2025年安徽省合肥市蜀山区九年级下学期二模英语试卷

1 2025 年九年级质量调研检测 英语听力材料 第一部分 听力部分（共四大题，满分 20 分） I．短对话理解(共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分) 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选 出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. W: Mike, is your father a doctor? M: No, he is an artist. He is good at painting plants. 2. M: Anna, how do you keep healthy in your daily life? W: I used to swim, but now I like riding a bike. I think it’s an easy way. 3. W: Jack, did you go to the park with your father or your uncle? M: Neither. I went to the park with my brother. We both had fun there. 4. M: Hurry up! We’ll be late for the train. W: Don’t worry. The train leaves at 9:30. We still have 15 minutes left. 5. M: Excuse me, is there a bus station near here? I want to go to the Sam Supermarket. W: Well, you don’t need to take a bus. Go straight and you can see it on the left. Ⅱ．长对话理解(共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分) 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选 出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第 6 至 7 小题。 M: Hi, Nancy! What are you reading? W: The Future Scientists. It introduces different science jobs, like space explorers, AI engineers and environmental scientists. M: Sounds cool. I want to be an AI engineer in the future. What about you? W: I’m interested in the environmental science. The book suggests we help the earth by developing green technologies. M: That’s great. Maybe we can work together someday. You save the plants and I build smart robots. W: Haha. 听下面一段对话，回答第 8 至 10 小题。 W: Hey, Jack! Are you going to take part in the English speech competition? M: Yes. I’ve already signed up. It is about The Power of Dreams, right? W: That’s right. And each speech should be 3-5 minutes long. M: Got it. How do you prepare for it? W: Well, I plan to collect real-life stories and practice the speech in front of the mirror. M: Good idea. I’m going to record myself to improve my pronunciation. W: Let’s help each other and do our best. M: But I’m worried about the time. What if I talk too fast or too slow? W: Me too. We can time ourselves when we practice. If it’s too short, add some examples. If too long, cut some less important parts. M: OK! Do we lose points if we run over time? W: Yes. We will lose 2 points. We must get the time right! 2 Ⅲ．短文理解(共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分) 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三 个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 Tony is usually busy from Monday to Friday. Last Saturday, he invited his friend Lily to visit Shanghai Science and Technology Museum. It is quite far from their home, so they went there by train instead of by coach. At first, Lily thought the trip would be boring. However, to their surprise, what they experienced was amazing. Lily is good at taking photos, so she could use photos to remember the whole trip. They spent time seeing different things. At the robot area, some robots were dancing. When they arrived at the space area, they saw a big spaceship. The guide said, “As long as you study hard, you can become astronauts one day.” They felt so surprised at the progress of China and they couldn’t wait to share this experience with their family. Ⅳ．信息转换(共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分) 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短 文读两遍。 Our school Health Day Activity is coming soon. The activity will take place in a week in our school sports hall. During the activity, our school will invite some famous doctors to give students a talk on healthy eating. It aims to encourage more students to develop healthy habits. You can also learn about some good habits that can improve your health. After the talk, you will watch and learn how to make proper food with the help of them. Finally, students will be asked to share their food with others. Everyone hopes to have a meaningful and special day this year. We believe that this Health Day Activity will not only help us get healthier but also bring us lots of fun. 3 2025 年九年级质量调研检测 英语试卷 第一部分 听力部分（共四大题，满分 20 分） 1-5 CBCAA 6-10 BCACA 11-15 CBCAB 16. 7/seven 17. talk 18. habits 19. watch 20. special （16-20 题只要有错误，就算全错，包括单词的形式错误。） 第二部分 英语知识运用（共两大题，满分 30 分） Ⅴ. 单项选择（共 10小题；每小题 1分，满分 10分） 21-25 BCCDC 26-30 AADAD Ⅵ. 完形填空（共 20小题；每小题 1分，满分 20分） 31-35 ACABC 36-40 BCADD 41-45 BADAB 46-50 DABCD 第三部分 阅读理解（共两大题，满分 45 分） VII. 补全对话（共 5小题；每小题 1分，满分 5分） 51-55 EBFCG VIII. 