2025届安徽省A10联盟高考原创夺冠卷（二）英语试题

2025年高考原创夺冠卷（二） 英语 本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。请在答题卡上作答。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分。满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What did the woman do yesterday evening? A. She attended a meeting. B. She finished her report. C. She looked after her dad. 2. How does the man sound? A. Disappointed. B. Pleased. C. Anxious. 3. When will the speakers read books at the park? A. At 7:30 a. m. B. At 9:00 a. m. C. At 4:30 p. m. 4. What will the weather be like this afternoon probably? A. Sunny. B. Windy. C. Rainy. 5. What problem did the woman have? A. She overslept. B. She hit the traffic jam. C. She failed to catch the early bus. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。 6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Brother and sister. B. Father and daughter. C. Husband and wife. 7. What are the speakers talking about? A. A wedding. B. A camera. C A photo. 听第7段材料，回答第 8至10题。 8. Why does the woman choose to use her phone? A. It’s running well. B. It’s valuable. C. It’s advanced. 9. What does the woman usually use her phone for? A. Listening to music. B. Making calls. C. Taking pictures. 10. How many phones has the man owned? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. 听第8段材料，回答第11至14题。 11. Where does the man probably do volunteering? A. In China. B. In Africa. C. In Brazil. 12. When will the man be able to volunteering? A. In June. B. In July. C. In August. 13. Why does the man give up group volunteer? A. He prefers travelling alone. B. He is looking for a new career. C. He has no interest in travelling. 14. What did the man intend to become initially? A. A photographer. B. A travel guide. C. A project manager. 听第9段材料，回答第15至17题。 15. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. At an airport. B. At the man’s house. C. At the woman’s house. 16. What do we know about the woman? A. Her suitcase is more than 40 kg. B. She will take a flight to America. C. She has a handbag and a large backpack. 17. What time does the flight leave? A At 8:30 a. m. B. At 9:30 a. m. C. At 10:30 a. m. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What is the text mainly about? A. The opinions about using phones. B. The benefits and risks brought by social media. C. The advantages and disadvantages of online shopping. 19. What is the main concern of online chat according to the speaker? A. It’s too addictive. B. It causes mental problems. C. It leads to weak social skills. 20. What will the listeners do next? A、Present their opinions. B. Post things on Weibo. C. Try online learning. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分。满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A,B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Looking for your next gardening book to read? Here’s a bunch of fantastic choices that cover a wide range of interests. Nature, Design, and Health by David Kamp (Library of American Landscape History, 2023) In Nature, Design, and Health, David Kamp looks back on his 40-year career as a landscape architect, educator and advocate. He is the principal of the design firm Dirtworks, which he named for his guiding belief that when life feels like a struggle, or even downright chaotic, “dirt works” to fix our spirits. Explaining the name, he writes “nature can provide balance in our lives.” Kamp always believed in nature as a source of healing. The Garden Journal by Linda Vater (Cool Springs Press, 2023) Here’s a very handy book that might just become the gardener’s favorite. Yes it’s a journal in which to record tasks and happenings (five years’ worth, in fact!), but it offers so much more than blank space. The Garden Journal is really about prompting you to become a better gardener and improve your garden’s design in every season. Brilliant English Gardens by Clive Nichols (Clearyiew Books, 2022) In Brilliant English Gardens, renowned garden photographer Clive Nichols offers a visit to more than two dozen gardens in England. This book allows the reader full immersion (沉浸) into each place through its generous imagery, with most of the pages devoted to photographs alone. Nature’s Best Hope (Young Readers’ Edition) by Douglas Tallamy (Timber Press, 2023) First published in 2020, Douglas Tallamy’s Nature’s Best Hope put forth his idea of the Homegrown National Park, which would see privately owned lands being planted and tended to support wildlife. Now this popular book has been adapted for middle-grade children (ages 8 to 12 or so). 1. What is the main focus of Nature, Design, and Health? A. The ways to design a garden. B. Tips for growing plants. C. The importance of nature in healing. D. The history of landscape architecture. 2. What is the primary feature of Brilliant English Gardens? A. Extensive photos of English gardens. B. A guide to planting native species. C. Detailed instructions on garden maintenance. D. A collection of photographs by famous gardeners. 