内容正文:
绝密★启用前
2024-2025学年九年级上学期期末考试(安徽卷)
英语
注意事项:
1.本试卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟。
2.考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔在答题卡上填写自己的考号、姓名、试室号、座位号,用2B铅笔把对应该号码的标号涂黑。
3.选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑,如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试题上。
4.非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔、涂改液,不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
5.考生务必保持答题卡的整洁,考试结束时,将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满20分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题:每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1.How did Tom go to London?
A. B. C.
2.What does the boy want to eat?
A. B. C.
3.What would Sally like their school to have?
A.More books. B.More libraries. C.More clubs.
4.How long does the shop open every day?
A.For eight hours. B.For ten hours. C.For eighteen hours.
5.What does the man think of the speech?
A.He thinks it’s great. B.He thinks it’s boring. C.He doesn’t like it.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话, 回答下列小题。
6.Where is Bob going this weekend?
A.To the park. B.To the beach. C.To a clothes store.
7.What will Bob buy?
A.A jacket and a cap. B.A T-shirt and a cap. C.A pair of shorts and a cap.
听下面一段对话,回答问题。
8.What does Alice think of magic?
A.Easy. B.Exciting. C.Interesting.
9.What does George use to perform magic?
A.An egg and a box. B.An egg and a bag. C.Two eggs and a bag.
10.When will George teach Alice magic?
A.After school. B.During the break. C.On the weekend.
Ⅲ. 短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个问题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍
11.Where can you see monkey guides?
A.In India. B.In Thailand. C.In Africa.
12.What does the speaker think of the monkeys?
A.Funny. B.Lazy. C.Helpful.
13.What will the monkeys do if people put their hands behind their heads?
A.Take them to a hotel. B.Show them to a restaurant. C.Say goodbye to them.
14.How long have the monkey guides been trained at school?
A.For half a year. B.For a year. C.For two years.
15.What are the monkeys trained to work as in America?
A.Nurses. B.Doctors. C.Guides.
IV. 信息转换(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容, 写出下面表格中所缺的单词, 每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Green School in Bali
When it opened
In 16 2008
Why it was built
John Hardy and his wife Cynthia wanted everyone to 17 the environment.
About the school
The buildings are all made of bamboo.
Each class has its own 18 .
Advantages
Students can be 19 to nature.
Students can enjoy the beauty of nature and have fun 20 .
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题,满分30分)
V. 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的人B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21.A factory will be built for the __________ of this type of new energy car.
A.position B.population C.production D.pronunciation
22.Miss Gao knows the key to the physics problem, so you can ask her ________ for help.
A.suddenly B.exactly C.clearly D.directly
23.—Have you tasted zongzi, a kind of traditional Chinese food?
—Sure. It is said that a lot of zongzi ________ at the food factory twenty years ago.
A.are made B.were made C.made D.make
24.—Tony is talking with our English teacher over there,isn’t he?
—No. It ________be him. He is absent from school today.
A.won’t B.mustn’t C.can’t D.needn’t
25.—We can search the Internet for all kinds of information.
—But you can’t believe ________ on the Internet.
A.something B.anything C.everything D.nothing
26.I will never forget that terrible accident ________ it happened so long ago.
A.as if B.even though C.so that D.ever since
27.—The government is trying to protect the environment now.
—Yeah. It is reported that some factories will be ________ soon.
A.set off B.shut off C.taken off D.turned off
28.When the new term begins, Tommy soon ________ up early to go to school.
A.gets used to getting B.used to get
C.gets used to get D.used to getting
29.—Do you know ________ a school trip next Sunday, Kate?
—I’m not sure. It depends on the weather.
A.why we will take B.if we will take C.where we took D.how we took
30.---I have worked hard in English for more than two weeks.but it hasn’t improved.
---Don’t worry.__________.I’m sure you can do better soon.
A.It takes time B.That’s too bad C.That’s OK D.Don’t mention it
VI. 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
One day, my sister and I were playing with a friend. Suddenly I fell and lost my teeth, so I spent that afternoon in the 31 . A few weeks later, I got a new pair of front 32 . As I got older, I began to realize how 33 I was born in modern times instead of ancient times. 34 I read a book, I learned that a man in it had false teeth. His mouth looked 35 because they were made of wood. They were very uncomfortable. This really made me 36 . What if (如果……怎么办) I lived back then?
Later I found that I was often lost in thought. My grandmother walked from her farm to school when she was a 37 . There were no cars or buses. But I went to a big school because modern buses could 38 children there from miles around. What other parts of our lives had 39 because of inventions? I loved thinking about it.
We often 40 people say, “Don’t think too much.” But thinking really makes my life colorful.
