安徽省池州市部分学校联考 2024-2025学年七年级下学期开学英语试题

安徽省池州市2024-2025学年七年级下学期开学 英语试题（人教版） 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2. 全卷包括”试题卷”（8页）和”答题卡”（2页）两部分。 3. 请务必在”答题卡”上答题，在”试题卷”上答题无效。 4. 考试结束后，请将”试题卷”和”答题卡”一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What’s Mike’s favourite sport? A. B. C. 2. How do most of Tom’s classmates go to school? A. B. C. 3. What time is the boy’s music class? A. At seven. B. At eight. C. At nine. 4. Where does Judy go today? A. To the park. B. To a farm. C. To her classmate’s home. 5. Who is Jim’s art teacher? A. Mrs Li. B. Mrs Huang. C. Mrs Wang. Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听对话，回答以下各小题。 6. Where is the study club? A. On the right of the science building. B. Behind the dining hall. C. Next to the library. 7. What does Jack help Lucy with? A. Her English. B. Her Chinese. C. Her maths. 听对话，回答以下各小题。 8. What does Grace eat for breakfast? A. Eggs and oranges. B. Rice and salad. C. Chicken and bread. 9. What does David like? A. Pears. B. Apples. C. Oranges. 10. What does Grace’s father like for dinner? A. Bread. B. Carrots. C. Tomatoes. Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. Where is Judy now? A. In a shop. B. At school. C. At home. 12. Who is Jim? A. Judy’s brother. B. Judy’s cousin. C. Judy’s friend. 13. What time does the party start? A. At 6:00. B. At 6:30. C. At 7:00. 14. What is the gift? A. A ticket to the basketball game. B. A ticket to the football game. C. A big cup. 15. How does Judy go to the party? A. By bike. B. On foot. C. By bus. Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 Name Mary Gina Age thirteen 16 17 seven nine Club in the 18 club in the sports club Likes acting playing tennis and 19 Dislikes and reasons playing sports / too difficult reading books / 20 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 1. We need to take good care of our ________ so that we can eat and drink well. A. homework B. teeth C. news D. flags 2. —Can you play chess? —Yes. I often play it ________ my teacher. A. over B. to C. with D. from 3. —What’s that in your desk? —It’s a map of the world. Mr Brown buys it to help me learn ________. A. music B. maths C. IT D. geography 4. I came from a ________ family. My family is skilled in all kinds of music. A. similar B. musical C. big D. magic 5. —Your sister is very nice to you. —Yes. She always ________ the big one for me when Mum gives us apples. A. chooses B. collects C. discovers D. notices 6 Miss Li usually get pairs of students to ________ the dialogue (对话) in front of the class. A. act out B. get up C. put up D. work out 7. —What time do you get up every day? —Usually at about 6:30 I get up late ________ at weekends. A. only B. soon C. really D. even 8. —With ________ does she plant the trees in the park? —With her friends, she says. A. when B. what C. where D. whom 9 March is the ________ month of the year and October is the tenth month. A. second B. third C. fourth D. fifth 10. —Happy birthday to you, Jim. —________. A. Me too B. No way C. You’re right D. Thank you Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A Hi, boys and girls. I’m Andy, from Class 1. In my class, there are ____11____ students, 26 boys and 14 girls. Welcome to No. 8 Middle School in a city of ____12____. Look at the map of our school! This is the school ____13____. There are about 10000 books in ____14____. I like going there to read books. What is that building on the right? Oh, it is the classroom building. It is ____15____. I like the colour. There are 30 ____16____ in the classroom building. I go to different classrooms to have classes every day. The sports field is behind the classroom building. I like to play ____17____ there, like basketball and football. Oh, here is the Lost and Found Office (失物招领处). Mr Green’s ____18____ is here. You can ask him for your lost things. His ____19____ number is 991-3210. Do you ____20____ our American school? I hope you can enjoy your school life here. 11. A. thirty B. forty C. fifty D. sixty 12. A. America B. China C. England D. France 13. A. playground B. office C. gym D. library 14. A. this B. them C. it D. these 15. A. red B. great C. special D. meaningful 16. A. teachers B. students C. offices D. classrooms 17. A. cards B. sports C. chess D. computer 18. A. job B. water C. picture D. tree 19. A. class B. bus C. room D. phone 20. A. know B. thank C. like D. help B Do you know Kevin? He works as a PE teacher in our school. He comes from England and he teaches ____21____ in our school football team (队). He ____22____ Hefei is a good place. He likes the food here. And he likes the nice people here too. ____23____ does he go every day? Let’s have a look. In the morning, he plays football in the gym. He has many classes every day, and then he always finishes his ____24____ at 6:00 p.m. After that, he goes to the dining hall and eats dinner there. Now it is 6:30 p.m. Kevin sits at the table. He wants to eat French fries and pizza today ____25____ they are his favourite food. When he eats ____26____, he thinks he is at home in England. Kevin is ____27____, so everyone in the school likes him. They also call him “Fun Brother”. Every ____28____, there is a school sale. Kevin sells many things to us. These things are from England and they are so interesting. And he ____29____ some things for his son. Kevin says he likes the relaxing and interesting ____30____ in Hefei. 