安徽省怀宁县高河中学2024-2025学年高一下学期开学英语试题

2024级高一下学期2月开年考 英语试题 本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Why does the woman dislike her roommate? A. She is lazy. B. She is impolite. C. She is untidy. 2. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a cinema. B. In a restaurant. C. In a bus. 3. When does the movie begin? A. At 7:45. B. At 7:30. C. At 7:15. 4. What does the man think of his new computer? A. It’s quite expensive. B. It is hard to use. C. It is worth it. 5. What makes the prices of the two cases different? A. The size. B. The material. C. The style. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。 6. What attracts the man to the tea? A. Its smell. B. Its taste. C. Its color. 7. What tea is bad according to the woman? A. Very strong tea. B. Very hot tea. C. Very leafy tea. 听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。 8. Why does the woman feel sick? A. She feels nervous about her illness. B. She’s been studying too hard. C. She cannot sleep well at night. 9. What does the man suggest the woman do? A. Take some medicine. B. Get more fresh air. C. Get more sleep. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What does the man usually do at the weekend? A. He watches TV. B. He goes shopping. C. He plays football. 11. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Father and daughter. B. Brother and sister. C. Husband and wife. 12. What does the woman suggest doing this weekend? A. Holding a party. B. Having a picnic. C. Visiting their friends. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. Where will the contest be held? A. In the reading room. B. In the school hall. C. In the school library. 14. Why does the woman want to join in the contest? A. The contest is encouraging. B. The prize sounds great. C. She has a gift for painting. 15. How can students sign up for the contest? A. By going to the Student Union. B. By winning a national contest. C. By sending some art works. 16. What will the woman do next? A. Sign up for the contest. B. Go to the reading room. C. Return to the classroom. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. When did the activity begin in college? A. In 2020. B. In 2022. C. In 2024. 18. What do most students get in the activity? A. Three pens. B. A notebook. C. A free breakfast. 19. What organization of the college started the activity? A. The student news agency. B. The business committee. C. The sports department. 20. Why was the activity held? A. To help students to get high grades. B. To help students to train better. C. To encourage students to do exercise. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Three Serene Resorts in the South Coast of Malaysia Pantai Tengah Nestled along the untouched sands of Pantai Tengah, the wonderful Tanjong Jara Resort offers a range of activities such as yoga by the sea, traditional boat rides in the nearby mangoves (红树林), and cultural workshops. You can also visit the nearby turtle shelters and enjoy the local cuisine at the on-site restaurants. Awang Seaview Resort Located in the heart of Awang Seaview Resort you’ll find a mix of modern comfort with traditional Malaysian architecture. The resort offers a variety of water sports, a kids’ club with a mini water park, and a serene spa for adults. Nearby, you can explore the local markets and taste the street food. Sungai Buloh Nature Resort Surrounded by lush greenery, Sungai Buloh Nature Resort is perfect for nature lovers. The resort provides guided nature walks, bird watching tours, and access to a private beach. You can also join in the resort’s sustainable farming program and enjoy the organic (有机的) produce at their restaurant. All of Malaysia’s finest resorts are in high demand, particularly during the peak season. To ensure you get a spot in these peaceful and well-appointed resorts, it’s best to book your stay as soon as your travel plans are confirmed. 1. Which resort is most suitable for families with children? A. Pantai Tengah. B. Sungai Buloh Nature Resort. C. Awang Seaview Resort. D. None of the above. 2. What do Pantai Tengah and Awang Seaview Resort have in common? A. They both offer cultural workshops. B. They both have a kids’ club with a mini water park. C. They both provide traditional boat rides. D. They both have something to eat there. 3. What is the advice given to visitors? A. Buy travel tickets at a low price. B. Join in water sports during the rainy season. C. Enjoy nature walks in February. D. Book your accommodation in advance. B “When I was 8, a doctor predicted that I wouldn’t live past 20. But now I’m here, at 29, happy with my life,” says Ma Jun, the youngest prize-winner of this year’s Junma Award for Ethnic Literature, one of China’s four major national literary prizes held every four years. Ma, who uses a wheelchair, was born in 1995 in the Ningxia Hui autonomous region. His first winning prose collection (散文集) Qing Bai Shijie (The Green and White Stone Steps), is divided into five parts, describing his life experiences: growing up, daily life, love and desire, emotions and reflections. In