31.A.library B.hospital C.park D.garden
32.A.shoes B.gloves C.teeth D.feet
33.A.lucky B.lonely C.crazy D.magic
34.A.Because B.When C.If D.Although
35.A.broken B.natural C.funny D.perfect
36.A.moving B.thinking C.feeling D.listening
37.A.nurse B.woman C.farmer D.child
38.A.take B.advise C.waste D.refuse
39.A.admired B.avoided C.changed D.wondered
40.A.knock B.touch C.value D.hear
B
In one’s life, one usually has little understanding of oneself. When you succeed, you may be very proud. When you 41 , you may lose heart. If you don’t get a thorough (完全的) understanding of yourself, you may miss many 42 in life.
To get a thorough understanding of yourself is to know 43 about yourself. You may realize your strong points and weak 44 . You may hope for a wonderful future, but be sure not to expect too much because not 45 dreams can come true. You may be confident enough to meet challenges, but first you should know 46 .
To get a thorough understanding of yourself needs self-appreciation (自我欣赏). Maybe you think you are not a tall tree 47 just small grass, but as long as you get full confidence, you are sure to face any trouble.
To get a thorough understanding of yourself also means to 48 yourself. When you are angry, find a quiet place so that you won’t be hurt. When you are 49 , tell your friends about it to change the mood (情绪) into a good one. When you are tired, get a good sleep. If you don’t take good care of yourself, you 50 be able to stay away from illness.
So if you get a thorough understanding of yourself, and you will get a full control of yourself and find your life full of color.
41.A.fail B.win C.beat D.lose
42.A.kings B.problems C.chances D.lessons
43.A.little B.well C.normally D.really
44.A.it B.one C.ones D.them
45.A.all B.each C.both D.every
46.A.what to do B.how to do C.where to do D.when to do
47.A.or B.and C.but D.than
48.A.look like B.look over C.look for D.look after
49.A.sad B.happy C.blind D.excited
50.A.will B.won’t C.would D.wouldn’t
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题,满分45分)
VII. 补全对话 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从下面选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项
Jim: Which do you prefer, art or music?
Kate: I prefer music to art. 51
Jim: Really? I can’t agree with you. Art is more interesting than music. 52 I prefer art to music.
Kate: No. Music is much more popular. 53
Jim: But I have to say you don’t sing well. I’m afraid nobody likes to listen to you when you sing.
Kate: But you draw badly. 54
Mum: Oh, my children, stop talking like that, please. 55 They make our life more interesting.
A.They’re both important.
B.You can see nice art everywhere.
C.I don’t think art is as interesting and popular as music.
D.It can be heard every day.
E.Nobody likes you.
F.I think music is more interesting than art.
G.No one enjoys your picture.
VIII.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Kids’ Birthday Party Places in Queens
Find a place to hold your child’s next birthday party. Plan your child’s birthday party at one of these kid-friendly places in Queens.
FOOTBALL KIDS NYC
We bring the party to you! We offer a fun birthday party that children are able to take part in actively, and have a “moment to shine”. It includes party gifts about football, and 60 minutes for $199 for up to 10 children.
Telephoned: 17-655-5437
MUSIC TOGETHER
Family and friends celebrate a birthday child’s day in a way in which everyone enjoys himself in the fun. Call us and we will hold your child’s musical birthday party according to your personal needs.
Telephone: 718-229-0033
BEE YOU STUDIO
Bee You Studio is a bright and fun studio(工作室)that offers birthday parties for ages 4 and older. The whole studio is yours for two hours. Parties include a step-by-step painting of your choice. We offer drawing paper and paints. We can hold up to 30 people.
Telephone: 718-926-9728
WILDLIFE SOCIETY ZOOS
Make your wildlife lover’s birthday an unforgettable experience with a party at our WCS zoos! Parties include park tickets, a private party room, special animal guests, and hands-on activities to make your party animal’s birthday truly unforgettable!
Telephone: 1-800-433-4149
56.What can you get if you choose BEE YOU STUDIO?
A.Party gifts about football. B.A private party room.
C.Drawing paper and paints. D.A musical birthday party.
57.Which of the following can meet your personal needs?
A.FOOTBALL KIDS NYC. B.MUSIC TOGETHER.
C.BEE YOU STUDIO. D.WILDLIFE SOCIETY ZOOS.
58.Who are the probable readers of the text?
A.Young parents. B.University students. C.Zoo keepers. D.Football players.
B
Do you know that Asian Games are held every four years? Did you watch the 19th Asian Games in 2023? On September 23, Asian Games were held in Hangzhou. Do you still remember who won the first gold medal (金牌) for the Chinese team?
On the first day of the Asian Games in Hangzhou, the Chinese team did very well in the women’s lightweight double sculls (女子轻量级双人双桨) and got the first gold medal in less than 10 minutes.
From the 2002 Asian Games in Busan (釜山) to now, the Chinese team has been the first one to win the first gold medal in six Asian Games. This time Zou Jiaqi and Qiu Xiuping defeated (击败) the other players, finishing at 7′06.78″, about 10 seconds earlier than Team Uzbekistan in second. Indonesia won the third place.
