has its own 65 to help others. They make our world more wonderful. 51．A．kill B．catch C．teach D．help 52．A．sitting B．sleeping C．crying D．laughing 53．A．top B．mat C．foot D．middle 54．A．cut B．pick C．eat D．use 55．A．leaves B．talks C．plays D．shares 56．A．quickly B．slowly C．quietly D．noisily 57．A．blind B．lucky C．kind D．poor 58．A．finds B．loses C．gets D．takes 59．A．follows B．goes C．builds D．sees 60．A．carries B．lends C．sells D．forgets 61．A．drinks B．sweets C．food D．vegetables 62．A．save B．treat C．care D．hear 63．A．boring B．dangerous C．happy D．huge 64．A．go with B．look for C．belong to D．look after 65．A．ways B．problems C．looks D．colors 【答案】 51．D 52．C 53．A 54．B 55．D 56．B 57．C 58．B 59．A 60．A 61．C 62．B 63．C 64．D 65．A 【解析】本文是一篇记叙文，讲述了在森林里名叫露娜的大象非常善良，它经常帮助小动物，森林里的动物都把露娜当作亲密朋友，动物们互相照顾，善良让森林成为快乐的地方，每只动物都有帮助别人的方式。 51．句意：露娜非常聪明并且总是准备帮助别人。 kill杀死；catch抓住；teach教；help帮助。根据后文“Luna says, ‘We should help each other. That’s what friends do.’”可知，此处表示准备帮助别人。故选D。 52．句意：一天早上，露娜看到一只小猴子在树上哭泣。 sitting坐；sleeping睡觉；crying哭泣；laughing笑。根据下文“The monkey stops crying”可知，猴子此时应该是在哭泣。故选C。 53．句意：猴子说：“我想要得到树顶的香蕉，但是我害怕掉下来。” top顶部；mat垫子；foot脚；middle中间。根据“I want to get the bananas at the”和“but I’m afraid to fall”，可知，猴子害怕掉下来且想要得到香蕉，说明香蕉的位置很高，应该是想要树顶的香蕉。故选A。 54．句意：露娜微笑着用她的象鼻摘香蕉。 cut切；pick摘；eat吃；use使用。根据上文“I want to get the bananas”和“Luna smiles and uses her trunk to”可知，露娜用象鼻摘香蕉。故选B。 55．句意：猴子停止哭泣并且开心地感谢她，还和她分享香蕉。 leaves离开；talks谈话；plays玩；shares分享。根据“the bananas with her”可知，是和露娜分享香蕉“share sth. with sb.”是固定搭配，意为“和某人分享某物”。故选D。 56．句意：托比想要过河但是移动得非常慢。 quickly快速地；slowly缓慢地；quietly安静地；noisily吵闹地。根据“Near the river, Luna meets a turtle (乌龟) named Toby.”以及乌龟的特点可知，乌龟移动速度慢。故选B。 57．句意：托比说：“你太善良了，露娜！” blind盲的；lucky幸运的；kind善良的；poor贫穷的。根据“She carries Toby across the never safely.”可知，露娜帮助托比过河的行为说明，托比觉得露娜善良。故选C。 58．句意：一只小鹿迷路了并且开始哭泣。 finds找到；loses失去；gets得到；takes带走。根据“starts to cry”以及后文露娜帮助小鹿找到家人的内容可知，小鹿此时是迷路了，“lose one’s way”是固定短语，意为“迷路”。故选B。 59．句意：露娜听到哭声并且跟着声音。 follows跟随；goes去；builds建造；sees看见。根据“She finds the baby deer”可知，露娜是跟着声音找到小鹿的。故选A。 60．句意：她找到小鹿并且把它带回它的家人身边。 carries携带，运送；lends借；sells卖；forgets忘记。根据“it back to its family”可知，是把小鹿送回它的家人身边。故选A。 61．句意：下雪的时候，露娜也帮助鸟儿找到食物。 drinks饮料；sells卖；food食物；vegetables蔬菜。根据“She uses her trunk to find worms (虫子) from the ground.”可知，露娜帮助鸟儿找的是食物。故选C。 62．句意：他们说：“我们把露娜当作我们亲密的朋友。” save拯救；treat对待，把……当作；care关心；hear听见。“treat...as...”是固定搭配，意为“把……当作……”，根据语境可知此处表示把露娜当作亲密朋友。故选B。 63．句意：她知道善良让森林成为一个对每个人来说快乐的地方。 boring无聊的；dangerous危险的；happy快乐的；huge巨大的。根据前文露娜帮助其他动物，其他动物也喜爱她的内容可知，善良让森林成为一个快乐的地方。故选C。 64．句意：动物们就像一个大家庭。他们互相照顾并且和平相处。 go with和……一起去；look for寻找；belong to属于；look after照顾。根据“Animals are like a big family.”以及“live in peace (和平)”可知，动物们互相照顾。故选D。 65．句意：就像露娜一样，每只动物都有它自己帮助别人的方式。 ways方式；problems问题；looks外表；colors颜色。根据前文露娜用不同的方式帮助其他动物的内容可知，每只动物都有帮助别人的方式。故选A。 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 There are some apps on my phone, like WeChat, QQ and TikTok. I use 66 (they) quite often. I usually talk with my friends in WeChat. I keep lots of photos and videos in my QQ and I enjoy 67 (watch) short videos or buying things from TikTok. They are really interesting 68 useful. Now, I’d like 69 (tell) you something about another app, Red Note. Red Note 70 (be) also a popular app in China. The users of Red Note are young, and most of them are women. There are more pictures about 71 (day) life. For example, if you want to learn how to cook dish 72 (good), you can choose Red Note. Different people have different 73 (hobby). However, you can find many people with the same ones as you on Red Note. I like the apps a lot and now I am writing 74 article with an app. But I know, it’s bad 75 my eyes if I use the phone for a long time. 