阅读理解（共 20小题；每小题 2分，满分 40分） 56-58 CAB 59-62 DCDA 63-66 BADA 67-69 DCB 70-72 BCB 73. Twice a day. 74. He could hang shiny mirrors to scare birds away. / He could hang shiny mirrors. / By hanging shiny mirrors to scare birds away. / By hanging shiny mirrors. / He hung shiny mirrors to scare birds away. / He hung shiny mirrors. 75. (言之有理，即可得分) Success needs patience and wisdom. We can never achieve success without patience and wisdom. （评分标准：每小题 2 分。言之有理得 2 分；要点找到，但大小写、标点符号、时态、人 称等有错，得 1 分；要点未找到，得 0 分。） 第四部分 写（共四大题，满分 25 分） IX. 单词拼写（共 5 小题；每题 1 分，满分 5 分） 76. peace 77. stage 78. raise 79. greets 80. blind （76-80 题只要有错误，就算全错，包括单词的形式错误。） X. 书面表达（共 1小题；满分 20分） 略 评分标准： 评分原则： 本题总分为 20 分，按 5 个档次给分。 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量， 结合内容和语言表达，综合评定分数。 考生可根据要点适当发挥，加入自己的观点。 词数少于 80 的，从总分中减去 1 分。 4 拼写错误多，书写较差以致影响表达，在所确定档次的分数范围内，减去 1 分。 各档次的给分范围和要求： 第五档（很好）：（20-17 分） 完全完成了试题规定的任务，涵盖了所有内容要点，或在发挥时内容有新意或亮点；语 言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚。 第四档（好）：（16-13 分） 完成试题规定的任务，涵盖了基本的内容要点；语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达 基本清楚。 第三档（一般）：（12-9 分） 基本完成了试题规定的任务，写出了一些内容；语言有一些错误，行文不够连贯。 第二档（较差）：（8-5 分） 未能恰当完成试题规定的任务，只能写出个别要点；语言错误较多，未能清楚传达信息。 第一档（差）：（4-0 分） 未能完成试题规定的任务，只能写出与内容相关的一些单词；语言错误很多，未能清楚 传达信息。 2025年九年级质量调研检测 英语试卷 温馨提示: 1.本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分,考试时间为120分钟. 2.全卷共有试卷8页,答题卡2页,所有题目的答案均要填涂在答题卡上。 3.考试结束后,请将试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力部分(共四大题,满分20分) 台 1.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一 个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What is Mike's father? 智 过}品 B. C. 吾 立内拜 密 2. How does Anna keep healthy now ### C A. B. 3. Who did Jack go to the park with? B. His uncle. A. His father. C. His brother 4.What time is it now? B.9:30. A.9:15. C.9:45. 5. Where does the conversation probably take place? B. At a bus station A. In the street C. In a supermarket II. 长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一 个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 斑 听下面一段对话,回答第6至7小题。 6. What does the boy want to be in the future? B. AnAI engineer A. A space explorer. C. An environmental scientist 7. How does the book suggest we protect the earth? A. By saving the plants. B. By building smart robots C. By developing green technologies. 听下面一段对话,回答第8至10小题。 8. What is the competition about? 答 B. The Power of Stories A. The Power of Dreams. C. The Power of Speeches 9. What does the boy plan to do for the speech? A. Collect real-life stories B. Practice in front of the mirror. C. Record himself to improve pronunciation 2025年九年级质量调研检测英语试卷 第1页(共8页) 10. What will happen if they run over time? A.They will lose 2 points. B. They will lose 3 points. C. They will lose 5 points III. 短文理解(共5小题:每小题1分,满分5分 你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选 项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. When did Tony visit the science museum? B. Last Friday A. Last Monday. C. Last Saturday 12. How did Tony go to the science museum? B. By train A. By taxi. C.By coach 13. What did Lily think of the trip at first? B. Relaxing A.Amazing. C. Boring 14. What were the robots doing? B. They were taking photos A. They were dancing C. They were studying hard 15. What will they probably do after the trip? B. Share the experience A. Design a robot C. Buy the model spaceship IV.信息转换(共5小题:每小题1分,满分5分 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 The School Health Day Activity Date and Place in 16 days in our school sports hall Doctors givea_17 learn about some good 18 Students 19and learn how to make proper food Feelings a meaningful and 20day 第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题,满分30分) V.单项选择(共10小题:每小题1分,满分10分) 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21.-At the 2025 National Games, athletes showed excellent skills -Their wonderful performances brought to the fans. C. silence A. information B. plleasure D. pressure 22.-The school library has added hundreds of new books this term. -I borrowed last week. They are worth reading. B. one C. some A.it D. them 23. -Look! There is a set of keys on the ground. st. -Someone it and he must be very worried. B. is leaving A. leaves C. has left D. will leave 24.- Today children have more chances to different kinds of activities at school -Yes. Many schools realize the importance of students' all-round development C. look down on A. keep clear of B. put up with D. take part in 25. Nothing in the world is for one who sets his mind to it C. hard A. cute B. tiny D. sweet 26.