Zou, 22, a Hangzhou girl, got a gold medal in her hometown. Qiu, 24, is from South China’s Guangdong. After joining hands, they won a lot of great results. In 2022, they finished second at the World Rowing (划船运动) Cup in Belgrade. Now the two are already able to go for the Paris Olympics through the 2023 Rowing World Championships (锦标赛).
In men’s lightweight double sculls, Chinese rowers Fan Junjie and Sun Man won another gold medal for China. Chinese players tried their best at the Asian Games.
59.What sport are Zou Jiaqi and Qiu Xiuping good at?
A.Swimming. B.Running. C.Jumping. D.Rowing.
60.Which Asian Games happened in Busan?
A.The 13th. B.The 14th. C.The 15th. D.The 16th.
61.What can we know about Zou Jiaqi and Qiu Xiuping?
A.They are of the same age.
B.Both of them come from Hangzhou.
C.They worked together for three years.
D.They will be in a great game next.
62.Which can be the best title for the passage?
A.China’s First Asian Games Gold Medal.
B.The Friendship between Two Girls.
C.A Beautiful City to Visit in China.
D.An Interesting Game.
C
Where do you paint? Maybe you can paint on paper, on a piece of cloth and even on the wall. But have you ever thought of creating pictures in the fields? In Anhui, every year farmers plant different kinds and colours of rice to “make” pictures in the fields. This is rice paddy art (稻田画).
Some villages were trying to do something to help the farmers make more money. They needed a way to attract tourists and then the rice field art came into being. During the first few years, the farmers created simple pictures. Later they were able to make more complex (复杂的) ones.
Every April, the villagers meet and decide what to plant for the year. Before planting, farmers make the pictures on computers to work out where and how to plant the rice. After that, farmers plant different kinds of rice in different areas of fields. When rice grows tall, different colors will come out in the fields.
Now, the countryside in Anhui has become one of the most popular places of interest for both the young and old. So what are you waiting for? Just bring your camera, come and enjoy the beauty of nature for yourself!
63.Where do people make rice paddy art?
A.On paper. B.In the fields. C.On the wall. D.On a piece of cloth.
64.Why was rice paddy art first started?
A.To help farmers make money. B.To help farmers grow more rice.
C.To help artists learn about art. D.To help villages become clean.
65.What’s the main idea of Paragraph 3?
A.The advantages of rice paddy art. B.The problems of rice paddy art.
C.The colors of rice paddy art. D.The steps of creating rice paddy art.
D
Have you ever got your lunch, but not known where to sit? You don’t want to sit alone. But you are not sure who would be friendly and let you sit with them.
To solve the problem, Natalic Hampton, made an app called Sit With Us. It makes finding friends in the school canteen (食堂) very easy. Natalie is from Sherman Oaks, California, US.
Students can sign up as “ambassadors (大使)” for a club. Then they can post “open lunch” events to invite others to join in.
Natalie got the idea to create the app after she ate alone her whole seventh grade year. The experience made her feel sad and she was even bullied (欺负). She changed schools because of that.
People may want to know why you don’t just ask to sit down. Natalie said the app stops kids from being rejected in front of others. “This way is very private. It’s through the phone. No one else has to know. And you know that you’re not going to be rejected once you get to the table,” she told NPR.
So far, the app works well. “I had my first club meeting, and everyone was very excited. People are already posting open lunches at my schools. So I’m very excited,” Natalie told NPR.
66.What problem did Natalie Hampton make an app to solve?
A.The problem of having no idea when to have lunch.
B.The problem of having no friends to go out with.
C.The problem of feeling lonely without friends at school.
D.The problem of having no friends to have lunch with.
67.Why did Natalie Hampton once change her school?
A.Because she ate her lunch alone for a year and was bullied.
B.Because she didn’t like the food in the school canteen.
C.Because she was not welcomed in her school.
D.Because she has more friends in the new school.
68.What does the underlined word “rejected” in Paragraph 5 probably mean?
A.Laughed. B.Punished. C.Refused. D.Provided.
69.Which word can be used to describe Natalic Hampton most?
A.Brave. B.Creative. C.Kind. D.Polite.
E
Once upon a time the colors of the world argued. All thought that they were the best and most beautiful.
Green said, “Clearly I am the most important. I am the sign of life and hope. I’m the color of grass, trees and leaves. Without me, all animals would die.”
Blue interrupted, “Don’t just think about the earth. What is the color of the sky and the sea? Is not water the most important thing for life?”
Yellow laughed and said, “You are all so serious. I bring laughter, happiness and warmth into the world. Every time people look at a yellow sunflower, they start to smile. Without me, there would be no fun.”
Orange said at the top of his voice, “I am the most useful color. I carry the most important vitamins (维生素). Think of carrots, pumpkins and oranges. When I fill the sky at sunrise or sunset, everyone is shocked at my beauty and nobody gives another thought to any of you.”
Red could stand it no longer, so he shouted, “I am the color of danger and bravery. I am willing to fight for a cause.”
