浙南名校联盟2022-2023学年高二下学期期末英语试题

2022学年第二学期浙南名校联盟期末联考 高二年级英语学科试题 注意事项: 1. 答卷前, 考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时, 选出每小题答案后, 用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动, 用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时, 将答案写在答题卡上, 写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后, 将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共两节, 满分30分) 做题时, 先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后, 你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £ 19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是 C。 1. Where are the speakers? A. In a bank. B. In a restaurant. C. In a cinema. 2. What is the woman going to do for the man? A. Buy a coat. B. Pick him up. C. Book a table. 3. How did the man’s wife go to work in the past? A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By car. 4. What will the man do on Saturday? A. Visit a relative. B. Watch a show. C. Care for the dolphins. 5. What does the man advise the woman to do? A. Skip dinner. B. Avoid snack foods. C. Get enough exercise. 第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟; 听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料, 回答第6、7题。 6. When did the woman find her running ability? A. In primary school. B. In high school. C. At university. 7. What does the woman think of being a long-distance runner? A. It’s really hard. B. It’s a bit easy. C. It’s quite boring. 听第7段材料, 回答第8至10题。 8. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Strangers. B. Friends. C. Co-workers. 9. What is the woman worried about? A. The computer system is broken. B. The concert will be canceled. C. The tickets will be sold out. 10. What will the woman probably do next? A. Go home directly. B. Place a telephone order. C. Continue waiting in line. 听第8段材料, 回答第11至14题。 11. Why does the man speak to the woman? A. To seek permission. B. To discuss a report. C. To extend an invitation. 12. What was scheduled for Friday afternoon at first? A. A wedding. B. A meeting. C. A reunion party. 13. When will the man arrive home? A. At 7:00 p. m. B. At 8:30 p. m. C. At 9:30 p. m. 14. What does the man need to prepare before the holiday? A. A sales report. B. A work plan. C. A presentation. 听第9段材料, 回答第15至17题。 15. Who might the man be? A. A teacher. B. A reporter. C. A cook. 16. What do we know about Shenzhou-12 astronauts in space? A. They planted potatoes. B. They could heat their meals. C. They had a limited choice of food. 17. How does Elena sound in the end? A. Proud. B. Grateful. C. Excited. 听第10段材料, 回答第18至20题。 18. What is good about solving puzzles according to the speaker? A. It is relaxing. B. It can help people gain fame. C. It can improve people’s social skills. 19. Why is Arthur Wynne mentioned? A. He made the headlines in the newspapers. B. He invented the modern crossword puzzle. C. He got fed up with solving puzzles. 20. What is the speaker mainly talking about? A. Ways to solve puzzles. B. A day for solving puzzles. C. Different types of puzzles. 第二部分阅读理解(共两节, 满分50分) 第一节(共15小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中, 选出最佳答案。 A Fun social games for the winter season With nights drawing in and temperatures dropping, outdoor pursuits often get put on the backburner, leaving people searching for other ways to entertain themselves. Here are some well-received social games that you can play this winter. Slots Millions of people have developed a passion for playing Slots. Modern versions like Cleopatra Slots are hugely popular, offering access to different titles to suit every budget level and providing endless fun. If you prefer to play Slots in more traditional surroundings, many land-based amusement arcades in seaside towns remain open during winter. Bingo Developed long ago, Bingo still enjoys great popularity today. Land-based venues such as bingo halls host games on a regular basis, although online play is now favored by the majority. Bingo can also be played “live” with friends and family at home, and can even include a winter theme. Upwords Upwords bears some similarities to Scrabble, with players required to build words using letter tiles on a gameboard. The key difference is that in Upwords letters can be piled on top of others already on the board to create new words. The higher the pile of letters, the more points are scored. Poker While the internet makes it easy to access a poker game, we prefer organizing a “poker night” at home with friends and family. The Texas Hold’em version is the easiest to understand. Throw in some drinks and snacks, and home poker games could soon become your “go-to” recreation activity during winter. 1. What is special about Slots? A. Slots gain great popularity among people nowadays. B. Slots are accessible to people of varied financial levels. C. People can only play Slots indoors instead of outdoors. D. People like playing Slots in more traditional settings. 