陕西省榆林市府谷县府谷中学2024-2025学年高一下学期3月月考英语试题

听力考试正式开始。请看听力部分第一节，第一节听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读第一小题的有关内容。I'm sorry to come at this moment, but I wonder if I can leave my dog with you for three days. I'm sorry, mister Green doesn't like dogs. John, would you help me type this work plan? I'm too busy to do IT myself. Okay, but why don't you hire a secretary? Hi Jason. Can you help me with my computer? What . happened to look? IT doesn't work. but I have to hand in this report to our manager this morning. Who on earth is ringing the bell? Oh, that must be Michael. Would you answer the door please, matt? Okay, mom, i'm coming. It's time for dinner. What about the new opened restaurant next to the supermarket? I heard the food is terrible there and expensive too. 听下面五段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答第六和第7两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Excuse me, mam, I wonder whether my flight will be on time. What's your flight number, please? Am you zero, seven, two, five to new york? Oh, yes, IT was supposed to take off at eight thirty, but now IT has been put off until ten thirty. A bad luck. Well, as as possible to get my boarding card. Now. yes, I can do that for you right now. May I see your ID card please? Here you are. And could you please give me a window seat so that I can enjoy the scenery outside during the course of the flight? No problem. Your seat number is eleven a and you'll board the plane at gate fifteen. Excuse me, mom, I wonder whether my flight will be on time. What's your flight number, please? Am you zero, seven, two, five to new york? Oh, yes, IT was supposed to take off at eight thirty, but now IT has been put off until ten thirty. A bad luck. Well, as IT possible to get my boarding card. Now. yes, I can do that for you right now. May I see your ID card, please? Here you are. And could you please give me a window seat so that I can enjoy the scenery outside during the course of the flight? No problem. Your seat number is eleven a and you'll board the plane at gate fifteen. 听下面一段对话，回答第八至第13个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Thank you for bringing me here, bob. This place looks great with a romantic evening. Your welcome, Nancy. I'm happy. Like IT, would you like some cold dishes? Let me see. How about the cold cucumber? Okay, and anything to drink? Cold Green tea or beer? Oh, cold Green tea would be nice. And for your main course, I can recommend the beef steak. Actually, I don't like eating meat, so i'd like to have some tofu. Oh, that's a good choice. Very healthy too. Okay, let's get the waiter here. I think I can have another look at the menu. Maybe something is suitable for. Thank you for bringing me here. bob. This place looks great. What a romantic evening. Your welcome, Nancy. I am happy. Like IT, would you like some cold dishes? Let me see. How about the cold cucumber? okay. And anything to drink? Cold Green tea or beer? Oh, cold Green tea would be nice. And for your main course, I can recommend the beef steak. Actually, I don't like eating meat, so i'd like to have some tofu. Oh, that's a good choice. Very healthy too. Okay, let's get the waiter here. I think I can have another look at the menu. Maybe something is suitable for you. 听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13 3个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Glad you are back. How did the conference go? go. Oh, what was good? All the topics were interesting and the speakers were really good. The organization was a lot Better this year as well. I think having a smaller number of people there made a big difference. You know, you can make decisions a lot more quickly. And how is the hotel fine? The conference rooms were good size, and the hotel rooms were clean and very comfortable. I really liked the hotel a lot. And how was the dinner on saturday? That was probably the only thing that people really complained about. The food in the restaurant wasn't very good and the service was slow. If we go back to the same hotel again, we'll have to find another restaurant. Glad you are back. How did the conference go, joe? Oh, what was good? All the topics were interesting and the speakers were really good. The organization was a lot Better this year as well. I think having a smaller number of people there made a big difference. You know, you can make decisions a lot more quickly. And how was the hotel? fine? The conference rooms were good size, and the hotel rooms were clean and very comfortable. I really liked the hotel a lot. And how was the dinner on saturday? That was probably the only thing that people really complained about. The food in the restaurant wasn't very good and the service was slow. If we go back to the same hotel again, we'll have to . find another restaurant. 