And so the colors went on arguing. Their voices became louder and louder. The thunder (雷) got angry and the rain started to pour. When the colors began to cool, the rain said, “You foolish colors. Don’t you know that each of you is unique? Join hands and follow me.”
They did what they were told and together made the most beautiful thing in the world — the rainbow.
70.Which color stands for life and hope?
A.Green. B.Blue. C.Yellow. D.White.
71.What can orange bring us?
A.Laughter and smiles. B.Happiness and warmth.
C.Health and strength. D.Danger and bravery.
72.What does the story teach us?
A.Be unique and have a specialty. B.Be united and make the best of things.
C.Truth comes from arguing. D.Don’t be too proud of yourself.
阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。
F
Natalie du Toit, the South African swimmer, was only seventeen when she lost her leg in a road accident (事故). She was going to take a training course at the swimming pool on her bike when a car hit her. Her leg had to be amputated (截肢) at the knee. Everybody thought that she would never be able to swim again.
However, to people’s surprise, Natalie had no plans to stop. She didn’t give up swimming and went back into the pool only three months after the accident. And just one year later, at the Commonwealth Games in Manchester, Natalie swam 800 metres in 9 minutes 11.38 seconds! Although she didn’t win a medal (奖牌), she still made history.
“I remember how excited I was the first time I swam after the accident——it felt like my leg was there. It still does,” says Natalie. “The water is the gift that gives me back my leg. I’m still the same person I was before the accident. Swimming was my life and still is. I believe everything is possible as long as I don’t give up easily. My dream is to swim faster than I did before the accident.”
73.What was Natalie going to do when a car hit her?(不超过10个词)
74.How soon did Natalie go back into the pool after the accident?(不超过5个词)
75.What can we learn from the Natalie’s story?(不超过15个词)
第四部分 写作(共两大题,满分25分)
IX. 单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
76.I remembered her face but I couldn’t r (回想起) where I met her before.
77.This is a m (感人的) story which I find from the Internet.
78.Zhang Yimou is a great d (导演) who is my favorite.
79.Those great firemen in the earthquake should be h (尊敬) by all the people.
80.Hans g (渐渐地) gets used to living in the new neighborhood.
X. 书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
81.假定你是李华,你的美国笔友Jack将作为交换生到中国来学习。她写信向你了解中国人的春节习俗和走亲访友的礼仪,请你给她写封回信。
内容包括:1. 春节习俗:贴春联(couplets)……
2. 访亲友:带礼物,不迟到。
3. 常见餐桌礼仪:列举两至三条即可。
要求:1. 100词左右。(开头已给出,不计入总词数)
2. 不得出现自己的真实信息。
3. 可适当增加细节,以便行文连贯。
Dear Jack,
I’m pleased to answer your questions. The Spring Festival is the most traditional festival in China. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
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参考答案:
题号
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
答案
C
A
C
B
A
B
C
C
B
A
题号
11
12
13
14
15
21
22
23
24
25
答案
B
C
A
B
A
C
D
B
C
C
题号
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
答案
B
B
A
B
A
B
C
A
B
C
题号
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
答案
B
D
A
C
D
A
C
B
C
A
题号
46
47
48
49
50
56
57
58
59
60
答案
A
C
D
A
B
C
B
A
D
B
题号
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
答案
D
A
B
A
D
D
A
C
B
A
题号
71
72
答案
C
B
1.C
【原文】略
2.A
【原文】略
3.C
【解析】略
4.B
【原文】略
5.A
【原文】略
6.B 7.C
【原文】略
8.C 9.B 10.A
【原文】略
11.B 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.A
【原文】略
16.September 17.protect 18.garden 19.close 20.learning
【原文】略
21.C
【详解】句意:将建一座工厂来生产这种新能源汽车。
考查名词辨析。position位置,职位;population人口;production生产,产品;pronunciation发音。根据句意可知,建工厂是为了新能源汽车的生产。故选C。
22.D
【详解】句意:高老师知道物理难题的答案,因此你可以直接向她要答案。
考查副词。suddenly突然;exactly正是;clearly清晰地;directly直接地。根据前文“Miss Gao knows the key to the physics problem”可知,可以直接寻求帮助。故选D。
23.B
【详解】句意:——你尝过粽子这种中国传统食物吗?——当然。据说二十年前食品厂做了很多粽子。
考查一般过去时的被动语态。根据“It is said that a lot of zongzi...at the food factory twenty years ago.”可知,句子是一般过去时,主语“zongzi”和动词“make”之间是被动关系,所以此处应用一般过去时的被动语态“was/were done”。故选B。
24.C
【详解】句意:——托尼正在那边和我们的英语老师谈话,不是吗?——不。那一定不是他。他今天没来上学。
考查情态动词。won’t将不;mustn’t禁止;can’t不可能;needn’t不必。根据“He is absent from school today”可知,推断一定不是他,否定推测用can’t,故选C。
25.C
【详解】考查符合不定代词,句意:“﹣我们可以在因特网上搜索各种信息.﹣但是你不能相信互联网上的每件事情.”, 选项A:一些东西,常用于肯定句,选项B:一些东西,常用于否定句和一般疑问句,选项C:每件事情,选项D:没有东西.结合句意,故选C.