2. What do Bingo and Poker have in common? A. Both can include a winter theme. B. Both are easy to understand and play. C. Both are hosted regularly in winter. D. Both can be played online and in person. 3. In which column of a magazine can this text be found? A. Health. B. Science. C. Education. D. Entertainment. B Before the pandemic,my Singapore-based sister insisted my mother and I join her for the Christmas. My mum, a fearless woman, would get strangely nervous on flights. Perhaps the only thing that convinced her to overcome her fears was the chance to piece together our declining bond. Growing up, moments with Mum were painfully short-lived because I spent most time at the boarding school, reuniting only during the holidays. Every year, she would eagerly await my return, which would always lead to constant loving scenes. Those valuable moments were gradually disappearing as I moved away for university. Soon, our relationship became tense. She seemed unable to understand me and her stubborn and old-fashioned advice forced me to shut myself. But the more I pulled away, the more I felt a longing for the bond that had grown so weak. Perhaps Singapore would give us a chance to breathe it back to life. I assumed the immersive exhibits at Art Science Museum would refresh my mother, who was an art student. However, I was surprised when she just turned her nose up at the Bruges Whale, a sculpture using plastic waste to raise awareness about ocean pollution.“It’s art, Mum! Be more appreciative.” I defended. Disheartened by the distance between us, I led her to the kid’s zone. We signed up for a joint sketching activity, hoping that would help us connect. As our creative juices flowed, our faded relationship began to take on the hues (色调) and shades of something sincere and beautiful. “Look!” she excitedly pointed towards a digital screen that displayed our creations. “That one’s ours.” Mum went up and reached out, touching the fish as it moved its tail back and forth in the virtual tank. Looking around, I saw children sharing moments with their parents, and my own childhood flashed back. That rare instance where she let slip an inner innocence and delight at a new experience revealed the little girl in her, who was like me, had lost a vital connection to responsibilities of motherhood. “Our time together was like that of friends,” she remarks now. “You were my mother, and I a child following you around.” Life has indeed come full circle. 4. What made Mum accept the visit to Singapore? A. The very fact of being a fearless woman herself. B. The short cherished moments before the pandemic. C. The desire to restore relationship with her children. D The sincere invitation of my Singapore-based sister. 5. What can we learn from paragraph 2? A. Our relationship suffered due to geographic distance. B. My bond with Mum weakened after I went to the university. C. I was overwhelmed with Mum's love before university. D. Moments with Mum was painful during the holidays. 6. How did Mum react to the Bruges Whale? A She showed a great interest in this work of art. B. She felt it a huge waste to make it from plastic. C. She considered it beneficial to ocean protection. D. She didn’t think it good enough to be exhibited. 7. What is probably the main idea of the text? A. A visit to Art Science Museum rebuilt my bond with Mum. B. A journey to Singapore rid Mum of her fear on flights. C. A sketching activity revealed Mum’s long-lost innocence. D. An attempt dug into likely causes for the fading relationship. C Like those who love science fictions, I’ve spent a lot of time wondering how society will greet true artificial intelligence. Will we panic? Or will we ignore it and go about our daily lives? So it was fascinating to watch ChatGPT, a new cutting-edge A. I. chatbot opened for testing last week. Built by OpenAI, ChatGPT, the best A. I. chatbot ever released to the general public, landed with a splash. In five days, more than a million people signed up to test it and hundreds of screenshots of ChatGPT conversations went viral on Twitter. For the past decade A. I. chatbots have been terrible. While a few have gotten good at doing narrow and well-defined tasks, like writing marketing copy, they don’t function well when taken outside their comfort zones. But ChatGPT feels different. Smarter. Weirder. More flexible. It can write jokes, work computer code and compose college-level essays. It can also guess at medical diagnoses, and explain scientific concepts at multiple levels of difficulty. On top of that, ChatGPT can remember what a user has told it before, which sets it apart from other A. I. chatbots. However, ChatGPT isn’t perfect, by any means. The way it responds to users’ inquiries — by making possible guesses about which bits of text belong together in a