Chinese, qing bai suggests purity and innocence. In the opening chapter, he reminded his childhood when he couldn’t move or stand without help. While his peers ran and played, Ma could only sit on the stone steps, watching in frustration and sadness. Some people cruelly suggested his lack of mobility was “divine punishment (天谴)” for supposed wrongdoings. Through his writing, Ma hopes to counter such prejudice (偏见), showing that he is no different from anyone else. Shi Tiesheng’s best-seller Wo Yu Ditan (I and the Temple of Earth) changed Ma’s life. Shi, a renowned writer who also uses a wheelchair, had transformed his struggles into literature. Ma was struck by the realization that someone with similar struggles could find meaning and joy in life. He started a three-year journey of writing the book by recording his own life, pouring his heart and soul into the words. “Be a faithful writer.” It is now his life motto. Writing is not just a profession for Ma — it’s a lifeline, a way to connect with the world and leave behind a footprint of courage, sincerity and hope. 4. Why did Ma Jun use Qing Bai Shijie as the title of the prose collection? A. To entertain readers with his life stories. B. To counter prejudice against people with disabilities. C. To win literary awards easily. D. To present his wisdom and bravery. 5. Which of the following about Shi Tiesheng is TRUE? A. He is the oldest prize-winner of the Junma Award for Ethnic Literature. B. He also uses a wheelchair and has transformed his struggles into literature. C. He suggested that Ma Jun’s lack of mobility was “divine punishment”. D. He wrote a book called Qing Bai Shijie. 6. What is the meaning of writing for Ma Jun? A. A way to connect with the world and leave a footprint. B. A way to make a living. C. A way to forget his struggles and find joy. D. A hobby to pass the time. 7. Which one is the best to describe Ma Jun’s character according to the text? A. Weak and negative. B. Generous and honest. C. Tough and optimistic. D. Humorous and smart. C The 2024 Peking Opera Cultural Season co-organized by the government of Beijing’s Xicheng district began at the Mei Lanfang Grand Theatre on Nov. 8. The season will run until Dec.23. The opening ceremony featured many top Peking Opera artists, including Hu Wenge and Suo Mingfang, who performed classic Peking Opera excerpts (片段), such as The Empty City Strategy and Mu Guiying Takes Command. There was also cooperation with famous Peking Opera artists from the Tianjin Peking Opera Troupe, including Jiao Pengfei and Liu Jiaxin, and the Hebei Shijiazhuang Peking Opera Troupe, including Zhao Yuhua, who sang together to display Peking Opera’s regional styles. To memorize the 130th anniversary of Peking Opera master Mei Lanfang’s birth and the 120th anniversary of Peking Opera master Cheng Yanqiu’s birth, the opening ceremony invited young Peking Opera performers who have continued the performing styles founded by the masters to recall the tradition of generations and show appreciation. The cultural season will be held at various places, such as the Mei Lanfang Grand Theatre, Beijing Huguang Guild Hall, and Tianqiao Performing Arts Center. Over 20 professional Peking Opera performances will be staged to give the audience a chance to experience the unique charm of the old art form. The season has launched a “Youth Drama Society — Peking University and Tsinghua University” event, where students from these famous universities participate in Peking Opera salons and discussions, bringing together a century-old opera house — Huguang Guild Hall — and century-old schools, showing the unique elegance of opera in a youthful, fashionable manner. The closing performance of Jin Feng Yu Lu will be staged at the Beijing Huguang Guild Hall on Dec.23. This production, presented as a musical drama, shows Peking Opera, telling the story of its dramatic rise and fall and the artistic journey of its masters while representing the spirit of hard work and devotion in the new era. 8. When and where did the 2024 Peking Opera Cultural Season begin? A. On Nov.8 at the Mei Lanfang Grand Theatre. B. On Nov. 8 at the Tianqiao Performing Arts Center. C. On Dec.23 at the Beijing Huguang Guild Hall. D. On Dec.23 at the Mei Lanfang Grand Theatre. 9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as part of the opening ceremony? A. Performances by top Peking Opera artists. B. Cooperation with Peking Opera artists from Tianjin and Hebei. C. In memory of Mei Lanfang and Cheng Yanqiu. D. A fashion show featuring Chinese traditional culture. 10. What is the purpose of the “Youth Dram a Society — Peking University and Tsinghua University” event? A. To train young Peking Opera performers. B. To show the opera’s beauty in a youthful and fashionable way. C. To stage over 20 professional Peking Opera performances. D. To show Peking Opera’s regional styles. 