21. A. football B. English C. music D. IT 22. A. watches B. meets C. thinks D. needs 23. A. How B. Where C. When D. Why 24. A. list B. try C. work D. rest 25. A. because B. so C. but D. and 26. A. it B. them C. his D. they 27. A. fun B. free C. long D. cool 28. A. unit B. term C. while D. part 29. A. asks B. calls C. buys D. takes 30. A. office B. club C. gym D. life Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 Andy: Hi. Paul! ___31___ Paul: It is OK. Monday is my favourite day. Andy: Why do you like Monday? Paul: Because I have music on Monday. ___32___ Andy: On Thursday, but I don’t like music very much. Science is my favourite. It’s really interesting and Mr Smith is a good teacher. ___33___ Paul: Mrs Black. She’s great. She always has a lot of fun games. Andy: Is Mr Brown your history teacher? Paul: Yes, he is. I don’t like history, but Mr Brown is very funny. ___34___ Andy: Friday. Paul: Why? Andy: Because the next day is Saturday. I needn’t go to school on that day. Paul: Haha! ___35___ A. That’s for sure. B. When do you have music? C. What’s your favourite day? D. It’s my favourite subject. E. Who’s your music teacher? F. How’s your day? G. Do you like geography? 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Jim is a British boy but he lives in China now. He is thirteen years old. He likes helping others. He gets up early every day and often helps his classmates learn English. After school, he likes to play football, swim and run. He wants to go to Australia and swim there in the sea. Lily is an American girl of twelve years old. She likes reading books very much. She has a lot of books in her study room. Every day, she spends half an hour reading. Her favourite book is Harry Potter. She has read it three times. Besides reading, she also likes playing the piano. She practises it for one hour every Tuesday afternoon. Jeff is a middle school student. He is fourteen years old. He goes to school from Monday to Friday. He likes Tuesday very much because he has music on that day. He thinks music is relaxing. His favourite subject is English. He doesn’t like maths. He thinks it is very difficult. Jeff’s favourite sport is basketball. And he plays it very well. He wants to join the basketball club. Jeff is good to his friends. 36. Where does Jim live now? A. In England. B. In America. C. In Australia. D. In China. 37. What does Lily do on Tuesday afternoon? A. She practises swimming. B. She reads books. C. She listens to music. D. She plays the piano. 38. Which of the following is RIGHT? A. Jeff likes music and basketball. B. Lily likes reading and sports. C. Jim doesn’t go to school. D. Jeff wants to join the music club. B In Canada and the United States, people often invite (邀请) friends over to their home for a meal, a party or just for a coffee and conversation. Here are the kinds of words people say when they invite someone to their home. “Would you like to come over for dinner on Saturday night?” “Hey, we’re having a party on Friday. Can you come?” To reply (回复) to an invitation, you can either say thank you and accept or say you’re sorry and give an excuse, “Thanks, I’d love to. What time would you like me to come?” or “Oh, sorry, I’ve got tickets for a movie.” Sometimes, however, people use expressions that sound like invitations but which are not real invitations. For example, “Please come over for a drink sometime.” “Why not get together for a party sometime?” “Why don’t you come over and see us sometime soon?” They are really just polite (礼貌的) ways of ending a conversation. They are not real invitations because they don’t mention a specific (确定的) time or date. They just show that the person is trying to be friendly. To reply to expressions like these, people just say, “Sure, that would be great!” or “OK, thanks.” So next time when you hear what sounds like an invitation, listen carefully: Is it a real (真的) invitation or is the person just being friendly? 39. Which of the following is a real invitation? A. “If you are free, let’s go for a dinner sometime.” B. “Please go to the cinema with me someday.” C. “Would you like to have a cup of tea with us sometime?” D. “I’ve got two tickets here. Can you go to the movie with me on Sunday?” 40. What can you say if people say “Let’s get together for lunch someday.”? A. Oh, sorry. I’m very busy. B. How about this weekend? C. That would be nice. D. That’s great. I’ll be there on time. 41. Why do people use an unreal invitation? A. Because they haven’t got ready for a party yet. B. Because they’re trying to be helpful. C. Because they’re trying to make friends with others. D. Because they’re trying to be friendly. 