听下面一段对话，回答第14至第16 3个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。What's the matter? You look so upset. I lent my dictionary to sam yesterday, but he told me this morning he had left the on the bus. When will he learn to be more careful? I let my pen to him last week, but he lost IT too. Did he buy you a new one? Yes, but IT is different. IT was a gift from my father. He could never be replaced. I'm so sorry to hear that. I've just bought a dictionary last week. Now I have to buy a new one. Will you go downtown this afternoon? No, i'll play table tennis with my aunt this afternoon. I'll go downtown tomorrow. Could you ask your dad to give me a lift when . you go there? I'll go there by subway. My dad will drive to a conference in the neighbouring city tomorrow. Okay, give me a call tomorrow. Let's go together. What's the matter? You look so upset. I lent my dictionary to sam yesterday, but he told me this morning he had left them on the bus. When will he learn to be more careful? I let my pen to him last week, but he lost IT too. Did he buy you a new one? Yes, but IT is different. IT was a gift from my father. He could never be replaced. I'm so sorry to hear that i've just bought the dictionary last week. Now I have to buy a new one. Will you go downtown this afternoon? No, i'll play table tennis with my ARM this afternoon. I'll go downtown tomorrow. Could you ask your dad to give me a lift when you go there? I'll go there by subway. My dad will drive to a conference in the neighboring city tomorrow. Okay, give me a call tomorrow. Let's go together. 听下面一段独白，回答第17至第24个小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。Good morning, everybody. I'm White smith. As the editor of the voice, i'd like to introduce you to our school daily newspaper. We need volunteers to help us with our newspaper. Experience isn't absolutely necessary, but we need people with writing and typing skills. Since the voice comes out five days a week, we need excEllent students who know how to plan their time. Well, good grades are necessary. We can pay you depending on your work, but don't expect to get rich. This isn't something you do for money mostly. It's just for fun. Anyone who is interested in this job should speak to me immediately after this meeting. Be prepared to start to work right now. The first issue goes to press tomorrow. Good morning, everybody. I'm White smith. As the editor of the voice, i'd like to introduce you toward school daily newspaper. We need volunteers to help us with our newspaper. Experience isn't absolutely necessary, but we need people with writing and typing skills. Since the voice comes out five days a week, we need excEllent students who know how to plan their time. Well, good grades are necessary. We can pay you depending on your work, but don't expect to get rich. This isn't something you do for money mostly. It's just for fun. Anyone who is interested in this job should speak to me immediately after this meeting. Be prepared to start to work right now. The first issue goes to press tomorrow. 第二节到此结束，现在你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到客观题答题卡上。听力部分到此结束。 写作评分细则 第一节（满分 15 分） （一）评分原则 1.本题总分为 15 分，按 5 个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最 后给分。 3.词数少于 60 或多于 100 的，从总分中减去 2 分。 4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇 用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。 （二）各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档（13～15 分） ——完全完成试题规定的任务。 ——覆盖所有内容要点。 ——应用较多的语法结构和词汇。 ——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 ——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 ——完全达到预期的写作目的。 第四档（10～12 分） ——完成试题规定的任务。 ——虽漏掉 1～2 个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。 ——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 ——达到预期的写作目的。 第三档（7～9 分） ——基本完成试题规定的任务。 ——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 ——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 ——整体而言，基本达到预期的写作目的。 第二档（4～6 分） ——未适当完成试题规定的任务。 ——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 ——语法结构单调，词汇有限。 ——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 ——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。 ——信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档（1～3 分） ——未完成试题规定的任务。 ——明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题的要求。 ——语法结构单调，词汇有限。 ——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 ——缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 ——信息未能传达给读者。 0 分 ——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判。 ——所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 第二节（满分 25 分） （一）评分原则 1.本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档 次，最后给分。 3.词数少于 120 的，酌情扣分；只写一段的原则上不超过 10 分。 4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑： （1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度； （2）内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况； （3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性； （4）上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及 词汇用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。 （二）各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档（21～25 分） ——与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。 ——内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息。 ——所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。 ——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。 第四档（16～20 分） ——与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。 ——内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息。 ——所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 ——比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。 第三档（11～15 分） ——与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 ——写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息。 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。 ——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 第二档（6～10 分） ——与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 ——写出了一些有关内容，较少利用文中的关键信息。 ——语法结构单调，词汇有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达。 ——较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。 第一档（1～5 分） ——与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。 ——写出的内容较少，很少利用文中的关键信息。 ——语法结构单调，词汇很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。 ——缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。 0 分 ——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。 府谷中学2025年春高一年级第一次质量调研检测卷 英语 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：人教版必修第一册至必修第二册。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Why does the man come to the woman? A. To ask for help. B. To make an invitation. C. To find his dog. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What does the man expect the woman to do? A. Have a rest. B. Type his work plan. C. Hire a secretary. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Customer and repairman. B. Boss and manager. C. Coworkers. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Who will answer the door? A. Mom. B. Michael. C. Matt. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What does the man say about the newly-opened restaurant? A. It is bad. B. It is large. C. It is popular. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. When will the plane take off? A. At 8:30. B. At 10:00. C. At 10:30. 7. Where will the man board the plane? A. At Gate 15. B. At Gate 11. C. At Gate 10. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. What does the woman like? A. Beer. B. Beef. C. Tofu. 9. What is the man likely to do next? A. Recommend more dishes. B. Make a phone call. C. Cook food for the woman. 10 Where does the conversation take place? A. At a bank. B. At a restaurant. C. At home. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. What did the man do before the conversation? A. He attended a meeting. B. He took an exam. C. He had a competition. 12. What does the man think of the hotel rooms? A. Untidy. B. Comfortable. C. Small. 13. What were people unhappy with about the restaurant? A. The price. B. The food. C. The size. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 14. What can we know about Sam? A. He is careless. B. He is hard-working. C. He is lazy. 15. What gift did the man’s father buy for him? A. A dictionary. B. A book. C. A pen. 16. How will the speakers go downtown tomorrow? A. By car. B. By subway. C. By bus. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 17. What is the speaker? A. An editor. B. A guide. C. A writer. 18. What is unimportant for the volunteers wanted? A. Typing skills. B. Experience. C. Writing skills. 19. How often does The Voice come out? A. One day a month. B. Five days a week. C. Three days a week. 20. What is the suggestion for those interested in this job? A. Sending an email. B. Filling in a form. C. Having an immediate talk. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Top Four Cities in Africa for a Great Vacation Addis Ababa, Ethiopia Getting around: Taxis are fine; walking is better. Though Ethiopian food is familiar to a lot of people, on the streets of Addis, it’s all about coffee. Social life in Addis is built on its preparation and consumption. It’s a chance to sit down among a mostly local crowd and order a coffee. Lusaka, Zambia Getting around: Taxis are affordable. This city is known for Victoria Falls. Small shops are lit at night, and they sell everything from newspapers to soft drinks. On the way, there is the outdoor Mingling Bar, where customers can enjoy a can of Original American Cola. Abidjan Côte d’Ivoire Getting around: Taxis are cheap. Abidjan’s 5 million people are spread out across four areas. When night falls, Yopougon is worth heading to. The roads are dusty in the part of Abidjan, but like many cities where living spaces are small, Abidjan lives its life on its streets. Just to the east of Yopougon is the Plateau, the business area. This area’s modernist building is great and mostly the result of a cocoa-and coffee-based economic development in the 1950s and 1960s. Dakar, Senegal Getting around: Taxis are plentiful. Possibly the best thing about Dakar is its beach restaurants: special collections of tables and chairs where customers are served the freshly caught fish. Servers will often offer to run out to a nearby corner store to buy beer and bring it to the table. 