江苏省扬州市广陵区江苏省扬州中学2024-2025学年高二下学期4月期中英语试题

江苏省扬州中学2024-2025学年第二学期期中试题 高二英语 2025.04 试卷满分: 150分，考试时间: 120分钟 注意事项: 1. 答卷前，请考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等写在答题卡上并贴上条形码。 2. 将选择题答案填写在答题卡的指定位置上(使用机读卡的用2B铅笔在机读卡上填涂)，非选择题一律在答题卡上作答，在试卷上答题无效。 3. 考试结束后，请将机读卡和答题卡交监考人员。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. When will the speakers probably study together? A. At four o’clock. B. At six o’clock. C. At eight o’clock. 2. Which restaurant will the speakers probably go to? A. Mario’s. B. Luigi’s. C. Gino’s. 3. What does the man want to do tonight? A. Watch football on TV. B. Buy some books. C. Go to a basketball game. 4. Who might Mary be? A. The woman’s dog. B. The man’s daughter. C. The man’s neighbor. 5. What is the woman doing? A. Working. B. Apologizing. C. Expressing her thanks. 第二节 (共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the man doing at the start of the conversation? A. Talking on the phone. B. Typing a text message. C. Writing an email. 7. What will the man do tomorrow? A. Take a test. B. Travel with the woman. C. Attend an important meeting. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Why didn’t the man show his driver’s license? A. He didn’t drive there. B. He left it at home. C. He doesn’t have one. 9. What do we know about the man? A. He serves in the army. B. He is a student. C. He doesn’t have any money. 10. What will the man probably do next? A. Go home. B. Call his mother for help. C. Open a new account. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. How does the woman probably feel? A. She feels that the man is strange. B. She feels embarrassed. C. She feels excited. 12. What will happen after the man makes the phone call? A. He will be sent an email. B. He will receive some money. C. He will be given more information. 13. What will the man do next? A. Leave for the bathroom. B. Get on a train. C. Change seats. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. How does the woman describe Eleanor Roosevelt? A. Independent. B. Humorous. C. Shy. 15. How long should the woman’s report be? A. Five pages long. B. Ten pages long. C. Twenty pages long. 16. What is the man’s advice? A. Include all the facts. B. Choose only well-known facts. C. Select the main points. 17. Where is the man’s computer? A. In his classroom. B. In his roommate’s room. C. In the woman’s apartment. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What does the man need help with? A. The planting. B. The harvest. C. The building. 19. What did the owner of the horse agree to do? A. Give the man a discount. B. Let the man try out the animal. C. Give the man the best horse. 20. What happened in the end? A. The man sent the horse back. B. The man began to like the horse. C. The man got the horse as a gift. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。 A Here are some national parks that offer the best grizzly bear (灰熊) viewing opportunities. Yellowstone National Park, Wyoming, Montana and Idaho A wildlife paradise in the heart of North America, wildlife watching in Yellowstone National Park is unparalleled. This huge park—the first national park in the world—is the best place to see large animals in the U.S. Home to huge numbers of resident and migratory birds, as well as the largest concentration of mammals anywhere in the lower 48 states, Yellowstone is a wildlife viewer’s dream. Grand Teton National Park, Wyoming Located just south of and connected to Yellowstone by the scenic John D. Rockefeller Memorial Parkway, Grand Teton National Park is also part of the Greater Yellowstone Ecosystem. You’ll find basically the same animals in Grand Teton as in Yellowstone, including moose, elk, American bison, black bears and grizzly bears. Grizzly bears migrate in and out of the park all the time, so there’s no official number of grizzlies in Grand Teton National Park. There’s always a few of them around, though! Glacier National Park, Montana Together with its Canadian neighbor Waterton Lakes National Park, Glacier National Park makes up the UNESCO World Heritage-listed Glacier-Waterton Lakes International Peace Park. Both parks are home to a healthy and sizable population of grizzly bears, as well as numerous other animals. DNA sampling studies in the Crown of the Continent Ecosystem, which includes both Glacier and Waterton Lakes National Parks, have put the number of grizzly bears in the region at around 300. 