3. Which book is young readers’ favorite? A. Nature, Design, and Health. B. The Garden Journal. C. Brilliant English Gardens. D. Nature’s Best Hope (Young Readers’ Edition). B As a fully bilingual Latina raising multicultural kid, I have always imagined myself passing down the Spanish language to them. I’ve had to think of more creative ways to get them excited about learning the language. Earlier this year we decided to take a Spanish immersion trip to Punta Cana in the Dominican Republic. We stayed at the Lopesan Costa Bávaro, a 5-star, all-inclusive hotel to make travel and family activities a lot easier. To me, language is about more than just the words themselves; I want to teach them to value the world and its many cultures. So the goal of the trip was to primarily speak to my kids in Spanish and offer them an enriching travel experience. I blocked out two-to-three-hour windows to speak to them only in Spanish each day and found that they became curious about the language and kept asking me how to translate words, even when we weren’t in practice mode. One of their favorite spots in the hotel was the ice cream shop. The kids learned what to call the sweet treat in Spanish (helado) and asked how to say the different ice cream flavors in Spanish too. The most important part of the immersion trip was to have fun and to set realistic expectations about their language development journey. My kids weren’t going to leave the trip being fully bilingual, but the goal was to spark their interest and create a positive learning experience. For me, it was also a reminder to let go of the bilingual parenting pressure I constantly put on myself. So much of passing down a language requires planning and consistency, which can be hard to keep up with at times — and that’s OK. Once we got home, my son asked us to download the app Duolingo on our devices so he could continue practicing his Spanish. And I still make it a point to occasionally shift to Spanish and teach them new words: little by little, poco a poco. 4. What was the main purpose of the author’s trip to Punta Cana? A. To enjoy an expensive hotel. B. To teach her kids Spanish through immersion. C. To explore the culture of the Dominican Republic. D. To visit family members living there. 5. How did the author teach her children Spanish during the trip? A. By enrolling them in a language school. B. By having them speak Spanish for two to three hours daily. C. By playing games with them. D. By speaking only Spanish for two to three hours daily. 6. What does the author imply about her children’s language development? A. They generate a strong passion for Spanish. B. They became fluent in Spanish by the end of the trip. C. They have formed a habit of learning Spanish after the trip. D. They found Spanish too easy to learn. 7. What lesson did the author learn regarding bilingual parenting? A It is vital to set strict language rules. B. It requires patience, planning, and consistency. C. Children should only learn one language at a time. D. Language learning is not important for cultural identity. C Red-crowned parrots are characterized by their mainly green feathers and distinctive cluster of red feathers on their heads. They originally lived a region in Northeastern Mexico. Due to habitat destruction and illegal hunting, their existence is under severe threat in their native lands. Texas has embraced these fascinating birds, awarding them native species status which is vital to their protection. Dr. Brightsmith highlighted this stating, “Without native species status, it would be much more difficult to provide protection for the species.” This acknowledgment boosted interest from Texas Parks & Wildlife, paving the way for extensive research on the adaptation and well-being of these parrots in South Texas. The research team carefully counted and mapped the parrots, concentrating especially on the Rio Grande Valley. Remarkably, places like Brownsville have adopted the red-crowned parrot as their official mascot. With around 900 parrots living in South Texas, Kiacz and his team closely monitored their breeding activity. These observations have provided a comprehensive insight into their thriving population. The adaptation and thriving of red-crowned parrots in urban environments are unusual. The species, considered as “synanthropes,” lives harmoniously with human-made environments. Kiacz explains, “Humans have basically created the perfect environment for these parrots.” The relationship stems from their mutual liking for well-watered plants producing fruit and seeds year-round. Even the tendency to plant non-native palm trees has accidentally provided perfect nesting holes for these parrots, further solidifying their urban adaptation. In summary, the thriving existence of red-crowned parrots among urban sprawl is a testament to nature’s resilience and adaptability. It opens up a lot of opportunities for research and provides a unique perspective on urban conservation strategies, emphasizing the balance between urban expansion and biodiversity. 8. What results in the decline of red-crowned parrots? A. Climate change and disease. B. Food shortages and competition. C. Urbanization and natural predators. D. Habitat destruction and illegal hunting. 9. What is Dr. Brightsmith’s attitude towards Texas’s measure? A. Appreciative. B. Critical. C. Unclear. D. Skeptical. 10. What does the term “synanthropes” in Paragraph 4 refer to? A. Species that avoid human environments. B. Species that are endangered. C. Species that are native to urban areas. D. Species that coexist with human-made environments. 