11. What is the main idea of the text? A. The opening ceremony at the Mei Lanfang Grand Theatre. B. The celebration of the anniversaries of Mei Lanfang and Cheng Yanqiu’s births. C. The celebration of Peking Opera culture with various performances and events. D. The cooperation between Peking Opera artists from different regions. D A popular method for helping sleep is imaging a peaceful scene in mind, such as a meadow with cows eating. This technique has been a subject of curiosity and debate among sleep experts. The question arises, what is the origin of this practice, and does it truly aid in achieving restful sleep? A recent study sought to explore the effectiveness of such visualization techniques (可视化技术). Dr. Emily Martin, the lead researcher, explained that the study was not focused on counting cows, but rather on the broader concept of using mental imagery to address sleep difficulties. The study involved 60 participants who were divided into three groups. The first group received no specific guidance on how to sleep, the second group was advised to join in any activity that would help them relax and get their minds off their thoughts, and the third group was tasked with visualizing calming scenes, such as a beach at sunset or a quiet forest. Participants who joined in mental imagery reported a quite faster beginning of sleep and described their worries as less annoying compared to the other groups. Interestingly, a few members in the relaxation group chose to visualize cows eating as their method of relaxation, which seemed to be similar to the public, perhaps because of its simplicity and familiarity. Dr. Martin, who has not researched the act of counting cows specifically and is unaware of any studies that have, offers her view based on her knowledge in sleep medicine. “Something as ordinary as counting cows is unlikely to be universally effective,” she noted. “Given the differences among people, a one-size-fits-all solution is not practical. Instead, we want to find a personalized approach to sleep improvement.” 12. What does the underlined word “meadow” in the first paragraph most likely mean? A. A field of flowers. B. A grassy area. C. A place for growing crops. D. A forest with many trees. 13. What was the main focus of Dr. Emily Martin’s study? A. To compare different sleep-aiding techniques. B. To promote the visualization of cows for sleep. C. To understand the causes of sleep difficulties. D. To test the benefits of relaxation activities. 14. Why does Dr. Martin believe that visualizing cows might not be effective for everyone? A. Because it is not a scientifically proven technique. B Because it is too simple and lacks creativity. C. Because it does not take into account the differences among participants. D. Because it is not a traditional method in sleep medicine. 15. What might the text discuss next? A. Personalized sleep improvement methods. B. The importance of various approaches to sleep solutions. C. The history of using mental imagery for sleep. D. The basis for sleep visualization techniques. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 In today’s society, learning is not just about passing exams; it’s more important for our personal growth. ____16____. It can open doors to new opportunities and better our ability to succeed in life. Success in life often starts with learning. ____17____; it’s about developing skills that will serve us throughout our lives. Learning doesn’t have to be limited to the classroom._____18_____. Experiences outside the classroom can be just as valuable, teaching us practical skills and life lessons. This kind of learning is often more valuable because it teaches us how to apply what we know in real-life situations. ____19____. Having a growth mindset means we never stop growing and adapting to changes and challenges in the world. This mindset encourages us to see challenges as opportunities to learn and improve, rather than viewing them as troubles. For students, learning is the key to motivating our potential and achieving our dreams. A love for learning can unlock many doors. It’s not just about getting good grades; it’s about developing a love for learning that will last a lifetime. We should enjoy the learning process and see it as a journey of discovery and self-improvement. ____20____. A. Knowledge is power B. It’s not just about memorizing facts C. Beyond the classroom, learning is endless D. Adaptability is very important in a changing world E. Learning is a continuous journey that goes beyond formal education F. It’s the key to unlocking our potential and the basis for a lifetime of achievement G. By doing so, we can turn our hopes into reality and make a positive impact on the world around us 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 I was on a small boat alone, out on the vast ocean. I was enjoying the ____21____ waters and the gentle breeze (微风) when suddenly, a storm ____22____, and the waves grew taller than I had ever seen. The boat turned over, and I found myself in the water, seizing a piece of the wreckage (残骸). The cold water ____23____ me, but I knew I had to stay calm. I remembered the ____24____ lessons I had learned in school: keep your head above water, maintain energy, and stay