sequence, based on a statistical model trained on billions of examples of text pulled from all over the internet-makes it likely to give wrong answers, even to seemingly simple math problems. Plus, unlike Google, ChatGPT doesn’t crawl the web for information on current events, and its knowledge is restricted to things it learned before 2021, making some of its answers feel outdated. Despite its existing flaws, ChatGPT, from my perspective, is a useful tool — a tool that is already being compared to the iPhone in terms of its potential impact on society. ChatGPT isn’t yet OpenAI’s best A. I. model. I think I won’t be surprised again by GPT-4, the company’s next large language model, which is rumored to be coming out sometime next year. 8. What do the underlined words “with a splash” mean in the second paragraph? A. Receiving negative reviews from its users. B. Restricted only to a selected group of people. C. Drawing a great deal of interest and attention. D. Causing a wave of disturbance among people. 9. What is the most distinctive feature that makes ChatGPT stand out? A. It can compose jokes and college-level articles. B. It can do well in narrow and well-defined tasks. C. It can recall what has been told to it previously. D. It can interpret more difficult scientific concepts. 10. What can we learn about ChatGPT from paragraph 4? A. It generates responses with the help of a statistical model. B. It fails to refer to prior knowledge it acquired before 2021. C. It can sometimes surf the internet for up-to-date information. D. It has no difficulty in answering complicated math problems. 11. What’s the author’s attitude towards ChatGPT? A. Positive and hopeful. B. Negative and fearful. C. Neutral and conservative. D. Mixed and Skeptical. D Most stars are invisible against the overhead glare from city lights. Or rather, the combined radiance of a hundred billion stars dims to near-nothingness by bright streetlamps and storefronts. This is light pollution-human-generated illumination cast up into the heavens — causing the sky itself to glow and washing out the stars. Recently Christopher Kyba, the light pollution researcher of the German Research Center for Geosciences, and his team examined an astonishing amount of data from more than 50,000 citizen scientists around the world from 2011 to 2022. The researchers found that globally light pollution increased by 9.6 percent per year over the time. As Kyba and his co-authors further explained in their paper, if there are 250 visible stars in the sky when someone is born, by the time they’re 18, they’ll only see 100, and meanwhile the sky will have increased in brightness by more than a factor of four. All this extra light at night has a huge effect on the life under it. Researchers have shown that it has negative impacts on many animals and plants. Light pollution disrupts the great migrations of birds, the delicate blossoming of flowers, and even the luminous courtship of fireflies, to name just a few examples. It affects humans as well, possibly triggering sleeping disorder among many other health problems. There is a lot already happening. Groups like the International Dark Sky Association, or IDA, advocate not for more lighting but for more intelligent lighting; smarter street lights that concentrate their light downward is one example. Besides, the IDA offers advice on how to contact local authorities to install better devices to lower pollution. Many cities in the United States and other countries have equipped these fixtures to offer more efficient illumination and save energy too. Meanwhile, regulations lowering light pollution are also on the way and will come into effect down the track. Many people don’t even know that they are losing this cosmic experience just over their heads. We need the dark night sky, and it’s up to us to make sure it’s still there every time the sun goes down. 12. Why are stars mentioned in the first paragraph? A. To describe a scene. B. To introduce the topic. C. To provide an example. D. To arouse readers’ interest. 13 What do the figures listed in Kyba’s paper indicate? A. The cause of light pollution. B. The impact of light pollution. C. The severity of light pollution. D. The distribution of light pollution. 14. What does the underlined word “fixture” in Paragraph 4 refer to? A. storefronts B. devices C. regulations D. solutions 15. Which is the best title of the passage? A Light pollution affects cosmic experience. B. Light pollution faces worsening conditions. C. Light pollution needs awareness and action. D. Light pollution dims the brightness of stars. 