21. Where is Victoria Falls? A. In Abidjan. B. In Addis Ababa. C. In Lusaka. D. In Dakar. 22. What contributes most to the Plateau’s modernist building? A. Art. B. Coffee business. C. History. D. Population. 23. What is special about the beach restaurants in Dakar? A. They are self-service. B. They are all about coffee. C. They serve freshly caught fish. D. They offer free Original American Cola. B The Chinese New Year parade isn't the only place to watch a lion dance in. the San Francisco Bay Area. At weddings, grand openings of new businesses and other celebrations, the traditional Chinese art is performed year-round, thanks to the contributions of lion dance groups and young people increasingly embracing the activity. Connie Lu, a senior at Lincoln High School in San Francisco, has been practicing lion dance for three years in a youth lion dance club. She performed as the lion's head at a high school competition during the weekend in San Francisco's Chinatown to celebrate Asian Pacific American Heritage Month. “I officially started performing in my freshman year, but I had been a ’tail’ in a Chinese school for some years. I was only following the head’s steps,” Lu said. “I think being a head is more fun because you can play out the lion.” Lu’s team — eleven girls and two boys — participated in the competition, along with four other teams of about 100 players. The event also attracted hundreds of tourists. Blinking big eyes and shaking the body, the yellow lion played by Lu and her teammates jumped up on a narrow bench to the beat of drums and gongs and picked up a hanging flower bouquet. The dancers’ skillful movements won a big round of applause from the audience. Each performance has a unique meaning. Lu’s performance tells the story of a lion who tries to cross a river to get a flower for his friend, but he is afraid of the river at first. Finally, he conquers the challenge and gets the flower to his friend. “The meaning is that everyone has struggles in life and it can be scary. But when we work together and work hard, we can achieve it,” said Sophia Lee, a teammate of Lu’s. “The practice of lion dancing serves as a way to celebrate our cultural heritage with audience abroad, giving them a deeper understanding and appreciation for the rich Chinese traditions.” 24. What might be Lu’s favourite role in a lion dance? A. The head. B. The tail. C. The body. D. The leg. 25. How many teams joined in the competition in total? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five. 26. What can we learn about Lu in the competition? A. She was unfamiliar with a lion dance. B. Her role is still scary for her. C. She gave up in the face of difficulty. D. Her performance tells a story of a brave lion. 27. What does Sophia Lee agree with about the lion dance? A It focuses on individual spirit. B. It's a chance to share Chinese culture. C. It's hardly accepted abroad. D. It doesn't require a high level of skills. C In recent years, I have tried to appreciate younger artists such as Doja Cat, Lil Nas X and Sabrina Carpenter, but songs from the 2000s hold a special place in my heart and mind. As I see other generations of music lovers say music was so much better when they were younger, I wondered why. We can’t all be right—or maybe we are, I talked to experts about how music influences our brains to find out. “It’s not that music was better when we were younger, it’s that music brings out very, very strong emotions,” said Dr. Rita Aiello, a music psychologist at New York University. “Music is a very strong reminder of things that happened in our past.” But why does music hold such power? “Music is episodic (情景性的),” said Dr. Robert Cutietta, a professor of music at the University of Southern California. “If you look at an artwork or something, you can look at it and leave, Music is over time. There’s a part of our brain called episodic memory—that’s where it goes.” The feelings connected to music during our younger years create a strong, lasting connection, with both happy and sad emotions mixing together when we listen to a song. What if you see the 1970s and 1980s as the best, time for real music, even though every decade has some high- or low-quality songs? It may be because you’re remembering the songs that were meaningful to you and forgetting the ones that weren’t. “There are situations that made certain songs special to you, and the memories of those situations will come back when you hear the songs,” Aiello said. “Every era has some songs that are not of high quality but still become huge hits,” Cutietta said. “They’re still there somewhere in our memory, but we choose not to pull those up. Naturally, we tend to pull up the songs we like.” 28. Why do people prefer music from their youth according to experts? A. New music lacks creativity. B. Today’s songs have a really quick beat. C. It can connect their feelings with the past. D. It always brings out happy emotions. 