26.B
【详解】句意:我永远不会忘记那场可怕的事故,虽然它发生在很久以前。
考查从属连词短语辨析。as if好像……一样,引导方式状语从句;even though虽然,引导条件状语从句;so that以致,引导结果状语从句;ever since自从,引导时间状语从句。根据语境可知,虽然事故发生很久了,但我永远不会忘记,句子为条件状语从句,even though“虽然”符合语境。故选B。
27.B
【详解】句意:——政府现在正在努力保护环境。——是的。据报道,一些工厂不久将被关闭。
考查动词短语辨析。set off出发;shut off关闭(侧重使停止运转,切断);take off起飞;turn off关闭(电源、燃气或水等)。根据“It is reported that some factories will be...soon.”可知,一些工厂将被关闭以保护环境,应用shut off。故选B。
28.A
【详解】句意:新学期开始时,汤米很快就习惯了早起去上学。
考查短语辨析。gets used to getting(get used to doing sth表示“习惯于做某事”);used to get(used to do sth表示“过去常常做某事”)。根据语境可知,新学期开始了,此处应为汤米很快习惯了早起,get used to doing sth表示“习惯于做某事”,时态为一般现在时,主语为Tommy,单数,动词get用“三单”gets,get up表示“起床”,介词to后需用动名词getting。故选A。
29.B
【详解】句意:——你知道下周日我们是否会去郊游吗,凯特? ——我不确定。这取决于天气。
考查宾语从句。根据“I’m not sure. It depends on the weather.”可知,此处询问是否会去郊游。故选B。
30.A
【详解】考查情境对话。句意:我学英语超过两个星期了,但是没有什么改进。-别担心,它是需要花费时间的,我相信你能做的更好。It takes time它是花费时间的;That’s too bad那太糟糕了;That’s OK没关系;Don’t mention it别提了。因为前面说的是别担心,所以后面接它是需要花费时间的比较合适。故选A。
31.B 32.C 33.A 34.B 35.C 36.B 37.D 38.A 39.C 40.D
【导语】本文为一篇记叙文。文章讲述了作者通过自己牙齿掉了的经历,感悟到生活在现代非常幸运,以及一些发明给生活带来的变化。
31.句意:突然,我摔倒了,牙齿掉了,所以那天下午我在医院里度过。
library图书馆;hospital医院;park公园;garden花园。根据“Suddenly I fell and lost my teeth...”可知,作者牙齿掉了,所以在医院度过下午。故选B。
32.句意:几周后,我得到了一对新的门牙。
shoes鞋;gloves手套;teeth牙;feet脚。根据“Suddenly I fell and lost my teeth...”可知,作者的牙齿因为摔倒掉了下来,此处指作者得到了新的牙齿。故选C。
33.句意:随着年龄的增长,我开始意识到我出生在现代而不是古代是多么幸运。
lucky幸运的;lonely孤独的;crazy疯狂的;magic神奇的。根据后文可知,作者通过假牙的对比,想表达自己生活在现代非常幸运。故选A。
34.句意:当我读一本书时,我了解到里面有一个人有假牙。
Because因为;When当;If如果;Although虽然。此处指作者读书时看到的古代病例,when表示“当……时”,符合语境。故选B。
35.句意:他的嘴看起来很滑稽,因为它们是用木头做的。
broken破碎的;natural自然的;funny滑稽的;perfect完美的。根据“...because they were made of wood.”可知,此处指木头的假牙让嘴看起来很滑稽。故选C。
36.句意:这真的让我思考。如果我住在那个时候要怎么办?
moving感动;thinking思考;feeling感觉;listening听。根据“This really made me...”可知,此处这件事引发作者的思考。故选B。
37.句意:我的祖母小时候从她的农场走到学校。
nurse护士;woman妇女;farmer农民;child小孩。祖母在孩童时期需要步行上学,child“小孩,儿童”符合语境。故选D。
38.句意:但我去了一所大学校,因为现代公共汽车可以把孩子们从几英里外带到那里。
take带着;advise建议;waste浪费;refuse拒绝。短语take...to...意为“带着……去……”,此处指“将孩子们带到那里”,there为副词省略介词to。故选A。
39.句意:我们生活中的哪些其他方面也因为发明而发生了变化?