第二节(共5小题; 每小题2分, 满分12.5分) 根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Anxiety does not cause bad results in exams. Yet it is the preparing periods that do. ___16___. The silence of the hall; the ticking of the clock; the sharp eyes of the teacher; the proud expression of the person sitting at the neighboring desk who has finished 15 minutes early. Therefore, it seems hardly surprising that those who worry about taking tests do systematically worse than those who do not. What is, perhaps, surprising, according to research published recently in Psychological Science by Maria Theobald at the Leibniz Institute for Research and Information in Education and her colleagues, is that it is not the pressure of the exam hall that causes the problem. ___17___. Dr. Theobald once supposed that if anxiety was truly affecting a student’s ability to transfer known information from brain to paper via pen, then those with high levels of it would perform worse in a real exam than in a mock (模拟的) exam. ___18___. Anxiety on the day of the test did not predict exam performance at all. What did predict the performance was the level of knowledge a student displayed in the mock exam. ___19___, regardless of how anxious they were on the day. What actually influenced students, it turned out, were high levels of anxiety during the weeks before the exam took place. The greater a student’s anxiety in the days before the exam, the lower his or her knowledge-gain was during that period. ___20___. To reduce this anxiety, she proposes a two-fold strategy for students. First, they can raise their belief in their own abilities by reminding themselves of just how much they know. Second, they can decrease the significance of the test in their hearts. A. All people do not like exams B. Instead, it is the pressure of revision C. The findings of the research support such a view D. Those who performed well in it also did well in the real thing E. Exams are anxiety-causing, especially for those who are easy to get anxious F. However, what Dr. Theobald found in the research was not what she expected G. This is a positive discovery, suggesting a change of approach might help improve their results 第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节, 满分30分) 第一节(共15小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分) 阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Over the course of three years, I kept myself so busy to maintain a balance between my business and personal ___21___. But the busier I got, the less I seemed to achieve. Then the tiredness and brain fog set in, but I just worked harder, regardless of feeling emotionally and physically ___22___. My body ached, my head pounded, and I was losing strength. When I visited the doctor, Dr. Joy, the first thing she asked was “___23___ is your stress level?” I shrugged. “Same as usual.” A series of tests and bloodwork ___24___ I had Graves’ disease—a disease in the immune system. “This doesn’t seem ___25___. I’ve worked so hard on my health.” She smiled ___26___ and comforted. “It’s OK. We’ll get it figured out.” I surfed the Internet and learned that the ___27___ is usually triggered and worsened by stress. How is your stress level? I asked myself. That question resurfaced when I ___28___ into an old friend Cindy. After ___29___ hellos, she said, “You’ve got quite a busy life.” I smiled. “I have to admit, some of those projects are starting to get too ___30___.” “So, put something down. ”For the next week, I re-read articles explaining that stress management played a part in ___31___ Graves’ disease. I made a list of everything I was busy with and started using a highlighter to ___32___ time for the simple joys, like long hikes and visiting my favorite bookstores. My calendar is still full now, but I’m not feeling breathless under the ___33___. Perhaps this disease wasn’t triggered by stress. Maybe it was. Either way, the diagnosis has helped me ___34___ my life. Dr. Joy was right. We’re getting it ___35___. 21. A. development B. belongings C. desire D. fitness 22. A. relaxed B. frustrated C. satisfied D. exhausted 23. A. What B. How C. Where D. Which 24. A. predicted B. indicated C. guaranteed D. recognized 25. A. proper B. risky C. sensible D. important 26. A. bitterly B. pleasantly C. encouragingly D. hesitantly 27. A. disturbance B. dilemma C. depression D. disease 28. A. knocked B. looked C. broke D. burst 29. A. exchanging B. leaving C. conveying D. acknowledging 30. A. stressful B. boring C. available D. different 31. A. preventing B. evaluating C. controlling D. monitoring 32. A. make up B. take down C. set aside D. break away 33. A. load B. process C. guidance D. way 34. A. restrict B. reclaim C. remain D. repeat 35. A. come up B. figured out C. slowed down D. kept on 第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分) 阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Nowadays, it’s quite normal for many people to live in a mental state of “not bad”. But what would make us feel “perfect”? There are many ways to improve our mental health, but believe it or not, sometimes there