21. Which of the following share the same ecosystem? A. Yellowstone National Park and Grand Teton National Park. B. Yellowstone National Park and Waterton Lakes National Park. C. Grand Teton National Park and Glacier National Park. D. Grand Teton National Park and Waterton Lakes National Park. 22. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Yellowstone National Park boasts the largest concentration of mammals in the U.S. B. Glacier National Park has a population of grizzly bears at around 300. C. There is no guarantee on the number of grizzly bears in Grand Teton National Park. D. Yellowstone National Park is not attractive to birdwatchers. 23. Where is the text probably taken from? A. A travel magazine. B. A scientific journal. C. A traveler’s diary. D. A geography textbook. B At 60, mother-of-five Liz Earle is energised, clear-headed, and understands that the way she lives her life will give her the best chance of longevity (长寿). Earle, who sold her beauty company in 2010, isn’t one for standing still. She went on to found the Liz Earle Wellbeing magazine, continues with TV appearances, launched the charity LiveTwice, hosts a weekly podcast, and has written 36 books, including her latest, A Better Second Half, a manifesto (宣言) for midlife women. She was in denial about ageing for a while. She says: “I turned 60 last year and I didn’t want to acknowledge it. In my mother’s generation, 60 was grey hair, twinset and pearls, and slippers. I feel so far removed from that stereotype (刻板印象).” Earle, though, has defied the numbers. When she was in her mid-50s, she had her biological markers of age tested, which showed her biological age to be 39. It’s now 45, but in the next few years she intends on getting that marker down. In her late 50s, Earle experienced a lot of upheavals in her personal life, divorcing her second husband and failing in investment. “Starting again in my mid-50s was challenging but also energising, because it was an opportunity for a fresh start,” she reflects. “I felt like I was being given a second chance. And I want to encourage other women who feel that they are washed up, too.” The wellness advice she offers in the book is backed by scientific data, and it’s clear that Earle has done a lot of research in the three years it took to write it; she offers all manner of ways to maintain good health. She is concerned that midlife women don’t prioritise themselves. “Society marginalises (使微不足道) midlife women—we become invisible, we become irrelevant, whether that’s because we’re losing our looks, or we’re losing our relevance in society. And, actually, that shouldn’t be the case. We’re the clever, wise ones who have lived through it,” she explains. “Ageing is a gift,” Earle continues, “Even when I was running the beauty company, we never used the term anti-ageing well—keeping cognitive function, keeping mobility, having a purpose.” Now, Earle is embracing all the good things that age has brought her, recently welcoming her first grandchild into the world, and she says she is looking forward to the next decade. 24. What do we know about Liz Earle? A. She used to work as an employee in a beauty company. B. She steps out of the comfort zone and embraces changes. C. She believes she fits the stereotype of the 60-year-olds. D. She offered wellness advice without any scientific proof. 25. What does the underlined word “upheavals” in paragraph 5 mean? A. Unfair treatments. B. Heavy burdens. C. Sharp criticisms. D. Unpleasant changes. 26. According to paragraph 7, what does Earle encourage midlife women to do? A. To fight against ageing. B. To regain their wisdom. C. To put themselves first. D. To accept plastic surgery. 