29. Why does Cutietta mention an artwork in paragraph 4? A. To make a comparison. B. To lead in the topic. C. To give a warning. D. To offer a suggestion. 30. What does the author say about music from different times? A. The 1970s and 1980s had the worst music. B. The 2000s is the only time with good music. C. Each decade has a mix of good and bad songs. D. Bad music from the 1980s has become popular today. 31. What does the underlined word “those” in the last paragraph refer to? A. Pop singers. B. Bad experiences. C. Favourite songs. D. Popular but low-quality songs. D Titania Jordan, working at Bark Technologies, knows that parents today face a tough challenge: raising kids in a world filled with technology. That’s why she’s devoted to helping them navigate the digital landscape. “Parents need to be aware of what their children are exposed to online,” she stresses. “It’s not just about monitoring; it’s about understanding and leading them through this new world.” Jordan and her team work on developing tools that allow parents to protect their children from the dangers of the Internet. “We help parents filter out things like cyberbullying, inappropriate contents, and even potential attackers,” she explains. The platform sends warnings to parents when it detects something concerning, giving them the power to take action. Jordan believes that education is key. “We need to educate parents about the risks and how to talk to their kids about them,” she says. She often holds classes and talks, explaining why it’s important to talk openly and set good limits on how much technology we use. One of the biggest problems Jordan addresses is the fear of missing out that children experience when they see their friends posting about fun events which they’re not part of. “It’s crucial for parents to help their children understand that social media often shows the best parts, not reality,” she says. “We need to teach them to appreciate real-life experiences rather than comparing themselves to others online.” Jordan also stresses the importance of setting a good example. “Parents should model healthy tech habits,” she advises. “If parents are always on their phones, their kids will follow suit. But if parents show balance, it sends a strong message about the role of technology in our lives.” “Despite the challenges,” Jordan adds, “technology is here to stay, and we just need to ensure it’s used in a way that enriches our children’s lives, not harms them.” 32. What does Jordan suggest parents do when their children use the Internet? A. Offer instruction. B. Turn a blind eye. C. Monitor everything. D. Cut Internet access. 33. What does the underlined phrase “filter out” in paragraph 2 mean? A. Add. B. Remove. C. Keep. D. Mix. 34. How are parents advised to deal with their children’s fear of missing out? A. By asking them to post fun events. B. By showing them social media’s best parts. C. By setting a good example in communicating with teachers. D. By telling them to value reality over online comparisons. 35. Which of the following can be the best title for the text? A. Internet Developments and Threats B. A Parent’s Guide in Kids’ Digital World C. Social Media and Mental Health in Teens D. The Impact of Technology on Child Development 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 While it is possible for you to survive in the wild with nothing, you’ll always be much better off with a bit of preparation. ___36___. Learn how to find a survival shelter The most likely cause of death in the wild is not from having no food or water, but from getting too cold. ___37___. A shelter in the wild could be a fallen tree with dry ground below it, or up against a rocky outcropping. You can make the natural shelter stronger by leaning branches against the main structure or other wastes. Learn something about the bow-drill (弓钻) The bow-drill is a very valuable survival skill for creating fire. It can be learned in a relatively short period of time, and has the highest possibility of succeeding. The hardest part of creating a bow-drill is the string (细绳). ___38___, you’ll have the material needed to create a fire without worrying. Since it’s the easiest way to make fire by