admired敬佩;avoided避免;changed改变;wondered好奇。此处指生活因为发明而改变,change“改变,变化”符合语境。故选C。
40.句意:我们经常听到人们说:“不要想太多。”但思考真的让我的生活变得丰富多彩。
knock敲;touch触摸;value价值;hear听说。短语hear sb. do sth.意为“听到某人做某事”,此处指“经常听人们说”。故选D。
41.A 42.C 43.B 44.C 45.A 46.A 47.C 48.D 49.A 50.B
【导语】本文讲述了应该如何认识自我。
41.句意:当你失败的时候,你可能会灰心丧气。
fail失败;win赢;beat打败;lose失去。根据“you may lose heart”可知,应表达失败的时候会灰心丧气。故选A。
42.句意:如果你不充分了解自己,你人生中可能会失去很多机会。
kings国王;problems问题;chances机会;lessons课程。根据“you may miss many...in life”可知,应表达会失去很多机会。故选C。
43.句意:对自己有一个全面的了解就是要充分了解自己。
little少的;well好;normally正常地;really真地。know well about oneself“充分了解某人”,固定搭配。故选B。
44.句意:你可能意识到了自己的优点和缺点。
it它;one一个;ones复数形式;them他们。根据“strong points and weak...”可知,此处应用ones指代前面提到的points。故选C。
45.句意:你可能希望有一个美好的未来,但一定不要期望太多因为不是所有的梦想都能实现。
all所有的;each每一个;both两者都;every每一个。根据“because not...dreams can come true.”可知,此处应表达并非所有的梦想都能实现,all“所有的”修饰名词复数形式dreams。故选A。
46.句意:你可能有足够的信心迎接挑战,但首先你应该知道该做什么。
what to do做什么;how to do怎样做;where to do去哪做;when to do何时做。根据“but first you should know...”可知,应表达要知道自己做什么,疑问词what作动词do的宾语。故选A。
47.句意:也许你认为你不是一棵大树只是一棵小草,但只要你充满信心,你一定可以面对任何麻烦。
or或者;and和;but但是;than比。根据“Maybe you think you are not a tall tree...just small grass”可知,此处表达不是大树而是小草,not...but...“不是……而是……”,固定搭配。故选C。
48.句意:全面了解自己也意味着要照顾好自己。
look like看起来像;look over翻阅;look for寻找;look after照顾。根据“When you are angry, find a quiet place so that you won’t be hurt.”可知,是表达照顾自己。故选D。
49.句意:当你悲伤的时候,把这件事告诉你的朋友把心情变好。
sad悲伤的;happy高兴的;blind失明的;excited兴奋的。根据“change the mood (情绪) into a good one”可知,是当你悲伤的时候告诉朋友。故选A。
50.句意:如果你不好好照顾自己,你就无法远离疾病。
will将;won’t否定形式;would将,will的过去式;wouldn’t否定形式。根据“If you don’t take good care of yourself”可知,应表达如果你不好好照顾自己就无法远离疾病,此句为if引导的条件状语从句,遵循“主将从现”原则。故选B。
51.F 52.B 53.D 54.G 55.A
【导语】本文是Jim和Kate的一段对话,对话的内容是两人在争论音乐和艺术哪个更有趣。
51.根据下文Jim的反问“Really? I can’t agree with you. Art is more interesting than music. 真的? 我不同意,艺术比音乐更有趣。”可推断,此处两人的观点是相反的,Kate认为音乐比艺术更有趣。选项F“我觉得音乐比艺术更有趣。”符合语境。故选F。
52.根据上文“I can’t agree with you. Art is more interesting than music.”可知,Jim认为艺术比音乐更有趣,由此可推断,此处是Jim在进一步说明艺术比音乐更有趣。选项B“你到处都能看到漂亮的艺术品。”符合语境,故选B。
53.根据上文“Music is much more popular.”可知,Kate认为音乐更受欢迎。由此可推断,此处是Kate在进一步说明音乐比艺术更有趣。选项D“每天都能听到音乐。”符合语境。故选D。
54.根据上文“But you draw badly.”可知,Kate认为Jim画得不好。由此可推断,此处是Kate认为没人喜欢Jim的画。选项G“没人喜欢你的画。”符合语境。故选G。
55.根据下文妈妈说的“They make our life more interesting.”可知,它们使我们的生活更有趣。由此说明,此处妈妈表达的意思是说它们都很重要。选项A“它们都很重要。”符合语境。故选A。
56.C 57.B 58.A
【导语】本文主要是有关生日聚会场所的广告。
56.细节理解题。根据“Parties include a step-by-step painting of your choice. We offer drawing paper and paints.”可知,如果你选择BEE YOU STUDIO可以获得画纸和颜料。故选C。
57.细节理解题。根据“Call us and we will hold your child’s musical birthday party according to your personal needs.”可知,MUSIC TOGETHER可以满足你的个人需求。故选B。
58.推理判断题。根据“Find a place to hold your child’s next birthday party. Plan your child’s birthday party at one of these kid-friendly places in Queens.”可推断,本文的读者可能是年轻的父母。故选A。
59.D 60.B 61.D 62.A
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了赛艇运动员邹佳琪和邱秀萍在第19届杭州亚运会上为中国队获得了首枚金牌的故事。
59.细节理解题。根据第四段“Zou, 22, a Hangzhou girl, got a gold medal in her hometown. Qiu, 24, is from … In 2022, they finished second at the World Rowing (划船运动) Cup in Belgrade.”可知,邹佳琪和邱秀萍擅长赛艇。故选D。