-It's a good idea to check your suitcase before starting a journey. -Exactly. It helps save lots of trouble during the trip. C. suddenly B. sadly A. patiently D. luckily 27. Silk Road traders traveled deserts and mountains to connect Eastern and Western cultures C. around A. across B. above D. past 2025年九年级质量调研检测英语试卷 第2页(共8页) 28.-Fiona, what kind of music do you and your sister prefer? -I prefer pop music _ my sister enjoys rock music better A. if B. because C. after D. while 29.-Nowadays, more and more people are satisfied with their life -That's true. The government is making an effort to a best living environment for us. B. change C. admire A. create D. describe 30. -As long as you focus on the bright side when facing difficulties, you won't feel too down _. Everything has two sides. A. No problem B. It doesn't matter C. My pleasure D. I couldn't agree more VI.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分) 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 46-year-old Xiong Liang is a nurse at Hunan Children's Hospital. On Jume 15, 2024, she 31 a 1f stall(摊位) near Liuyang River. There she teaches people how to do emergency rescue (抢救) acts, such as Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) (心肺复苏). She has 32 more than 12,oo0 people. She found that most parents had little 33 about emergency rescue skills, so she thought about teaching them in public. Before Xiong's-first lesson, she 34 that people might not be interested. However, after she explained to people what she was doing, many of them stopped by the stall and showed a strong 35. Her first lesson lasted more than two hours. "It might look 36 when you see others doing CPR, but doing it yourself reauires skills." Xiong Liang said. Therefore, she often 37 people's hands to show them the right movements and how hard and fast they should press. As the weather became 38 , Xiong would move her stall indoors to keep warm. Zhou Lingzhu listened to Xiong Liang's lessons on December 14, 2024. "You never know when accidents might happen, so you should learn such knowledge e 39 ,"she said."It is a wonderful thing if I can save others with the 40 . I'm sure I'll come every week." B. put away C. tidied up 31.A. set up D. took away B. found C. taught 32. A. interviewed D. checked B. luck C. time 33. A. knowledge D. energy C. wished B. worried 34. A. regretted D. promised C. interest B. shame 35.A. fear D. stress B. easy C. popular 36. A. strange D. fair C. held B. washed 37.A. shook D. tied C. warmer B. cooler 38.A. colder D. hotter C. carelessly B. aimlessly 39. A. nervously D. seriously C. wealth B. warning 40. A. comfort D. ability B Chinese martial arts, also called Wushu or Kungfu, is an important part of Chinese culture, It started long ago when 41 Chinese people needed hunting skills and protecting themselves. In order to hunt and fight against wild 142 , people invented simple tools and slowly 43 low-level skills, such as cutting and stabbing(刺). With the progress of society, Chinese people have improved these skills and developed them into Wushu movements. The movements are 44and practiced over centuries. In the following years, some movements are even created to 45 Wushu dances, which are of great yalue. Because of films and television works, such as the Shaolin Temple, the Shaolin Kungfu has become 46 . Now it's one of the most well-known Chinese martial arts and the Shaolin Temple is seen as a place for people who are 47 about martial arts. Wushu teaches people how to 48 their body and mind. They help build a strong body and also train mental(精神) strength(力量). Learners must follow the moral(道德的) requirements of respecting 2025年九年级质量调研检测英语试卷 第3页(共8页) others, being responsible and helping others 49 , which plays an important role in making the 50 safe. In this way, they help to build a safe and friendly environment for people to live in. B. ancient 41.A. friendly D. polite B. flowers 42.A. animals D. mountains 43.A.lost B. dropped D. mastered B. calledoff 44. A. passed down C. showed off D. turned down B. form C. stop 45.A.test D. end C. useless B. simple 46.A. weak D. famous B. angry C. negative 47.A.crazy D. disappointed B. balance C. hide 48.A. hurt C. bravely D. trouble B. lazily 49. A. slowly C.food D. painfully B. truth 50. A. traffic D. society 第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题,满分45分) V11.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。 