friction. Make a basic survival kit(工具包) ___39___. Some of the important items in a survival kit include a strong sharp knife, a fishing line, a signal whistle, a scarf and a water bottle. ___40___ Learn about the poisonous plants as well as edibles (可食物). This can also help you choose the best location for a shelter. However, there is no shortcut to get plant knowledge. You must put your time and energy into learning it. You can do it through either websites or published resources. A. Find water for survival B. If you can master the survival skills C. Improve your skills by identifying the plants D. So your first need in a typical survival situation is shelter E. Here are some steps you can take to prepare yourself for survival situations F. If you always wear shoes with strong shoestrings when you’re in the woods G. A small amount of basic materials could make all the difference in a survival situation 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A few years ago, Brian Perkins started using a cane (拐杖) to walk. It was a change that ___41___ his everyday life in ___42___ but significant ways. “The thing about walking with a cane is that I have only one hand to carry things,” he said. One day, Perkins was at the dry cleaner’s ___43___ his clothing. He stood at the counter with his cane. ___44___ he had more than he could carry in one hand out. A woman, sitting by the counter, looked at him, “Do you need any ___45___?” Perkins replied, “No, no, I’ve got it. I’ve got it.” Perkins went out to his car, opened the ___46___ and put his clothes in the back seat. When he ___47___ for the second load, the woman was walking toward him with the ___48___ of his clothes in her hands. She put them in the car and then said, “I ___49___ you. You’ve been helping people in our neighborhood all your life. Now it’s your ___50___. Accept it.” She was a stranger. But she ___51___ something in Perkins — he needed the prompting (暗示) to accept the help. “Her ___52___ had a ripple effect (连锁反应) on my life. Over the years, I’ve ___53___ many people who helped me and made a difference in my life,” Perkins said. “I’ve learned kindness is not something that is ___54___. And for that, I’ll be ___55___ forever.” 41. A. affected B. started C. recorded D. supported 42. A. positive B. similar C. equal D. small 43 A. fighting for B. picking up C. taking off D. putting aside 44. A. Silently B. Finally C. Obviously D. Hurriedly 45. A. help B. water C. money D. advice 46. A. book B. door C. case D. mouth 47. A. called B. tried C. chatted D. returned 48. A. rest B. price C. size D. color 49. A. save B. know C. pull D. protect 50. A. duty B. action C. excuse D. turn 51. A. required B. missed C. saw D. hid 52. A. changes B. words C. neighbors D. questions 53. A. promised B. welcomed C. met D. hurt 54. A. created B. overused C. understood D. forgotten 55. A. thankful B. relaxed C. careful D. surprised 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Kenya sped up efforts on Thursday to evacuate (疏散) hundreds of people trapped by floods ___56___ have hit many parts of the East African country. Floods ___57___ (make) more than 600,000 homeless since the beginning of heavy rains in November, according to the Red Cross, which is helping to coordinate the rescue efforts. Tens of thousands of people in Northern Kenya have lost livestock (家畜) farmland ___58___ homes due to the floods ___59___ (describe) by aid groups as the worst in 100 years. An international team of scientists reported last week that the ongoing rains in Eastern Africa have become much ___60___ (heavy) than before due to human-caused climate change. On Wednesday, British High Commissioner Neil Wigan ___61___ (visit) remote Mandera County, where a severe drought a year ago destroyed the livelihoods of people in many ___62___ (community). “Climate change is one of the greatest challenges facing everyone in the world, but you see in places like northern Kenya, where the impact of the drought and livestock dying and now the flood on people’s livelihood has been ___63___ (extreme) huge,” Wigan said. “We can make efforts to provide foods, medicine and other necessary supplies ___64___ people in the short run, but how can we build systems nationally and internationally aiming ___65___ (deal) with the effects of climate change?” 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 66. 假定你是高一学生李华，你校戏剧社团正面向高一学生招募社团新成员，请给社团负责人Joseph写封信，申请加入该社团。内容包括： 1．写信目的；2．申请理由。 注意：1．