60.推理判断题。根据第一段“Do you know that Asian Games are held every four years? Did you watch the 19th Asian Games in 2023? On September 23, Asian Games were held in Hangzhou.”和“From the 2002 Asian Games in Busan (釜山) to now”可知,亚运会每四年举行一次,杭州亚运会是第19届,据此可以推断2002年釜山亚运会应该是第14届。故选B。
61.细节理解题。根据第四段“Now the two are already able to go for the Paris Olympics through the 2023 Rowing World Championships (锦标赛).”可知,邹佳琪和邱秀萍将参加巴黎奥运会。故选D。
62.最佳标题题。根据第一段“Do you still remember who won the first gold medal (金牌) for the Chinese team?”并通读全文可知,文章主要讲述了赛艇运动员邹佳琪和邱秀萍在第19届杭州亚运会上为中国队获得了首枚金牌的故事,因此A项“中国首枚亚运会金牌”最适合作为标题。故选A。
63.B 64.A 65.D
【导语】本文主要介绍了为了帮助农民赚更多的钱,一些村庄想出一种稻田艺术,来吸引游客。目前安徽的农村已经成为了最受欢迎的景点之一。
63.细节理解题。根据“In Anhui, every year farmers plant different kinds and colours of rice to ‘make’ pictures in the fields. This is rice paddy art (稻田画).”可知在安徽,农民每年都会种植不同种类和颜色的水稻,在田里“制作”画。故选B。
64.细节理解题。根据“Some villages were trying to do something to help the farmers make more money. They needed a way to attract tourists and then the rice field art came into being.”可知,稻田艺术最早开始是为了帮助农民赚钱。故选A。
65.段落大意题。根据“Before planting, farmers make the pictures on computers to work out where and how to plant the rice. After that, farmers plant different kinds of rice in different areas of fields. When rice grows tall, different colors will come out in the fields.”可知,第三段主要讲了稻田艺术的创作步骤。故选D。
66.D 67.A 68.C 69.B
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文,讲述了一个叫娜塔莉·汉普顿的女孩,为了解决一个人吃午饭的问题,发明了“坐在我们身边”的应用程序。
66.细节理解题。根据“Have you ever got your lunch, but not known where to sit? You don’t want to sit alone. But you are not sure who would be friendly and let you sit with them. To solve the problem, Natalie Hampton, 16, made an app called Sit With Us.”可知,娜塔莉·汉普顿为了解决没有朋友一起吃午饭这个问题,她制作了一个应用程序。故选D。
67.细节理解题。根据“Natalie got the idea to create the app after she ate alone her whole seventh grade year. The experience made her feel sad and she was even bullied (欺负). She changed schools because of that.”可知,娜塔莉·汉普顿曾经换过学校因为她一个人吃了一年的午饭,并被人欺负了。故选A。
68.词义猜测题。根据“This way is very private. It’s through the phone. No one else has to know.”可知,这个应用程序可以防止孩子在别人面前被拒绝。可知划线单词“rejected”意思是“拒绝”。故选C。
69. 推理判断题。通读全文可知,本文讲述了一个叫娜塔莉·汉普顿的女孩,为了解决一个人吃午饭的问题,发明了“坐在我们身边”的应用程序。所以这个女孩很有创造性。故选B。
70.A 71.C 72.B
【导语】本文主要介绍了一些颜色在争吵谁是最好最漂亮的,但是一场大雨之后,它们共同变成了一道美丽的彩虹。
70.细节理解题。根据“Green said...I am the sign of life and hope”可知绿色是生命和希望的象征。故选A。
71.推理判断题。根据“Orange said at the top of his voice...I carry the most important vitamins”可知橙色说话声音最大,而且有最多的维生素,可推知橙色可以带来健康和力量。故选C。
72.推理判断题。本文主要介绍了一些颜色在争吵谁是最好最漂亮的,但是一场大雨之后,它们共同变成了一道美丽的彩虹,故这个故事告诉我们要团结一致,充分利用一切。故选B。
73.She was going to take a training course. 74.In (only) three months. 75.Everything is possible as long as we don’t give up easily.
【导语】本文主要讲述了南非游泳运动员Natalie du Toit在一次交通事故中失去了双腿,但她没有放弃,继续训练,并创造了历史的励志故事。
73.根据“She was going to take a training course at the swimming pool on her bike when a car hit her”可知,她正要骑着自行车去游泳池上训练课,这时一辆车撞了她,故填She was going to take a training course.
74.根据“She didn’t give up swimming and went back into the pool only three months after the accident.”可知,在事故发生三个月后又回到了游泳池,故填In (only) three months.
75.根据“I believe everything is possible as long as I don’t give up easily”可知,从她的故事里可以得出:只要不轻易放弃,相信一切皆有可能,故填Everything is possible as long as we don’t give up easily.