【答案】 66．them 67．watching 68．and 69．to tell 70．is 71．daily 72．well 73．hobbies 74．an 75．for 【解析】本文作者主要介绍自己手机里的一些应用软件，尤其是“小红书”。 66．句意：我经常使用它们。此处在动词后作宾语，用宾格，故填them。 67．句意：我在QQ里保存了很多照片和视频，我喜欢看短视频或从抖音上买东西。enjoy doing sth“喜欢做某事”，故填watching。 68．句意：它们真的很有趣也很有用。前后两个形容词构成并列关系，用and连接，故填and。 69．句意：现在，我想告诉你另一个应用，小红书。would like to do sth“想要做某事”，故填to tell。 70．句意：小红书在中国也是一款很受欢迎的应用。本句时态是一般现在时，主语是“Red Note”，故填is。 71．句意：有更多关于日常生活的图片。此处作定语修饰“life”，用形容词daily“日常的”，故填daily。 72．句意：例如，如果你想学习如何做好菜，你可以选择小红书。此处在句中修饰动词，用其副词形式，故填well。 73．句意：不同的人有不同的爱好。“different”修饰可数名词复数，故填hobbies。 74．句意：我很喜欢这些应用程序，现在我正在用一个应用程序写一篇文章。此处泛指写一篇文章，“article”首字母发元音音素，故填an。 75．句意：但我知道，如果我长时间使用手机，对我的眼睛不好。be bad for“对……不好”，故填for。 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76． — ? —Yes, she can play it very well. 77． —How is the weather in Jinan now? — . 78． —How does John get to school? — . 79． —What are you doing now? — . 80． —What time does Tina usually brush her teeth? — . 【答案】76．Can she play the piano 77．It’s raining 78．By bus 79．I am doing exercise 80．At seven o’clock 【解析】76．根据图片和答语可知，此处是一般疑问句，为“她会弹钢琴吗”；情态动词can放在主语she之前，其后接动词原形；弹钢琴“play the piano”。故填Can she play the piano。 77．根据图片和问句可知，此处应回答“下雨了”；由now可知句子为现在进行时，构成：主语+be动词+现在分词；rain“下雨”，现在分词为raining。 故填It’s raining。 78．根据图片和问句可知，此处应回答“乘公共汽车”；“乘公共汽车”英文表达是by bus，且by的首字母要大写。 故填By bus。 79．根据图片和问句可知，此处应回答“我正在做操”；我“I”，根据问句中的now，可知时态为现在进行时，其谓语动词结构为：am/is/are+doing，主语为I，故用am；做操“do exercise”，do的现在分词形式为doing。故填I am doing exercise。 80．根据图片和问句可知，此处应回答“在七点”；在七点“at seven o’clock”，at位于句首，首字母需要大写。故填At seven o’clock。 第二节 写作（满分25分） 81．如今，很多人喜欢在互联网上点餐。老师要求你们在下周一的英语课上就互联网点餐这一现象，谈谈它的利与弊。请你根据写作要求，谈谈你的看法。 Ordering Food Online, Good or Bad? Advantages (优点) 方便 (convenient) 快捷，品种多样，节省时间…… Disadvantages (缺点) 塑料包装袋 (plastic bags) 对环境 (environment) 不利，经常吃外卖食品 (takeaway) 对健康不好…… Your idea …… 写作要求： (1)文中需要包含表格中所提示的全部要点，可适当发挥，书写规范； (2)文中不得出现本人姓名或校名； (3)词数70个左右 (开头已给出，不计入总词数)。 Ordering Food Online, Good or Bad? Nowadays, many people like ordering food online. Is it good or bad? ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【参考范文】             Ordering Food Online, Good or Bad? Nowadays, many people like ordering food online. Is it good or bad? Some people think it’s good to order food online because it is convenient and fast. It can help save time. Also, the food is cheap and delicious. Besides, we have many kinds of food to choose from. However, other people have different ideas. They say eating takeaway too often is bad for health, because takeaway may not be fresh food. And the plastic bags of the food are bad for the environment. I think we can order food online sometimes, but not too often. [写作分析]①题材：本文是一篇材料作文； ②时态：时态为“一般现在时”； ③提示：对网上点餐的利与弊进行介绍，并阐述自己的看法；适当增加细节，注意条理清晰。 [写作步骤] 第一步，分别介绍网上点餐的优点； 第二步，分别介绍网上点餐的缺点； 第三步，表达自己的意见。 [亮点词汇] ①many kinds of food许多种食物 ②be bad for对……不好 ③help save time帮助节省时间 [高分句型] Some people think it’s good to order food online because it is convenient and fast. (it的固定句型、because引导原因状语从句) 2 / 22 1 / 22 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$