27. What’s Earle’s attitude towards ageing? A. Pitiful. B. Grateful. C. Fearful. D. Doubtful. C When you reach 10, 000 steps in a day, your fitness app rewards you with virtual stars and fireworks. Similarly, when you practice a language for several days in a row, you earn a “bonus” and are encouraged to keep it going. Many companies and apps use these types of features to make tasks more engaging and motivate people to achieve their goals. Business consultants promised that gamifying work could help motivate employees by making tasks more exciting. Instead of changing the nature of the work itself, gamification changes its presentation, using rewards and competition to make goal achievement feel more fun. However, recent studies have shown that gamification does not always work as expected. Ethan Mollick and Nancy Rothbard conducted an experiment to test the effectiveness of gamification in the workplace. They worked with a group of salespeople who were tasked with convincing businesses to offer coupons (优惠券) for products sold on their company’s website. The salespeople earned rewards based on how many coupons they sold. To make the work more exciting, Mollick and Rothbard created a basketball-themed game where salespeople earned points for each deal closed, with bigger deals earning more points. The names of top performers were displayed on giant screens, and regular emails updated everyone on who was winning. The top performer received a bottle of wine as a prize. Despite these efforts, the game did not improve sales or make employees feel more motivated. In fact, salespeople who disliked the game reported feeling worse about their work, and their performance even declined slightly. The game only helped those who bought into it, making them feel more engaged. At its best, gamification seems to work when it helps people achieve the goals they want to reach anyway by making the process of goal achievement more exciting. When people fully accept a game, the results can be impressive. However, when designed to encourage people to do something they don’t particularly care to do, it can backfire. What matters most is how the people playing the game feel about it. 28. What is the main purpose of gamification? A. To make work more enjoyable. B. To change the nature of work itself. C. To replace traditional reward systems. D. To discourage people from achieving goals. 29. What did Mollick and Rothbard find in their experiment? A. Employees were confused by rewards. B. All employees were not motivated by the game. C. The game increased overall sales performance. D. People who purchased games closed more deals. 30. Gamification works best when ________. A. tasks are challenging. B. rewards are financial. C. it matches people’s goals. D. people are forced to participate. 31. Which of the following would be the best title for the article? A. The Importance of Playing Games in Business. B. The Challenges of Using Technologies Effectively. C. The Benefits of Reward Systems in the Workplace. D. The Impact of Gamification on Motivating People. D In a world of music streaming services, access to almost any song is just a few clicks away. Yet, the live concert lives on. People still poured into concert halls to hear their favourite musicians play. And now neuroscientists might know why: live music engages the brain’s emotion centres more than recorded music. Concerts are immersive (沉浸式的) social experiences in which people listen to and feel the music together. Moreover, they are dynamic—artists can adapt their playing according to the crowd’s reaction. It was this last difference that led neuroscientists, based at the Universities of Zurich and Oslo, to study the brain responses of people listening to music. In the “live” experiment, participants lay in an MRI scanner listening to the music through earphones, while a pianist was positioned outside the room. The pianist was shown the participant’s real-time brain activity as a form of feedback. In the recorded condition, participants listened to pre-recorded versions of the same tunes. The scientists were interested in how live music affected the areas of the brain responsible for processing emotions, particularly the amygdala, an area deep inside the brain. The results, just published in the journal PNAS, revealed that live music had a significantly greater emotional impact. Whether the music conveyed happiness or sadness, dynamic live performances led to increased activity not only in the amygdala but also other parts of the brain’s emotion processing network. The researchers also found that participants’ brain activity tracked the acoustic (声学的) features of the music, like tempo and pitch, far more closely when it was played live. While the study didn’t fully recreate the live concert experience, the findings suggest that artists’ ability to adjust their performance in real time contributes to the emotional resonance (共鸣) of live music. Some musical acts now attempt to recreate live concerts, such as ABBA Voyage, an immersive pre-recorded VR concert, but without artists’ capacity to read audience’s mood and respond accordingly, it will never quite match the real thing. 