A:Hi. Mary!51. B: Yes, I have finished my homework 密封线内不要答题 A: Let's see a movie in the Sunshine Cinema B:52. What's showing at the cinema tonight? A: An action movie and a cartoon movie. A. Take your time. B:53. It's my favourite B. That's a good idea A: Me, too. What's your favourite cartoon? C. What about you? B: The Lion King. 54. D. You can't be serious B: My favourite is Spider -Man E. Are you free this evening A:55. F. I prefer to see a cartoon movie A: Ne Zha 2. It's very exciting and popular now G. What cartoon will be on this evening? B: So great. I like Ne Zha. He is a real hero in my heart V111.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分) 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 , If it was sunlight shining If it was sunlight shining I'd know that it was day I'd gobble(狼吞虎咽地吃) down my breakfast then hurry out to play If it was sunlight shining. I would not be indoors, I'd race around the garden I'd fill the air with laughter If it was sunlight shining I'd be a chimpanzee. I'd run, I'd jump, I'd tumble(翻滚) I'd climb up a tree. But it is moonlight shining my eyes are getting red. my head is full of cobwebs(蜘蛛网) and I am off to bed 2025年九年级质量调研检测英语试卷 第4页(共8页) 56. Who probably writes the poem A. A busy worker. B. A careful driver C. A young student D. A famous scientist 57. What's the meaning of the underlined word "chimpanzee"? C.Asport. B.Ameal. A. An animal. D. A plant. 58. What does the writer most likely wish to do in the poem? A. Go to sleep B. Play outside. C. Eat breakfast D. Stay indoors B 告 On September 1. 2o24, Yao Miao made history as the first Chinese woman to win the 50-kilomete race at the famous Ultra Trail du Mont-Blanc (UTMB, 勃朗峰超级越野耐力赛). This adds to her earlier success in 2o18, when she became the first Chinese woman to win the 1oo-kilometer race at the UTMB The UTMB is one of the world's most well-known trail running(越野跑) events, taking place every year in the beautiful Mont-Blanc area, covering parts of France, Italy and Switzerland. This year, Yao completed a 57-km course. "I started off a bit slow, but after 20 km, I felt stronger, especially on the downhills.:It's all about knowing when to save energy and when to push hard," Yao explained. Yao's love for running began in her childhood in the countryside of Guizhou. Her school was four 吾} kilometers from home, and she walked the distance four times a day. Growing up in the mountains gave , her a toughness(坚韧) that later helped her as a runner. In 2019, Yao was recommended to join the Hubei provincial team as a professional(专业的) runner She was later accepted into Central China Normal University in 2020. Balancing professional training R- 耗带 with her studies, Yao trains in Yunnan, running about 30 kilometers a day. In her free time, she takes online courses. Though she doesn't have much time to explore her university, Yao said, "When I have time, I will fully enjoy it." 59. What did Yao Miao achieve in 2018? A. She joined the Hubei provincial team B. She won the 50-kilometer UTMB race C. She was accepted into Central China Normal University D. She became the first Chinese woman to win the 1oo km UTMB race 60. How many kilometers did Yao Miao walk daily to school as a child? B.8km. A.4km. C.16km. D.20km. 61. Which of the following best describes Yao Miao? C.Caring. 斑 A.Shy. B. Honest D. Hard-working 62. In which part of a magazine can we read the text? B. History. C. Science. A. Sport. D. Fashion C Many of us have tried bubble(气泡) tea. In fact, bubble tea first appeared in Taiwan in the 1980s. It mixes tea, milk, sugar, and so on The name "bubble tea" comes from the bubbles created when shaking the tea. Today, it has become one of the most popular drinks among teenagers in China. Have you ever heard of "Chayan Yuese"? It's the super popular tea brand(品牌) in China, especially in Changsha. There are many flavors(风味) to choose from, like classic milk tea, fruity orange, or even chocolate 2025年九年级质量调研检测英语试卷 第5页(共8页) Some shops in Hefei even create unusual flavors using local products, such as green tea from Huangshan Many young people enjoy taking photos of their colorful bubble tea and sharing them online. Why is bubble tea so popular? First, it tastes sweet and refreshing. Second, you can choose the sugar level, ice amount(数量), and things like red beans. Third, bubble tea shops are often comfortable places for friends to chat However, doctors remind us that bubble tea includes a lot of sugar. Drinking too much may lead to health problems. They suggest enjoying it as a treat once a week instead of every day. Looking to the future, some companies are trying to make healthier bubble tea with less sugar and natural fruits 63. Where was bubble tea invented? 