42. What is the passage mainly about? A. Invitations and replies. B. How to make a real invitation. C. People like to invite friends in Canada. D. Polite ways of ending a conversation. C I’m Sara. I’m a middle school student. At school we have nine subjects—maths, English, Chinese, science, geography, history, art, PE and music. My mother is a Chinese teacher. She says Chinese is beautiful and important. So I like it. I always read Chinese books before I go to bed. I also like history. It is my favourite subject. Mr Brown is great fun. In his history class, I can learn many interesting stories. Mr Green is my maths teacher. He says maths is useful and interesting, but I think it is not. My science teacher, Mrs Smith, is nice. I listen to her carefully in class. But I can’t do well in the exam (考试). I don’t know why. This subject is really difficult for me. We always have art, PE or music in the afternoon. For me, the classes in the afternoon are fun and relaxing. In PE class I like to play tennis with my PE teacher. Mrs. Miller plays tennis very well. 43. What subject does Sara’s mother teach? A. Maths. B. Chinese. C. Science. D. History. 44. What is Sara’s feeling about science? A. She feels it difficult to learn well. B. She thinks she can learn it well. C. She doesn’t think it is useful. D. She doesn’t like the teacher. 45. Which is RIGHT for Sara? A. She reads interesting stories in the evening. B. She listens to Mr Green carefully in class. C. She thinks maths is useful and interesting. D. She likes to have art and music classes in the afternoon. D The Rocky Mountains are a large group of mountains (山脉) on the North American continent (北美洲). The Rockies are in the western part of North America. They stretch (连绵) from Canada in the north to the United States in the south. The southern part of the Rockies ends in the state of New Mexico. The Rockies are the longest mountain range in North America. They have many high peaks (山峰). The highest is Mount Elbert in Colorado. It is three miles high. In the summer, the Rockies are warm and dry (干的), though it does rain sometimes. During the winter, the weather is wet and cold. Heavy winter snow falls in the higher parts of the Rockies. Many people like to visit these mountains. They ride bikes, hike on trails, ski or fish. A special area (地区) called Rocky Mountain National Park is in Colorado. The national park is for people to visit. Visitors to Rocky Mountain National Park can see the wild animals that live there. These animals include elk (麋鹿), moose (驼鹿), mountain goats, and mountain sheep. 46. Where are the Rocky Mountains? A. In Canada. B. In North America. C. In the US. D. In New Mexico. 47. If you don’t like rainy days, what season is the best time to go the Rocky Mountains? A. Spring. B. Summer. C. Autumn. D. Winter. 48. What may the underlined word “include” mean in Chinese? A. 包括 B. 饲养 C. 繁殖 D. 生长 49. Where can we read this article? A. In a science book. B. In a history book. C. In a geography magazine. D. In a biology newspaper. E Now people in England, the US and many other countries celebrate Mother’s Day. Mother’s Day is on the second Sunday of May. On this day, children give flowers, cards, chocolate and other things to their mothers, but they don’t give money to them. And they also make gifts for their mothers. And some of them get up early to cook breakfast for their mothers. They also help their mothers do housework. They want to show their love to their mothers. Many people in China celebrate this festival for their mothers because they want to show their love to their mothers too. In every Chinese family, the mother looks after (照顾) the children, does the housework and cooks meals for the family, so she is quite hard-working (勤奋的) and she is always busy in the family. Now more and more people celebrate Mother’s Day in China. 50. What gift is NOT suitable (适当的) for our mothers on Mother’s Day? A. Flowers and cards. B. Chocolate. C. Money. D. A dinner for our mothers. 51. Why do many Chinese people celebrate this festival for mothers? A. Because they know Mother’s Day. B. Because their mothers are very busy. C. Because they want to help their mothers. D. Because they love their mothers very much. 52 What is the best title for the text? A. Mother’s Day B. Happy Mothers C. Love Mothers D. Mothers Are Great F 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。 She has no mouth, but she always looks happy. She is on almost everything you see: clocks, notebooks, schoolbags, watches, even on toasters (烤面包机)! She is Hello Kitty, one of the most popular cats in the world. Hello Kitty was born on 1 November, 1974 and she lives in London with her parents and her twin sister, Mimmy. Her hobbies are travelling, music, reading, eating delicious cookies and making new friends. The company Sanrio made Hello Kitty more than thirty years ago. The cat soon became popular. People love her different styles. In 1995, she was wearing a nurse’s uniform. Two years later, the ribbon (丝带) in her hair was changed to a flower. Many girls copied her style. In 1999, Kitty even got a boyfriend, Daniel. “Why do we love Kitty so much? It’s because she is changing with the times,” said Yuko Yamaguchi, the Hello Kitty designer. “We always try to give Kitty fresh looks. The first Kitty I made was with a piano. That was because lots of Japanese girls at that time played the piano. And a piano was something they all wanted.” 