are small and simple ___36___ (solve)to help improve our wellbeing. That’s something the BBC TV programme Easy Ways to Live Well has been looking at. It suggested several ”health helpers“ ___37___ the programme’s presenters tried and gave their ”seal of approval“. And maybe they could help us too. Firstly, ___38___ (tackle)weight problems and to cut the calories, the programme found sniffing peppermint stops our eagerness for a snack. And a scientific theory ___39___ (call)”mutual competition" shows that a strong smell can distract our brain ___40___ the food we’re thinking about. If your addiction to your smartphone is getting you down, it ___41___ (suggest)that turning your phone screen grey helps you reduce screen time because a black and white screen becomes ___42___ (attractive)to look at than a colorful one. With recent studies ___43___ (show)our phones can make us 26% less productive ___44___ increase our stress, it is high time to give it a try. Besides, ____45____ daily dip in freezing water gets you used to the stress of doing it and therefore prepares you for other life stresses, according to the BBC programme. Other life-improving ideas included things such as singing to reduce pain and breathing in the fresh air to reduce urban life stress. But whatever we choose to adopt, it seems any change to our lifestyle can help improve our body and mind. 第四部分写作(共两节, 满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 46. 假定你是校学生会主席李华，亚运会(Asian Games)即将来临，请你写一封倡议书，代表学生会号召大家做好“小主人”，为亚运会的顺利召开贡献自己的力量。内容包括： 1．举办亚运会的意义； 2．我们能做的贡献； 3．发出倡议。 注意：1．写作词数应为80左右； 2．可适当增加细节以使行文连贯。 ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料, 根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段, 使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Being the youngest of four girls, I usually saw to Grandma Lou’s needs at family gatherings. Recognized as the Master Gardener in our family, she was economical but keen on investment. When Grandma Lou visited, she brought her own seeds, folded in small envelopes and labeled with instructions. She gave each of us a particular plant; usually tomatoes and carrots for my sisters. But for me, she saved the rare varieties. As she had for my older sisters’ weddings, Grandma Lou gave Jenny a Mason jar, where lay the colorful seeds round and round. Beans in rich, deep earth tones held the bottom steady. Next came corns sparkling like gold. At the very top were the finer herb seeds. The jar was crowned with a gleaming brass lid and a cheerful ribbon. There was a lifetime supply of seeds pressed into the jar. Aged 86, Grandma Lou suffered a stroke. And though she was unable to attend my own wedding, I was delighted to see a Mason jar among the brightly wrapped gifts at my reception. But my jar was a random mixture, as if all the seeds had been carelessly dumped into it. Even the lid was rusty (生锈的) and well used. And it seemed much heavier than the jar given to Jenny. But considering her state of health, I felt blessed that she remembered the gentle tradition after all. My husband, Mark, found work in the city, and we moved into a small apartment. A garden was all but impossible, so I comforted myself by placing the jar in our living room. Grandma Lou died the year our twins were born. By the time our sons were toddlers, I had moved the jar to the top of the refrigerator, where their curious little hands couldn’t tip over my treasure. The boys grew up overnight. Soon they were out on their own, and Mark was looking at retirement. A year later, Mark was hit by a drunk driver, paralyzing him from the neck down. All our savings went to physical treatment, and Mark gained some weak movement in his arms and hands. But soon Mark would be released to my care from the hospital. 注意：1. 续写词数应为150左右；2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Paragraph 1: One night, Jenny visited me with a pan of pasta and asked about Mark at table. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2: As the refrigerator door banged shut, the seed jar on top rocked and arrested her attention. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2022学年第二学期浙南名校联盟期末联考 高二年级英语学科试题 注意事项: 1. 答卷前, 考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时, 选出每小题答案后, 用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动, 用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时, 将答案写在答题卡上, 写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后, 将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共两节, 满分30分) 做题时, 先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后, 你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £ 19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是 C。 1. Where are the speakers? A. In a bank. B. In a restaurant. C. In a cinema. 2. What is the woman going to do for the man? A. Buy a coat. B. Pick him up. C. Book a table. 