32. What caused the scientists to study music listeners’ brain response? A. People’s preference to recorded music. B. The important social function of concerts. C. The changeable characteristic of live music. D. The easy accessibility of streaming services. 33. How does scientists conduct the experiment? A. By comparing brain responses. B. By observing the crowds’ reaction. C. By analyzing participants’ feedback. D. By scanning listeners’ brain structure. 34. Why does live music feel better than recorded music? A. It offers a more traditional and raw sound. B. It engages the brain’s emotion centers more. C. It produces a sense of community and shared energy. D. It guarantees a deeper understanding of the music. 35. What does the author think of ABBA Voyage in the last paragraph? A. It fails to create a perfect performing atmosphere. B. It matches the sound quality of live performances. C. It greatly stirs up the audience’s emotional response. D. It lacks artists’ response based on audience’s feedback. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Future astronauts could potentially rely on food made from bacteria (细菌) that feed on minor planets, to produce a kind of yogurt. While astronauts on the International Space Station have experimented with growing salad leaves, the vast majority of food consumed in space is transported from Earth. 36 That’s why Joshua Pearce at Western University in Ontario, Canada, decided to try using bacteria to change carbon-containing (含碳的) material from minor planets into eatable food. This process has not been carried out yet on real minor planets. But Pearce’s team has performed similar experiments using bacteria to break down plastic from leftover in army food supply bags. 37 The collective bacteria end up looking something like a brown milkshake and the team has also experimented with drying out this material to produce something like yogurt or even a powder. 38 “We did a nutritional (营养的) research and it turned out to be almost a perfect food,” he says. “It turned out that the bacteria mixture that we were using, more or less, has a third each for the three major nutrients people need.” If the idea is sound, a 500-metre-wide minor planet similar to Bennu, which NASA visited in 2020, could feed between 600 and 17,000 astronauts for a year, says Pearce. 39 A fully working minor planets food project would require an “industrial-sized smart machine” in space. This would take quite a long time to get everything in place. 40 They plan to start off with coal and then moving to space rocks that have fallen to Earth. A. It would be impossible for more distant, longer-lasting tasks. B. So the researchers hope to test the idea on a lower level in the coming year. C. Future astronauts could soon enjoy a nutritionally perfect diet made from bacteria. D. While that might not sound delicious, Pearce says the bacteria are well-suited for human needs. E. They heated the plastic without oxygen and then fed this to a mixture of bacteria that eat carbon. F. Although there is certainly hope, it is still a very futuristic idea that needs to be thought through. G. The exact number depends on how effectively the bacteria can break down the minor planet’s carbon materials. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last month, I completed my Level 2 Chinese lessons. As the class 41 and we said goodbyes to our teacher, there was little 42 in my mind about what to do next: to visit the Confucius Temple. Once inside, I quickly realized that this was actually my second visit. The first had been a 43 affair included in a trip to the Yonghegong Lama Temple, which took much longer to 44 . Since I did not remember much of details from back then, this visit felt as good as 45 . What 46 vividly as soon as I entered the courtyard was a statue of Confucius. Visitors were busy taking photographs and a middle-aged man was urging a young boy to 47 and pray. It must seem awe-inspiring for the little one. As he grows up, the schoolboy will no doubt come to 48 the great change Confucius brought on basic literacy by giving everyone a(n) 49 opportunity to attend school. There is much to thank Confucius for: his remarkable 50 to the country’s moral compass, his effort to teach future generations the value of honesty, hard work, and respect for fellow beings— 51 , the Confucian ethos (道德观)—that are what we find 52 in Chinese society. As I went with crowds of well-behaved citizens, the fruits of a seed sown long ago became quite 53 to me. This visit to the Confucius Temple was not 54 a tour; it was a pilgrimage (朝圣), allowing me to pay respect to the wisdom that has continued to 55 Chinese society for thousands of years. 