二 A. InHefei. B. In Taiwan. C. InChangsha. D. In Huangshan 64. What does the underlined word "them" in paragraph 2 refer to (指的是) B. Teashops. C. Young people A. Photos. D. Local products 65. What do doctors suggest about drinking bubble tea? A. Shake it hard. B. Drink it every day. C. Put more sugar in it D. Enjoy it once a week 66. What is the main idea of the passage? ) A. The facts about bubble tea. B. The brands of bubble tea C. The way to make bubble tea D. The bright future of bubble tea P D DeepSeek is a Chinese technology company that focuses on Artificial Intelligence (AD. It was founded in 2023 with a clear goal: to make AI systems smarter and more helpful for humans. The company's name "DeepSeek" comes from"deep learning" (a key AI technology) and "seek" (meaning "to search for answers") The team at DeepSeek works on high-level AI technologies like natural language processing (处理) These technologies help computers understand human languages and recognize different pictures. For example their AI tools can read long articles quickly, answer questions, or even create simple stories One important area for DeepSeek is education. They develop AI programs to help students learn better. These programs can explain math problems step by step, check grammar mistakes in English articles, or recommend personalized study plans. Some schools in Anhui have started testing these tools and teachers say they save time while making classes more interesting DeepSeek also cares about safety. They have rules to ensure their AI always follows human values "We want AI to be a friendly helper, not a problem," says CEO Li Ming. The company often works with universities to improve AI technologies Looking ahead. DeepSeek plans to create AI that can better understand real-world needs. Their dream is to build AI that helps solve big challenges like climate change or disease research. 67. What is the goal of DeepSeek? A. To develop tools for our work. B. To understand human languages C. To take the place of teachers with AI D. To make AI systems smarter and more helpful 68. What does DeepSeek do to ensure AI safety? A. Recognize different pictures B. Understand real-world needs C. Make rules to follow human values D. Work with universities to improve technologies 69. Which of the following is the best title(标题) for the text? A. The Change of the Climate B. An AI Company Helping Humans C. The Advantage of Education D. A CEO in a Technology Company 乙 2025年九年级质量调研检测英语试卷 第6页(共8页) E ## 11 Have your ever wondered what it would be like if you did not feel any pain? You could touch a hot pot and not feel a burn or get a cut without experiencing the pain. Not feeling pain might seem like having a superpower, but it is actually very dangerous! Some people are bom with the inability to feel any pain. They have a disorder called Congenital Insensitivity to Pain(CIP. 无痛症). People with CIP can put their hands on a hot pot and not feel the bum The problem is that they would most likely keep their hands on the hot pot, and the burn could get really bad Their bodies do not send pain messages to the brain letting them know that something is wrong and that they should take care of their iniuries(损伤) or illnesses. They don't have the alarm bell signaling(信号) that they are hurt, sick, or that they should avoid certain situations to stay healthy IX People with CiP do not feel pain because their nociceptors(痛觉感受器) do not work properly. Their nociceptors are underdeveloped which means that they cannot send the pain messages from the body to the 76 ”r brain. If the pain messages never reach certain parts of the brain, it is impossible to feel pain. People with CIP must be extra careful with their bodies. They must be more careful and go to the doctor more often to make sure that they are in good health 70. What will happen to people with CIP? A. They cannot communicate with doctors B. They might not notice that they are hurt 80 C. They may forget to take care of their injuries D. They are unable to sense temperature changes 71. What should people with CIP do with the problem? X. A. Value the inability. B. Buy the alarm bell C. See the doctor often D. Send the pain messages. 