53. Who is Hello Kitty? (不超过12个词) ________________________________________ 54. What does Hello Kitty like? (不超过15个词) ________________________________________ 55. Why do people love Kitty so much? (不超过10个词) ________________________________________ 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 56. Let me just f________ (完成) this and then I will come. 57. Nature can open our m________ (头脑) and in it we can learn more than in books. 58. John reads the passage and m________ (做记号) where he has questions. 59. She writes her f________ (完整的) name on the first page of the book. 60. Please keep quiet in your s________ (座位). I have something to tell you. X. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 61. 你们班准备开展以”健康生活每一天”为主题的征文活动，请根据下列要点，以”My Healthy Life”为题，写一篇英语短文参加此次活动。 要点： 1. 一天的时间：起床、吃早饭、上学、睡觉…… 2. 一天的运动情况。 注意： 1. 短文须包含上述要点，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 2. 文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称； 3. 词数70左右（首句已为你写好，不计入总词数）。 My Healthy Life I have a very healthy life. Let me tell you something about my life. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 安徽省池州市2024-2025学年七年级下学期开学 英语试题（人教版） 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2. 全卷包括”试题卷”（8页）和”答题卡”（2页）两部分。 3. 请务必在”答题卡”上答题，在”试题卷”上答题无效。 4. 考试结束后，请将”试题卷”和”答题卡”一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What’s Mike’s favourite sport? A. B. C. 2. How do most of Tom’s classmates go to school? A. B. C. 3. What time is the boy’s music class? A. At seven. B. At eight. C. At nine. 4. Where does Judy go today? A. To the park. B. To a farm. C. To her classmate’s home. 5. Who is Jim’s art teacher? A. Mrs Li. B. Mrs Huang. C. Mrs Wang. Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听对话，回答以下各小题。 6. Where is the study club? A. On the right of the science building. B. Behind the dining hall. C. Next to the library. 7. What does Jack help Lucy with? A. Her English. B. Her Chinese. C. Her maths. 听对话，回答以下各小题。 8. What does Grace eat for breakfast? A. Eggs and oranges. B. Rice and salad. C. Chicken and bread. 9. What does David like? A. Pears. B. Apples. C. Oranges. 10. What does Grace’s father like for dinner? A. Bread. B. Carrots. C. Tomatoes. Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. Where is Judy now? A. In a shop. B. At school. C. At home. 12. Who is Jim? A. Judy’s brother. B. Judy’s cousin. C. Judy’s friend. 13. What time does the party start? A. At 6:00. B. At 6:30. C. At 7:00. 14. What is the gift? A. A ticket to the basketball game. B. A ticket to the football game. C. A big cup. 15. How does Judy go to the party? A. By bike. B. On foot. C. By bus. Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 Name Mary Gina Age thirteen 16 17 seven nine Club in the 18 club in the sports club Likes acting playing tennis and 19 Dislikes and reasons playing sports / too difficult reading books / 20 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】C 【3题答案】 【答案】D 【4题答案】 【答案】B 【5题答案】 【答案】A 【6题答案】 【答案】A 【7题答案】 【答案】A 【8题答案】 【答案】D 【9题答案】 【答案】B 【10题答案】 【答案】D Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11. B 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C B 【21~30题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. D Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. F 32. B 33. E 34. C 35. A 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【36~38题答案】 【答案】36. D 37. D 38. A B 【39~42题答案】 【答案】39. D 40. C 41. D 42. A C 【43~45题答案】 【答案】43. B 44. A 45. D D 【46~49题答案】 【答案】46. B 47. B 48. A 49. C E 【50~52题答案】 【答案】50. C 51. D 52. A F 【53~55题答案】 【答案】53. She is one of the most popular cats in the world. 54. She likes travelling, music, reading, eating delicious cookies and making new friends. 55. Because she is changing with the times. 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 【56题答案】 【答案】(f)inish 【57题答案】 【答案】(m)ind 【58题答案】 【答案】(m)arks 【59题答案】 【答案】(f)ull 【60题答案】 【答案】(s)eat X. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 【61题答案】 【答案】例文 My Healthy Life I have a very healthy life. Let me tell you something about my life. I usually get up at 6:20 a.m. Then I have breakfast at 6:50 a.m. I usually have milk and eggs for breakfast. At 7:00, I go to school. I usually ride a bike to school. It takes me about 20 minutes. I think it’s good for my body. I have six classes a day. After school, I go home at 4:00 p.m. In the evening I often do my homework and do some sports. I go to bed at 9:00 p.m. At weekends, I will go play basketball with my friends. I think I’m living a healthy life. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$