41. A. carried on B. kicked off C. wound up D. fell behind 42. A. confusion B. pressure C. expectation D. fantasy 43. A. rushed B. packed C. required D. delayed 44. A. restore B. inspect C. reach D. explore 45. A. precious B. new C. lucky D. inspiring 46. A. burst out B. stood out C. turned out D. checked out 47. A. shoot B. move C. pose D. stretch 48. A. make B. promote C. identify D. appreciate 49. A. equal B. rare C. ideal D. unique 50. A. appeal B. access C. solution D. contribution 51. A. in general B. in particular C. in short D. in effect 52. A. somewhere B. everywhere C. anywhere D. nowhere 53. A. familiar B. novel C. remote D. apparent 54. A. absolutely B. really C. merely D. necessarily 55. A. shape B. divide C. repay D. contact 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。 Chinese people 56 (appreciate) the beauty of lanterns for years. Like a beacon (灯塔) 57 lights up the way home, it is customary 58 (admire) the charm of lanterns during Lantern Festival and Mid-Autumn Festival, two festivals that celebrate reunion. Lantern shows 59 (hold) throughout the country on such occasions. Yuyuan Lantern Show in Shanghai and Qinhuai Lantern Show in Nanjing, East China’s Jiangsu province, are two 60 (note) shows. In Northeast China, shows are held on snow and ice, where crystallized sculptures create a fairytale of light and color. The custom of 61 (enjoy) lanterns on festivals began in Zigong as early as the Tang Dynasty (618-907). Most Chinese lanterns are made with wire 62 (structure) and fabric coverings. To add to its beauty, Zigong artisans also use a variety of materials, such as silk, paper, bamboo, straw, cocoon and even porcelain. Lantern production is now 63 driving force for the local economy, as most of large-scale lanterns 64 (use) in festive shows are produced in Zigong. The annual Zigong Lantern Show is also a major attractor for the city’s tourism. 65 (visit) flock to Zigong to enjoy lanterns, as well as a variety of other recreational activities. For the Chinese, lanterns have not only lit up the night, but also illuminated hearts that long for home. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分15分） 假定你是李华，你们班最近组织了一次“时间胶囊”活动，每位同学都存放了一件物品到一个密封的容器中，计划十年后打开。请你给英国朋友Chris写一封邮件分享这次活动，内容包括： （1）你存放的物品及理由； （2）你对此次活动的感想。 注意： （1）写作词数应为80个左右； （2）请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。 Dear Chris, I’m excited to share with you the “Time Capsule” activity our class recently organized. Best wishes, Li Hua 第二节 读后续写（满分25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 The Toy Tree It was a bare tree with thin branches which looked like they might break at any moment, but it was the only tree in the estate gardens. In spring, the tree cheered up the grey concrete with its blossom. And, in summer, its shade comforted the restless heat. Gabe loved the tree. He and his friends played by it all the time. The tree’s blessing for the community, but not for Mr. Snider, the caretaker, who hated the tree. When he had to mow (割) the grass around it or sweep its blossoms or fallen leaves from the path, he would grumble (咕哝), “It’s in my way.” or “Who has to clean up all this mess? Me, that’s who!” Sometimes he threatened to cut it down. One morning before the coming New Year, Gabe spotted him walked towards the tree with a chainsaw (电锯). He shouted, “Mum!! What’s Mr. Snider doing?” Mum put down her knitting needles—she was knitting everyone scarves and came over to the window. Gabe grabbed her hand and ran down two flights of stairs to the garden. Soon they were standing between Mr. Snider and the tree. “Out of my way,” said the caretaker. “Time for this eyesore (眼中钉) to go.” “This eyesore is of great public interest.” Mum tried to sound important. “And we love this tree,” begged Gabe. “Not a good enough reason.” Mr. Snider was getting his chainsaw ready. Gabe desperately tried to think of more reasons to keep the tree, then he remembered the toy tree he’d seen in town. It had colourful gift tags on it and written on every tag was the name of a toy a child had wished for. Mum had explained to him that if someone took a tag and bought the gift on it, the charity would send it to a child who might not get New Year presents. 