以 72. What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To encourage people to have a superpower. B. To explain why feeling pain is important for human C. To describe how nociceptors send signals to the brain D. To warn people to avoid useless and dangerous actions 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求) F One summer, 15-year-old Mike decided to grow sunflowers. He planted seeds(种子) in his backyard and watered them twice a day. After four days, seeing no sprouts(发芽), he dug up the seeds angrily. His neighbor, Ms White, noticed this and gave him new seeds."Wait patiently," she smiled. This time, Mike did his best to check them every day. A #22# week later, tiny green sprouts appeared! Excited, he watered them heavily as usual. But the next morning, the young plants died. Ms White explained, "Too much water makes roots(根系) die." Mike tried again. He watered properly, added plant food weekly, and removed grass. On the 15th day, strong stems() grew. However, hungry birds started eating the leaves. Li Ming almost gave up, but Ms White taught him to hang shiny mirrors to scare birds away, Ms White said, "We can never achieve success without patience and wisdom." Finally, after two months, golden sunflowers came out, taller than Mike! At the school gardening 2025年九年级质量调研检测英语试卷 第7页(共8页) show, his sunflowers won first prize. When asked about his success, Mike said," 73. How often did Mike water seeds in his backyard? (不超过 5 个词) 74. How could Mike protect the plants from birds according to the text?(不超过 1o 个词) 75. What would Mike say at the end of the text? (不超过 10 个词) 第四部分 写(共四大题,满分25分) IX.单词拼写(共5小题;每题1分,满分5分) 根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。 76. True p_(平和) grows when we learn to listen with understanding. 77. On the s _(舞台) of life, every effort you make today will pay off 78. It is common for families to r _(词养) dogs and cats in the city. 79. The teacher g(问候) all the students warmly at the school gate every morning 密 封线内不 80. Though sometimes we may be b(盲 目的) to the future, keeping confident will light our way X.书面表达(共1小题:满分20分) 每个人都有自己的优点(strength),比如善良(kindness)、创造力(creativity)等。请结合自身经历, 以EveryoneHasHisOwnStrength为题写一篇短文,向学校英文报投稿。要点如下 1.发现优点; 2. 描述事迹; 3..... 要 注意: 答题 1. 词数80~100(首句以为你写好,不计入总词数); 2. 文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称: 3. 短文须包含上述要点,语言流畅,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。 Everyone Has His Own Strength In our life, all of us have strengths that make us shine 2025年九年级质量调研检测英语试卷 第8页(共8页)2025年九年级质量调研检测英语听力一短对话理解，你将听到5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题请，在每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出一个最佳选项，每段对话读两遍。One. mike, is your father a doctor? No, he's an artist. He's good at painting plants. Mike, is your father a doctor? No, he's an artist. He's good at painting plants. To . anna, how do you keep healthy in your daily life? I used to to swim, but now I like riding a bike. I think it's an easy way. Anna, how do you keep healthy in your daily life? I used to do swim, but now I like riding a bike. I think it's an easy way. Three, jack, did you go to the park with your father or your uncle? neither. I went to the park with my brother. We both had found there. Jack, did you go to the park with your father or your uncle? neither. I went to the park with my brother. We both had found there. For hurry up. will be late for the train. Don't worry, the trend leaves at nine thirty. We still have fifteen minutes left. Hurry up, we'll be late for the train. Don't worry, the train leaves at nine thirty. We still have fifteen minutes left. Five. excuse me, is there a bus station near here? I want to go to the some supermarket. Well, you don't need to take a bus. Go straight and you can see IT on the left. Excuse me, is there a bus station near here? I want to go to the some supermarket. Well, you don't need to take a bus, go straight, and you can see IT on the left. 2、长对话理解。你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题请，在每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍，听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。Hi Nancy. What are you reading? The future scientists IT introduces different science jobs like space explorer, AI engineers and environmental scientists. Sounds cool. I want to be an AI engineer in the future. What about you? I'm interested in the environmental science. The book suggests we help the earth by developing Green technologies. That's great. Maybe we can work together someday. You save the plants and I build smart robots. 哈哈。Hi Nancy. What are you reading? The future scientists IT introduces different science jobs like space explorer, AI engineers and environmental scientists. Sounds cool. I want to be an AI engineer in the future. What about you? I'm interested in the environmental science. The book suggests we have the earth by developing Green technologies. That's great. Maybe we can work together someday. You save the plants and I build smart robots. 哈哈。听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。