写作词数应为80个左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Joseph, _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 The sound of the starting gun echoed (回荡) through the air, and Mia’s heart was racing. She was on the starting line of the state track championship, holding her breath. The other runners around her were focused, their eyes on the track ahead. This was the moment Mia had worked for her entire life—a defining moment, one that could change everything. However, the journey leading up to this moment was far from easy. Mia had started running when she was eight years old. From the very beginning, she dreamed of winning a state championship. For years, she trained harder than anyone, pushing her body to the limit, always aiming for a bigger improvement. But two months ago, she faced the worst setback of her life—— she pulled her hamstring (腘绳肌) during training for the big game. The injury forced her to stop running completely for weeks. The pain and disappointment were unbearable. Every time she tried to get back on the track, her body felt weak. She couldn’t shake the feeling of uncertainty. What if I could never run again? What if I missed my one shot at the championship? Her coach believed in her abilities, though. “The journey to success isn’t just about talent,” he told her one evening as they reviewed her recovery plan. “It’s about believing in yourself even when times get hard. Focus on getting better step by step.” Mia kept those words in mind as she started her slow, painful recovery. She focused on her physical therapy (理疗), rebuilding strength with each passing day. Slowly, she started to trust her body again. Every workout was a challenge. Her muscles burned, and her legs shook, but Mia never gave up. Now, standing at the starting line, her journey felt both unreal and achievable. She had trained through pain, through self-doubt, and through tears. Today, she would prove that all the efforts she had made were worthwhile. 注意：1.续写词数应为150个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 The sound of the starting gun pulled Mia away from her thoughts. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Finally, Mia crossed the finish line, with the crowd cheering. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 府谷中学2025年春高一年级第一次质量调研检测卷 英语 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：人教版必修第一册至必修第二册。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】A 【2题答案】 【答案】B 【3题答案】 【答案】C 【4题答案】 【答案】C 【5题答案】 【答案】A 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. C 7. A 【8~10题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. A 10. B 【11~13题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. B 13. B 【14~16题答案】 【答案】14. A 15. C 16. B 【17~20题答案】 【答案】17. A 18. B 19. B 20. C 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【21~23题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. B 23. C B 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. A 25. D 26. D 27. B C 【28~31题答案】 【答案】28. C 29. A 30. C 31. D D 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. A 33. B 34. D 35. B 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. E 37. D 38. F 39. G 40. C 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【41~55题答案】 【答案】41. A 42. D 43. B 44. C 45. A 46. B 47. D 48. A 49. B 50. D 51. C 52. B 53. C 54. D 55. A 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【56~65题答案】 【答案】56. that##which 57. have made 58. and##or 59. described 60. heavier 61. visited 62. communities 63. extremely 64. for##to 65. to deal 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【66题答案】 【答案】Dear Joseph, I am a freshman at senior high school, writing to apply for joining your club. I am outgoing with a strong passion for drama. Having been attracted by drama since childhood, I believe being a member of your club will offer me a good opportunity to explore my passion further. Besides, I am excited about working with a group of talented individuals, bringing stories to life on the stage. Finally, I think Drama Club will enrich my school life greatly. I do hope to be a member of your club. Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 【67题答案】 【答案】The sound of the starting gun pulled Mia away from her thoughts. Mia began to run, keeping an even and controlled breath. The first lap went effortlessly. As Mia neared the halfway point, her legs were tired, but she refused to stop. “You can do this,” she thought. “One lap at a time.” The last lap came, and Mia pushed harder. The sound of her breathing filled her ears, and the finish line came into view. With just a few meters to go, Mia summoned every ounce of strength she had left. Finally, Mia crossed the finish line, with the crowed cheering. Breathless, she looked around, hearing that sound of thunderous applause. Tears welled up in her eyes. She made it. Mia stood on the podium later that day, holding her medal high. She had overcome pain, injury, doubt and fear. This honor was about more than a medal—— it was about the belief that a strong will could help one get over difficulties. The road to success was never easy, but Mia knew one thing: Sometimes the hardest moments lead to the sweetest victories. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$