注意： 1. 续写词数应为150 左右; 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Gabe said, “It is going to be a toy tree.” By the weekend, the charity tags had arrived. 答案 第I卷（选择题，共95分） 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 1---5 ABCBB 6---10 BCCBA 11---15 ACBAB 16---20 CBBBA 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） A篇：21-23 ACA B篇：24-27 BDCB C篇：28-31 ABCD D篇：32-35 CABD 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 36-40 AEDGB 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 41-45 CAADB 46-50 BCDAD 51-55 CBDCA 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 56. have appreciated 57. that/which 58. to admire 59. are held 60. notable 61. enjoying 62. structures 63. a 64. used 65. Visitors 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分15分） Dear Chris, I’m excited to share with you the “Time Capsule” activity our class recently organized. We each placed an item into a sealed container to be opened in ten years! I chose to put in a handwritten journal from my high school years. It’s filled with daily reflections, funny moments with friends, and my thoughts about the future. I hope that revisiting these pages in a decade will remind me of who I am today and how much I’ve grown. This activity made me realize how precious memories are and how time shapes us. It’s inspiring to think about reconnecting with our past selves someday. I truly cherish this chance to “dialogue” across time. Have you ever participated in something similar? I’d love to hear your thoughts! Best wishes, Li Hua 第二节 读后续写（满分25分） Possible version： Gabe said, “it is going to be a toy tree.” He explained that they were going to decorate it and put tags on it so they could buy presents for children who need them. Then he flashed a look for help at his mum. “Yes,” Mum said enthusiastically, “Mr Snider, we’re decorating it this weekend.” Mr. Snider looked suspicious. He almost turned purple trying to think up an argument, but he was beaten. He lowered his chainsaw and stormed off. That evening, Gabe and his mum put up posters to let everyone know about the toy tree, and they contacted the charity to get tags. By the weekend, the charity tags had arrived. The whole community came to decorate the tree. They sang as they hung tags, and it felt like a party. The bare tree soon looked dazzling. Everyone went home, beamingly, with a tag from the toy tree. As Gabe stepped back to admire everyone’s handiwork, he spotted Mr Snider looking out of his window with a frown. Gabe waved at him. “We leave one tag for you!” With hesitation, Mr. Snider let out a sigh, then walked to the toy tree and took it down. At that moment, the tree was not an eyesore any more. 【导语】本文以人物为线索展开，讲述了小区花园里有一棵树，Gabe和小伙伴们都很喜欢这棵树。这棵树是对社区的祝福，但看护者 Mr. Snider讨厌这棵树，他视这棵树为眼中钉。新年前的一天早上，Gabe发现他拿着电锯向树走去，Gabe和妈妈拼命想出理由来保护这棵树的故事。 【详解】 1.段落续写： ①由第一段首句内容“加布说：“这将是一棵玩具树。”可知，第一段可描写Gabe向看护者 Mr. Snider解释他的玩具树并联系了慈善机构获得标签。 ②由第二段首句内容“到了周末，慈善标签已经到了。”可知，第二段可描写大家来装饰这棵树，给树挂上标签，小孩子都兴奋地带着玩具树上的标签。 Mr. Snider目睹这一切，很欣慰，那一刻，这棵树不再是他的眼中钉了。 2.续写线索：解释——Mr. Snider离开——获得标签——装饰树——小朋友开心——Mr. Snider感悟 3.词汇激活 行为类 ①瞥一眼：flash a look /glance/glimpse ②.叹气：let out a sigh /sigh ③.发现：spot/notice 情绪类 ①.热情地：enthusiastically /with enthusiasm ②.怀疑的：suspicious/doubtful ③.喜气洋洋地：beamingly /joyfully 【点睛】 [高分句型1]. As Gabe stepped back to admire everyone’s handiwork, he spotted Mr Snider looking out of his window with a frown. （由as引导的时间状语从句。） [高分句型2]. With hesitation, Mr. Snider let out a sigh, then walked to the toy tree and took it down.（由let out a sigh、walked to the toy tree 和 took it down三个并列谓语动词构成连贯的动作链。） 