3. How did the man’s wife go to work in the past? A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By car. 4. What will the man do on Saturday? A. Visit a relative. B. Watch a show. C. Care for the dolphins. 5. What does the man advise the woman to do? A. Skip dinner. B. Avoid snack foods. C. Get enough exercise. 第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟; 听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料, 回答第6、7题。 6. When did the woman find her running ability? A. In primary school. B. In high school. C. At university. 7. What does the woman think of being a long-distance runner? A. It’s really hard. B. It’s a bit easy. C. It’s quite boring. 听第7段材料, 回答第8至10题。 8. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Strangers. B. Friends. C. Co-workers. 9. What is the woman worried about? A. The computer system is broken. B. The concert will be canceled. C. The tickets will be sold out. 10. What will the woman probably do next? A. Go home directly. B. Place a telephone order. C. Continue waiting in line. 听第8段材料, 回答第11至14题。 11. Why does the man speak to the woman? A. To seek permission. B. To discuss a report. C. To extend an invitation. 12. What was scheduled for Friday afternoon at first? A. A wedding. B. A meeting. C. A reunion party. 13. When will the man arrive home? A. At 7:00 p. m. B. At 8:30 p. m. C. At 9:30 p. m. 14. What does the man need to prepare before the holiday? A. A sales report. B. A work plan. C. A presentation. 听第9段材料, 回答第15至17题。 15. Who might the man be? A. A teacher. B. A reporter. C. A cook. 16. What do we know about Shenzhou-12 astronauts in space? A. They planted potatoes. B. They could heat their meals. C. They had a limited choice of food. 17. How does Elena sound in the end? A. Proud. B. Grateful. C. Excited. 听第10段材料, 回答第18至20题。 18. What is good about solving puzzles according to the speaker? A. It is relaxing. B. It can help people gain fame. C. It can improve people’s social skills. 19. Why is Arthur Wynne mentioned? A. He made the headlines in the newspapers. B. He invented the modern crossword puzzle. C. He got fed up with solving puzzles. 20. What is the speaker mainly talking about? A. Ways to solve puzzles. B. A day for solving puzzles. C. Different types of puzzles. 第二部分阅读理解(共两节, 满分50分) 第一节(共15小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中, 选出最佳答案。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. D 3. D B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. C 5. B 6. D 7. A C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. C 10. A 11. A D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. C 14. B 15. D 第二节(共5小题; 每小题2分, 满分12.5分) 根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. E 17. B 18. F 19. D 20. G 第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节, 满分30分) 第一节(共15小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分) 阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. D 23. B 24. B 25. C 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. A 30. A 31. C 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. B 第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. solutions 37. that##which 38. to tackle 39. called 40. from 41. is suggested 42. less attractive 43. showing 44. and 45. a 第四部分写作(共两节, 满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear fellow students, With the Asian Games approaching, we firmly advocate everyone to make our own contribution to the event. The Games will be a platform for us to show the new look and unique charm of Zhejiang, which will attract lots of guests to have a taste of the development, the local culture, and most importantly, the hospitality of the people on this land. As students, we shall assume our responsibility, such as keeping the surroundings clean, being polite, as well as cheering for the athletes from all Asia. Your share of efforts is bound to add color to the event. Student Union 第二节(满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】 One night, Jenny visited me with a pan of pasta and asked about Mark at table. We talked about his progress and the challenges that we were facing. Tears welled up in my eyes as I described the daily struggles, but Jenny’s presence was comforting. She listened patiently, offering words of encouragement and hope. As we finished our meal, a sense of gratitude filled me for having such a supportive sister. As the refrigerator door banged shut, the seed jar on top rocked and arrested her attention. Jenny picked it up, examining the rusty lid and the mixed seeds inside. “I remember Grandma giving these to you,” she said, her voice filled with nostalgia. “You know, these seeds represent Grandma’s love and wisdom. Maybe it’s time to plant them, to honor her memory and find some solace in the garden.” Her words resonated with me, sparking a glimmer of hope amidst the hardships. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$