11. What role do humans play in the adaptation of red-crowned parrots in urban environments? A. Humans hunt them for entertainment. B. Humans destroy their natural habitats. C. Humans provide them with food and shelter. D. Humans create perfect nesting holes accidentally. D Whether or not robots can feel is a question. But what’s becoming increasingly clear, says Associate Professor Szu-chi Huang in Stanford University, is that robots do have the capacity to make humans feel. In the latest episode of If/Then: Business, Leadership, Society, Huang digs into the effect that robots can have, not just on our emotions, but on our behavior. Huang’s research shows that when people witness others being helpful towards others, they’re motivated to do the same. This is what she calls “pro-social” behavior. But she wondered: what happens when a robot is the one lending a helping hand? Are people inspired to follow the example of a machine? To find out, Huang designed a study where participants were shown various news reports about natural disasters and the measures being taken in response. In some stories, the “heroes” were humans; in others, they were robots. “In both cases, we explained in detail what those heroes were doing,” says Huang. Whether dragging survivors out of ruins after an earthquake or disinfecting (消毒) hospitals during a surging COVID-19 pandemic, “The actions are exactly the same, but the heroes are different.” Following test subjects’ exposure to these stories, Huang measured their willingness to engage in pro-social behavior, like donating to support children in need. What she found was those who saw robot heroes were significantly less likely to donate than those who saw humans taking the same actions. “The robot stories actually make people feel less inspired,” says Huang. “And that has important consequences. If using robots lowers our intention to help others, it could have a pretty big negative social impact.” So what do we do as AI and robots play an increasing role in our lives? How do we embrace their benefits without downgrading our humanity and pro-sociability in the process? Huang says if we want robots to be good for society, then we need to humanize them. 12. Which of the following best describes “pro-social” behavior? A. Helping others when they are in need. B. Becoming less motivated to help others. C. Copying the behavior of a robot. D. Avoiding social interaction with others. 13. What were the participants asked to do in the study? A. To review news reports. B. To respond to news reports. C. To observe robots working. D. To take an interview. 14. What can be inferred from the last paragraph? A People hate robots helping others. B. Robots will never be able to replace humans. C. People’s humanity will surely decline because of robots’ development. D. Humanizing robots is likely to make them more beneficial to society. 15. Which of the following could be the best title? A. Robots: Threats to Human Pro-social Behavior B. The Dilemma of Robots in Modern Society C. Humanizing Robots: A Solution to Social Problems D. Do Robots Inspire Human Pro-social Behavior? 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How to Not Get Distracted Easily In a world filled with pinging notifications, endless to-do lists, and unexpected life events, it’s easy to feel overwhelmed by a sea of distractions. ____16____ 1. Remove External Distractions Distractions, especially external ones, often come dressed in various shapes and sizes, from a noisy television to a lively family. ____17____ If the TV is affecting your focus, turn it off or relocate to a quieter room. If your phone constantly demands your attention, mute it while you’re working. 2. Start Your Day With a Clear Plan Before you dive into the tasks, take a few minutes in the morning to manage your schedule. A beneficial tool you could employ is the time management matrix (矩阵). ____18____ Use this technique to organize your responsibilities according to their urgency and importance. 3. Be Selective With Your Tasks It’s nearly impossible to perform all those tasks efficiently if your mind is scattered in twenty different directions. To minimize distractions, you need to limit your focus to just 2-3 significant tasks a day. It may have the opposite effect at first. ____19____ 4. Focus on a Small Part of Work It’s easy to lose focus when you’re faced with a substantial goal. Instead, aim to complete a minimum amount of work. For instance, if you have a project at work that involves conducting market research and presenting findings to your team. ____20____ Plan to spend one day gathering data, another day analyzing it, a third day drawing conclusions, and a final day creating the presentation. A. But I will select them. B. They do a lot harm to you. C. If this feels overwhelming, break it down. D. It’s a powerful tool for prioritizing tasks effectively. E. But this narrow focus can bring immense benefits. F. Here’re some ways to help you not to get distracted. G. The solution is to distance yourself from these elements. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Ian Sandler’s 9-year-old daughter, Riley Sandler, went to a sleepaway camp for the summer. Early one morning, at around 1:30 a.m., the family got a(n) ____21____ from the camp. “The voice on the other end was saying that Riley had ____22____; and that they were taking her to a hospital and that I needed to get there ____23____.” Sandler remembered. Sandler and his family lived in New York City. The hospital where Riley was being ____24____ was hours away. Sandler was too ____25____ to drive, so he ____26____ an Uber. He put in an address that was in the general direction of where he needed to go. When the driver arrived, Sandler explain the ____27____. The driver said he had three children of his own. It was comforting that the driver could ____28____ Sandler’s situation. He felt a(n) ____29____ wash over him. ____30____, the feeling was soon interrupted by another phone call about Riley. She was going to be moved to a different hospital, even farther away. On hearing it, the driver didn’t ____31____, drove for another three and a half hours and arrived at the hospital at the fastest speed. “I remember trying to ____32____ him. He wouldn’t take a dime. He just knew this was the ____33____ thing that could ever happen to a parent.” That night was one of the most difficult experience Sandler has ever ____34____. Yet he still was ____35____ to the Uber driver who got him to the hospital. 