听力原文 Text 1 W: Let’s study together, Shane! M: What time? I’m busy from six to eight. W: Let’s meet for a couple of hours before or after that. M: Earlier is better. (1) Text 2 M: How about if we go to an Italian restaurant for dinner tonight? How about Mario’s? W: OK. But we always eat at either Mario’s or Gino’s. Let’s try something new and go to Luigi’s. M: You always have the last word, my lady. (2) Text 3 M: Hey, Flora. Do you know where I can buy tickets to the basketball game tonight? (3) W: I never go to basketball games, but I’m pretty sure they are for sale at the same place I buy football tickets — next to the bookstore. Text 4 W: Mr. Robinson, I need to speak to you about your daughter’s dog Lily. She keeps eating the flowers in my yard. M: I’m so sorry about that, Kathy. W: If you don’t do something, I will have no choice but to call the police. M: I will ask Mary to pay more attention to her dog. (4) Text 5 W: Jerry, I’m sorry. Please forgive me. M: Forget it, Beth. W: I didn’t mean to hurt your feelings. What can I do to make it right between us? (5) M: It doesn’t matter. Text 6 W: Hey, Tim! Are you almost ready to go? We are going to be late! M: Almost, honey. I’ve got to finish writing this text message to my partners. (6) W: You’ve been typing that message for almost 20 minutes. M: Well, actually, I have been texting back and forth with Randy and Skip. We have that big meeting tomorrow, you know. (7) W: I wish for once we could have a weekend without text messaging and emails. Text 7 W: Good morning. Welcome to Chase Bank. My name is Emmy. How may I help you today? M: I want to open a new account. W: Are you a U.S. citizen? Do you have a driver’s license or any other form of identification? M: Yes, I am a citizen, but I do not have a driver’s license. (8) W: Well, perhaps you have a passport, social security card, or insurance card? M: I do. But I didn’t bring any of those. Will my student ID work? (9) W: I’m afraid it needs to be a government ID, like a driver’s license, a passport, or a military ID. M: Well, I’ll go home and see if I can get my passport from my mom. (10) Text 8 M: I’m going to miss my opportunity, it seems. When is this train going to leave? W: What opportunity? Are you a businessman? (11) M: Not exactly. It’s actually a little bit embarrassing. Last week, I received a mysterious email that said I could win a great reward by getting to Phoenix by the 13th of the month. I’m supposed to go to City Hall and make a phone call to this number and get more instructions. (12) W: That sounds very strange. (11) Are you a spy? M: Oh! Listen, the train is leaving! Excuse me, I need to go. (13) Text 9 M: What are you working on? W: I’m writing a report on Eleanor Roosevelt for my American History class. (14) M: She was married to Franklin D. Roosevelt, right? W: Yeah, but even though she was married to him, she is independent and she didn’t always share his opinions. (14) M: Really? W: Yeah. She spoke up for the poor and minorities. In fact, she has a great record of human rights achievements. President Truman once called her the “First Lady of the World”. M: How long does your report have to be? (15) W: It has to be ten pages long, (15) but I already have twenty pages of notes! M: Well, you should probably figure out what major points you want to make and then only include evidence about them. (16) It’ll be too much to include everything from her life. W: Yeah. That’s good advice… Hey, by the way, can I use your computer to write it? (17) M: Of course. But I lent it to my roommate earlier. I think he’ll be done using it soon. I’ll go to his room and get it, and then bring it to your apartment, OK? (17 W: Thanks. I really appreciate it! Text 10 A man woke up one day and surveyed his lands. “I need to buy another horse to help with the harvest,” (18) he said to himself. And so the man set out for the market. He looked long and hard at the animals offered for sale before finally making an agreement with the owner of an expensive horse. The man would buy the horse on one condition: the owner had to allow the man to try out the animal before paying the money. The owner was puzzled. He had never heard of such a deal before, but he agreed to the man’s request. (19) The man walked the horse home and put him in the straw yard with his other horses. He watched the animals to see how they would behave. Almost immediately, the new animal left the others and joined the laziest, fattest, and sleepiest-looking horse under the shade of a large tree. Seeing this, the man quickly led the horse back to the market. He gave the horse back to the owner and refused to buy it. (20) 第 18 页；共 12 页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$