Hey, jack. are you going to take part in the english speech competition? Yes, I have already signed up is about the power of dreams, right? That's right. And each speech should be three to five minutes long. Got IT. How do you prepare for IT? Well, I plan to collect real life stories and practiced speech in front of the mirror. Good idea. I'm going to record myself to improve my pronunciation. Let's help each other and do our best. But i'm worried about the time. What if I talk too fast or too slow? Me too. We can time ourselves when we practice. If is too short, add some examples. If too long, call some less important parts. Okay, do we lose points? If we run over time? Yes, we will lose two points. We must get the time right. Hey, jack, are you going to take part in the english speech competition? Yes, I have already signed up. It's about the power of dreams, right? That's right. And each speech should be three to five minutes long. Got IT. How do you prepare for IT? Well, I plan to collect real life stories and practiced speech in front of the mirror. Good idea. I'm going to record myself to improve my pronunciation. Let's help each other and do our best. But i'm worried about the time. What if I talk too fast or too slow? Me too. We can time ourselves when we practice. If is too short, add some examples. If too long, call some less important parts. Okay, do we lose points? If we run over time? Yes, we will lose two points. We must get the time right. 3、短文理解。你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题请，根据短文内容，在每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出一个最佳选项，短文读两遍。Tony is usually busy from monday to friday. Last saturday, he invited his friend lily to visit shanghai science and technology museum. IT is quite far from their home, so they went there by train instead of by coach. At first, lily thought the trip would be boring. However, to their surprise, what they experience ed was amazing. Lily is good at taking photos, so SHE could use photos to remember the whole trip. They spend time seeing different things at the robot area. Some robots were dancing when they arrived at the space area, they saw a big spaceship. The guy said, as long as you study hard, you can become astronauts one day. They felt so surprised at the progress of china, and they couldn't wait to share this experience with their family. Tony is usually busy from monday to friday. Last saturday, he invited his friend lily to visit shanghai science and technology museum. IT is quite far from their home, so they went there by train instead of by coach. At first, lily sauce, the trip would be boring. However, to their surprise, what's the experienced was amazing. Lily is good at taking photos, so SHE could use photos to remember the whole trip. They spend time saying different things in at the robot area. Some robots were dancing when they arrived at the space area, they saw a big spaceship. The guide said. As long as you study hard, you can become astronauts one day. They felt so surprised at the progress of china, and they couldn't wait to share this experience with their family. 4、信息转换。你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空只填一词，短文读两遍。Our school healthy y activity is coming soon. The activity will take place in the week in our school sports hall. During the activity, our school will invite some famous doctors to give students a talk on healthy eating. IT aims to encourage more students to develop healthy habits. You can also learn about some good habits that can improve your health. After the talk, you will watch and learn how to make proper food with the help of them. Finally, students will be asked to share their food with others. Everyone hopes to have a meaningful and special day this year. We believe that this healthy activity will not only help us get healthier, but also bring us lots of fun. Our school health day activity is coming soon. The activity will take place in a week in our school sports hall. During the activity, our school will invite some famous doctors to give students a talk on healthy eating. IT aims to encourage more students to develop healthy habits. You can also learn about to some good habits that can improve your house. After the talk, you will watch and learn how to make proper food with the help of them. Finally, students will be asked to share their food with others. Everyone hopes to have a meaningful and special day this year. We believe that this health day activity will not only help us get healthier, but also bring us lots of fun. 听力部分到此结束。