76.recall
【详解】句意:我记得她的脸,但记不起以前在哪儿见过她。根据空格前的情态动词“couldn’t”可知,空格处填动词原形。根据汉语提示可知,“回想起”对应的动词为recall。故填recall。
77.(m)oving
【详解】句意:这是我从网上找到的一个感人的故事。根据汉语提示和首字母m可知,此处应用形容词moving“感人的”作定语修饰story。故填(m)oving。
78.(d)irector
【详解】句意:张艺谋是我最喜欢的大导演。director“导演”,a后跟名词单数。故填(d)irector。
79.(h)onored
【详解】句意:地震中那些伟大的消防员应该受到全体人民的尊敬。尊敬:honor,此处用过去分词和be动词构成被动语态。故填(h)onored。
80.(g)radually
【详解】句意:汉斯逐渐习惯了住在新的社区。此处修饰动词用副词gradually“渐渐地”。故填(g)radually。
81.例文
Dear Jack,
I’m pleased to answer your questions. The Spring Festival is the most traditional festival in China. People usually post the Spring Festival couplets on the door and clean their houses before the day. On Lunar New Year’s Eve, family members sit together for a big meal and set off firecrackers. With the Lunar New Year’s Day coming, people will dress up and go out to visit friends and relatives. They usually bring some gifts and they are never late. At the table, do not use chopsticks to knock on bowls or plates. Besides, don’t make any noise while eating. Most importantly, if there are elderly people, let them eat first.
I’m looking forward to seeing you in China.
Yours,
Li Hua
【详解】[总体分析]
①题材:本文是一篇书信作文;
②时态:时态以“一般现在时”为主;
③提示:要求给对方写封信,介绍中国的春节习俗,访亲友的礼仪及餐桌礼仪,可适当发挥,并突出重点写作。
[写作步骤]
第一步,承接开头,介绍春节习俗;
第二步,介绍访亲友的礼仪及餐桌礼仪;
第三步,书写结语,期待对方来到中国。
[亮点词汇]
①set off firecrackers燃放鞭炮
②dress up盛装打扮
③knock on敲击
[高分句型]
①Besides, don’t make any noise while eating. (祈使句的否定形式)
②if there are elderly people, let them eat first. (if引导的条件状语从句)
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「×1「11/I
选择题(请用2B铅笔填涂)
1AJ[BIIC]
6[AJIBIICI
11A][B][C]
2IAJIBIICI
7AJ[BIICI
1A]IB][C]
3[A][BI[C]
8[AJIBIIC]
13JA][B]IC]
4A][BJIC]
9JAJIBIICI
14AJ[B][C]
5AJIBIIC]
10.[A][B]IC]
1[AJ[B]IC]
21[AJIBIICJID]
26.[A][B]IC][DI
31AJIB]IC][DI
36[AIIB]ICI[D]
22AJIBIICIID]
27AJIBIICJIDI
32JAJ[B]IC]ID]
37JAJIBIICI[DI
三
23[AJIBIICIID]
28[AJ[BIIC]IDI
33[AJIB][C]ID]
38AJIB]ICIID]
24AJ[BIICI[D]
29.[AJ[BJICIIDI
33.[AJ[BI[CI[DI
39.JA]IBIICI[D]
251A][BI[CI[D]
30.[AJ[BIICIIDI
35AJ[B][C]IDI
40.JA]IB][C][DI
1
41AJ[BIIC][D]
4.A][B]ICIID]
511AJ[BI[CIIDI[EJ[FIIG]
56.[AJIBIICI[DI
42JA][BIICI[D]
47AJ[BICIIDI
51AJ[BIICIIDI[EJ[FJ[GI
57JA]IBIICJ[DI
43JA]IBIICIID]
48A][BIICIIDI
531AJIB]ICIIDI[EJ[FJIGI
581A1IBJICI[DI
AJ[BIICJID]
4.A][BIICI[DI
54AJIBJICIID]IEJIFIIGI
59.JAIIB][CI[DI
45.[A][BIICJID]
50.[AI[BJICIID]
5AJIBIICIIDIIEJIFJIGI
60.1AJIB]ICJID]
61[AJ[BJICJID]
6.[AJIB]IC]ID]
71AJIBJICIIDI
62[AJ[BJICIID]
67[AJIBJICIID]
ZAJBIICJID]
63.A][BIIC]ID]
68[A][B]IC][DI
AJIBIICIID]
69.[AJIB]ICJIDI
65.[AJ[BIICI[D]
70.(AJ[B]ICIID]
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!
英语第1页(共2页)
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效:
非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答)
V.信息转换(共5小题:每小题1分,满分5分)
16
17.
18
19
20.
X.阅读理解F(共5小题:每小题2分,满分10分)
13
74.
75
X.单词拼写(共5小题:每小题1分,满分5分)
76.
77
78.
79
80.
X江.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!
英语第2页(共2页)
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英语第1页(共2页)》
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