positive. I set foot on water, trying to keep my body warm and my ____25____ up. Hours passed, and I began to feel ____26____. The sun was setting, and the sea around me turned dark and ____27____. I sang songs to myself to ____28____ the fear, and I thought of my family, hoping they were safe and praying for my own survival. As the night ____29____, I noticed a light in the distance. It was weak, but it was there. I swam towards it, my arms and legs aching from the _____30_____. The light grew brighter, and I realized it was a ship. I waved my arms, _____31_____ with all my strength, and to my relief, they saw me. The crew (船员) _____32_____ me aboard, and I lay on the deck, tired but alive. I learned later that it was a merchant ship, and they were heading back to port. I was _____33_____ for their rescue and for the chance to tell my tale. That experience taught me the importance of hope and _____34_____. No matter how _____35_____ the situation is, there is always a chance for survival if you keep your mind clear and never give up. 21. A. silent B. stressed C. calm D. huge 22. A. rolled in B. turned in C. kept in D. brought in 23. A. excited B. interested C. moved D. shocked 24. A. arrival B. survival C. improvement D. agreement 25. A. characters B. concerns C. goals D. spirits 26. A. tired B. relaxed C. comfortable D. surprised 27. A. imaginary B. fantastic C. abnormal D. wonderful 28. A. pass away B. scare away C. put away D. give away 29. A. tried on B. held on C. put on D. wore on 30. A. effect B. effort C. subject D. project 31. A. laughing B. shouting C. stepping D. running 32. A. pulled B. pushed C. attacked D. changed 33. A. responsible B. hopeful C. thankful D. available 34. A. exploration B. conversation C. tradition D. determination 35. A. tough B. comfortable C. simple D. similar 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 On December 4, 2024, “Spring Festival, social practices of the Chinese people in celebration of the traditional New Year”____36____ (add) to the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity by UNESCO（联合国教科文组织人类非物质文化遗产代表作名录）. Chinese New Year, also ____37____ (know) as the Spring Festival, is one of the most important traditional ____38____ (holiday) in China. China’s Vice Minister of Culture and Tourism, Rao Quan, ____39____ led the Chinese delegation (代表团) at the UNESCO session, expressed gratitude for the ____40____ (recognize). He stressed that the Spring Festival symbolizes the Chinese people’s hopes for a better life, strong ties to family and country, ____41____ the values of harmony (和谐相处) between humans and nature. From dumplings to ____42____ (stick) rice cakes, from fried meatballs to braised fish, all dishes carry the best blessings. According to UNESCO’s documentation, the traditional knowledge and customs combined ____43____ the Spring Festival are passed down informally within families and communities, as well as formally through the education system. Craftsmanship and artistic skills related to ____44____ festival are handed down through training, promoting family values, social unity and peace, while ____45____ (provide) a sense of cultural belonging. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假定你是校书法协会的会长李明，为了让同学们书写规范化，体会中国传统文化之书法艺术的魅力，你们协会上周末开展了一次书写活动。请你给笔友Tim写一封邮件分享这次协会的活动经历，内容包括： 1.活动的具体过程； 2.对活动感想。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 参考词汇：书法协会：Calligraphy Association；规范书写：standardized writing Dear Tim, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Ming 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 One sunny afternoon Li Hua, a diligent high school student, was working his part-time job at a local café. Balancing his academics with this job had been challenging yet rewarding, teaching him valuable lessons in discipline, time management, and self-sufficiency. The day had been mostly normal — the café was crowed and lively with customers, enjoying their afternoon tea and snacks as he busily wiped down tables and took orders. Suddenly, things took a dramatic turn. There was a sudden burst of noise at a corner table. Li Hua noticed a middle-aged man was almost speechless, his face turning red and his hands clawing at his throat in desperation. Panic spread among the diners, who were at a loss for what to do. Li Hua, sensing the urgency, dropped his cloth and rushed over. He realized the customer was choking (噎着) and at the same time his mind raced back to the first aid training he had received in school, which included instructions on the Heimlich maneuver (海姆立克急救法). Although he had never used it in real life, he knew he had to act quickly. 注意： 1.续写词数应为150左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 He approached the choking man from behind wrapped his arms around the man’s waist, and positioned himself correctly. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ His teachers and classmates praised him for his quick thinking and bravery. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2024级高一下学期2月开年考 英语试题 本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Why does the woman dislike her roommate? A. She is lazy. B. She is impolite. C. She is untidy. 2. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a cinema. B. In a restaurant. C. In a bus. 3. When does the movie begin? A. At 7:45. B. At 7:30. C. At 7:15. 4. What does the man think of his new computer? A. It’s quite expensive. B. It is hard to use. C. It is worth it. 5. What makes the prices of the two cases different? A. The size. B. The material. C. The style. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。 6. What attracts the man to the tea? A. Its smell. B. Its taste. C. Its color. 7. What tea is bad according to the woman? A. Very strong tea. B. Very hot tea. C. Very leafy tea. 听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。 8. Why does the woman feel sick? A. She feels nervous about her illness. B. She’s been studying too hard. C. She cannot sleep well at night. 9. What does the man suggest the woman do? A. Take some medicine. B. Get more fresh air. C. Get more sleep. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What does the man usually do at the weekend? A. He watches TV. B. He goes shopping. C. He plays football. 11. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Father and daughter. B. Brother and sister. C. Husband and wife. 12. What does the woman suggest doing this weekend? A. Holding a party. B. Having a picnic. C. Visiting their friends. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. Where will the contest be held? A. In the reading room. B. In the school hall. C. In the school library. 14. Why does the woman want to join in the contest? A. The contest is encouraging. B. The prize sounds great. C. She has a gift for painting. 15. How can students sign up for the contest? A. By going to the Student Union. B. By winning a national contest. C. By sending some art works. 16. What will the woman do next? A. Sign up for the contest. B. Go to the reading room. C. Return to the classroom. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. When did the activity begin in college? A. In 2020. B. In 2022. C. In 2024. 18. What do most students get in the activity? A. Three pens. B. A notebook. C. A free breakfast. 19. What organization of the college started the activity? A. The student news agency. B. The business committee. C. The sports department. 20. Why was the activity held? A. To help students to get high grades. B. To help students to train better. C. To encourage students to do exercise. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. D 3. D B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. B 6. A 7. C C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. A 14. C 15. A 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. F 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. G 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. C 28. B 29. D 30. B 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. A 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. was added 37. known 38. holidays 39. who 40. recognition 41. and 42. sticky 43. with 44. the 45. providing 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear Tim, I’m writing to share with you about the recent activity organized by our Calligraphy Association. Last weekend, we held a writing event to promote standardized writing and explore the beauty of Chinese calligraphy. The activity began with a short lecture on basic brush techniques and the cultural significance of calligraphy. Then, members practiced writing classic poems and proverbs. We also set up a display area where participants shared their works and exchanged feedback. The highlight was a friendly competition, with everyone voting for their favorite pieces. Through practice, we realized that standardized writing isn’t just about neat characters but also it’s a bridge connecting us to history and culture. Best regards, Li Ming 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】 He approached the choking man from behind, wrapped his arms around the man’s waist, and positioned himself correctly. With a deep breath, he started to perform the Heimlich maneuver. He pressed his hands firmly on the man’s abdomen and gave quick upward thrusts. Each time he did this, his heart was pounding fast, praying that it would work. After several attempts, a piece of food shot out of the man’s mouth. The man immediately began to cough and breathe normally again. The customers who had been watching in horror finally let out sighs of relief. His heroic deeds soon spread to the school. His teachers and classmates praised him for his quick thinking and bravery. “Li Hua, you are a hero!” his teacher said, who was extremely proud of him. Li Hua just smiled shyly, saying that anyone in his position would have done the same. What he had learned in the first aid training class really made a difference. This experience taught him that knowledge learned in school could be used to save lives in real situations. From then on, he became more enthusiastic about learning all kinds of useful skills. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$