21. A. letter B. call C. email D. message 22. A. collapsed B. fled C. attacked D. slept 23. A. on time B. sooner or later C. for a moment D. straight away 24. A. cured B. lived C. transported D. checked 25. A. old B. tired C. shocked D. weak 26. A. bought B. waved C. booked D. paid 27. A. reason B. situation C. case D. dilemma 28. A. figure out B. empathize with C. give up D. turn down 29. A. panic B. calmness C. happiness D. urge 30. A. However B. Hence C. Besides D. Still 31. A. miss a beat B. give up C. pay attention to D. run away 32. A. tip B. persuade C. help D. praise 33. A. unforgettable B. common C. happiest D. worst 34. A. saw B. learned C. underwent D. read 35. A. sorry B. famous C. ready D. grateful 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Artificial intelligence (AI) is entering Chinese households like never before — ____36____ (perfect) blending into both daily life and entertainment. ____37____ (dress) in colorful jackets, a group of humanoid robots became a highlight of this year’s Spring Festival Gala, broadcast on Chinese New Year’s Eve. The 16 robots danced the Yangko, a traditional folk dance, alongside human performers. After the show, a “robot grandmother” ____38____ (lead) offstage by the dancers and the moment quickly went viral on social media. Behind their precise mechanical arm movements is the ____39____ (integrate) of advanced AI algorithms and smart sensors. With its vast knowledge, eloquent (雄辩的) expression, boundless imagination and playful wit, DeepSeek has drawn people of all ages, making it the ultimate “chat companion.” “I felt ____40____ (power) after having a good command of DeepSeek,” said a retiree surnamed Ma, who ____41____ (download) the open-resource tool following his son’s strong recommendation. Beyond the virtual world, AI is becoming an ever-present force in daily life; not only enhancing online interactions, ____42____ transforming real-world experiences with remarkable efficiency. Whether at temple fairs or tourist attractions, AI is increasingly integrating ____43____ people’s daily lives, replacing servers and trainers, playing games, carrying heavy loads, delivering goods and even assisting climbers. This year’s Spring Festival has been a celebration of AI-driven surprises, with each innovation ____44____ (spark) excitement and wonder. Social media is buzzing with netizens sharing and recommending their favorite high-tech experiences, making this _____45_____ unique futuristic Chinese New Year. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假设你是李华，你班下周将开设主题为“改掉坏习惯，拥抱新生活”的主题班会，请你写一篇英语文章发言，内容包括： 1. 分享你的经历和做法； 2. 提出倡议。 注意： 1. 写作词数应为80左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Break Bad Habits, Embrace New Life Good morning, everyone! ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Thank you! 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 In a bustling (喧嚣的) office building that scraped the sky, Alan, the diligent door keeper, carried out his daily tasks, maintaining cleanliness. His hands grasped the day’s trash, leading him towards the trash bin. On the ordinary day, Alan’s path crossed with the gaze of fate. Peering over the edge of a trash bin was a young boy, searching for food among the discarded remains of the office workers. Alan’s heart seized at the sight of the child’s desperate searching. Instead of chasing the boy away, he extended an offering—a sandwich that he had hidden away for his break. Day by day, Alan shared his lunch, becoming a quiet source of nourishment in the boy’s otherwise uncertain life. The boy, named Christopher, came to expect Alan’s presence, finding comfort in his kindness. Their exchanges transcended (超越) the exchange of food; they formed an unspoken bond, creating a safe place of companionship in the solitude of the alley. However, Alan’s heart ached for the child’s situation, longing to know more about his past and the struggles he faced. Alan’s curiosity gradually gave way to gentle inquiries, and Christopher, feeling a sense of trust, began to open up. The boy revealed the disturbing truth—he had escaped an abusive home and fled to the streets. His heartbreaking journey had left him homeless and distrustful of most adults and potential refuge. Christopher’s reluctance to give away further details only deepened Alan’s determination to help. 注意： 1. 续写词数应为150左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Despite the limitations of his own circumstances, Alan became an unwavering source of support. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Years later, the boy who had once depended on Alan for support returned, not as a hungry child, but as a successful man. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025年高考原创夺冠卷（二） 英语 本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。请在答题卡上作答。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分。满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What did the woman do yesterday evening? A. She attended a meeting. B. She finished her report. C. She looked after her dad. 2. How does the man sound? A. Disappointed. B. Pleased. C. Anxious. 3. When will the speakers read books at the park? A. At 7:30 a. m. B. At 9:00 a. m. C. At 4:30 p. m. 4. What will the weather be like this afternoon probably? A. Sunny. B. Windy. C. Rainy. 5. What problem did the woman have? A. She overslept. B. She hit the traffic jam. C. She failed to catch the early bus. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。 6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Brother and sister. B. Father and daughter. C. Husband and wife. 7. What are the speakers talking about? A. A wedding. B. A camera. C A photo. 听第7段材料，回答第 8至10题。 8. Why does the woman choose to use her phone? A. It’s running well. B. It’s valuable. C. It’s advanced. 9. What does the woman usually use her phone for? A. Listening to music. B. Making calls. C. Taking pictures. 10. How many phones has the man owned? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. 听第8段材料，回答第11至14题。 11. Where does the man probably do volunteering? A. In China. B. In Africa. C. In Brazil. 12. When will the man be able to volunteering? A. In June. B. In July. C. In August. 13. Why does the man give up group volunteer? A. He prefers travelling alone. B. He is looking for a new career. C. He has no interest in travelling. 14. What did the man intend to become initially? A. A photographer. B. A travel guide. C. A project manager. 听第9段材料，回答第15至17题。 15. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. At an airport. B. At the man’s house. C. At the woman’s house. 16. What do we know about the woman? A. Her suitcase is more than 40 kg. B. She will take a flight to America. C. She has a handbag and a large backpack. 17. What time does the flight leave? A. At 8:30 a. m. B. At 9:30 a. m. C. At 10:30 a. m. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What is the text mainly about? A. The opinions about using phones. B. The benefits and risks brought by social media. C. The advantages and disadvantages of online shopping. 19. What is the main concern of online chat according to the speaker? A. It’s too addictive. B. It causes mental problems. C. It leads to weak social skills. 20. What will the listeners do next? A、Present their opinions. B. Post things on Weibo. C. Try online learning. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分。满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A,B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. A 3. D B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. D 6. A 7. B C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. A 10. D 11. C D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. A 13. A 14. D 15. D 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. F 17. G 18. D 19. E 20. C 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21 B 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. C 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. A 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. D 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. perfectly 37. Dressed 38. was led 39. integration 40. powerful 41. had downloaded 42. but 43. into 44. sparking 45. a 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】Break Bad Habits, Embrace New Life Good morning, everyone! I used to be a chronic procrastinator, often leaving my homework until the last minute and staying up late to finish it. This not only affected my sleep quality but also led to poor academic performance. To break this bad habit, I started using a planner to schedule my tasks and set specific deadlines for each one. Additionally, I divided large tasks into smaller, more manageable steps and rewarded myself after completing each part. Gradually, I found myself becoming more organized and efficient. Now, I would like to encourage all of you to identify your bad habits and take action to change them. Remember, small steps lead to big changes. Let’s support one another and embrace a new, better life together! Thank you! 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】 Despite the limitations of his own circumstances, Alan became an unwavering source of support. He started by finding a small, safe corner in a nearby shelter and persuaded Christopher to stay there, promising to visit every day. Alan also used his meager savings to buy the boy clothes and school supplies, secretly enrolling him in a local community school. Whenever Christopher faced doubts or fears, Alan would sit beside him, sharing stories of hope and perseverance. Slowly but surely, the boy began to heal, his eyes regaining the spark that hardship had once dimmed. Years later, the boy who had once depended on Alan for support returned, not as a hungry child, but as a successful man. He tracked down Alan, who was still working at the same building. With tears in his eyes, Christopher hugged his savior happily. Now an entrepreneur, he had established a foundation to help homeless children. He told Alan that every decision he made was inspired by the man’s selfless kindness. Then, he offered Alan a position at the foundation, not as a caretaker, but as a partner, determined to give back and spread the love that had changed his life forever. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$