内容正文:
2024~2025学年度第一学期教学质量检测(一)
九年级英语试卷
※考试时间:110分钟 试卷满分:110分
※考生注意:请在答题卡各题目规定区域内作答, 答在本试卷上无效。 第I卷听力部分(共20分)
做题时, 请先将答案划在试题卷上。录音内容结束后, 你将有两分钟的时间 将试题卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第I卷听力部分(共20分)
第一节(共5分;每小题1分)
情景应答
你将听到5个句子, 每个句子后面设有一个小题, 请从题中所给的A、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个句子后, 你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子读一遍。
1. A. Good morning. B. I'm Gina. C. Its red.
2. A. It's my brother. B. P-E-N, pen. C. Yes, it’s mine.
3. A. It's hers. B. I can play it. C. No, I don't.
4. A. They’re two dollars. B. They're on the sofa. C. I like them very much.
5. A. It's boring. B. It's P. E. C. Ilike bananas
第二节(共15分, 每小题1分)
听短对话, 回答问题
你将听到5段短对话, 每段对话后面设有一个小题, 请从题中所给的
A 、B 、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后, 你将有10秒钟的 时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读一遍。
6. How does Tom usually go to school?
A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By bike.
7. Who can play ping-pong?
A. Jane. B. Bob. C. Neither.
8. What time does Rick getup?
A. At six. B. At half past six. C. At seven.
9. When is the man's birthday party?
A. Next Friday B. Next Wednesday. C. Next Monday.
10. Who are the two speakers?
A. Mother and son. B. Doctor and patient. C. Husband and wife
听长对话, 回答问题
你将听到2段长对话, 每段对话后面设有三个小题, 请从题中所给的A、 B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前, 你将有时间阅读各小题, 每小题5秒钟;听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听第11段材料, 回答第11-13题。
11. What cute animals does the zoo have?
A. Elephants. B. Tigers. C. Giraffes.
12. Which animals have the most visitors every day?
A. Koalas. B. Pandas. C. Tigers.
13. What des the man think of the giraffes?
A. Dangerous. B. Cute. C. Friendly.
听第12段材料, 回答第14-16题。
14. What are the two speakers talking about?
A. Having a party. B. Visiting a museum. C. Having a picnic
15. Which sign is mentioned(提 及)in the conversation?
A. NO PHOTOS. B. NO TALKING. C. NO RUNNING.
16. What's the relationship between the two speakers?
A. Mom and son.
B. Teacher and student
C. Waitress and customer(顾客).
听短文, 回答问题
你将听到一段短文, 短文后面设有四个小题, 请从题中所给的A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听短文前, 你将有时间阅读各小题, 每小题5秒 钟;听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。短文读两遍。
17. Who was the first to arrive at the camp?
A. Tony. B. David. C. The leader(领导).
18. 8.What was the weather like on that day?
A. Cool. B. Warm. C. Hot.
19. When did the leader tell them some skills they may need?
A. At 8: 00 am. B. At2: 00 p. m. C. At9: 00 p. m.
20. Why did Tony fail to take the drumming lesson?
A. Because he had to sleep earlier.
B. Because he was ill.
C. Because he had to clean his room.
第 Ⅱ 卷 笔 试 部 分 ( 共 9 0 分 )
第一部分选择题
一、阅读理解(共20小题, 每小题2分;满分40分)
第一节阅读下面语言材料, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出 最佳选项。
A
We're plants. Give us your care and we will bring joy to you. Please take us home, will you?
Plants
Get to know us
Flowers
We bring bright colors! Houseplants
We are green and light up(点亮)rooms!
Succulents(多肉植物)
We don't need much care! Vegetables
How about home-grown food?
Give us a home
We can live in a pot. It can be put near a window, by a sofa or under a tree.
Placing us on a wall will bring you much fun. We love it, too.
Care for us
Spring
We may need fertilizers(化 肥) .
Summer
We hate harmful(有害的) insects.
Autumn
We need less water.
Winter
Give us a larger home if necessary.
21. According to the text __________ don't need much care.
A. flowers B. houseplants C. succulents D. vegetables
22. It's fun to put a pot of plants _______________.
A. on a wall B. by a sofa
C. near a window D. under a tree
23. Plants need to be protected from harmful insects, especially in ___________.
A. spring B. summer C. autumn D. winter
24. Which part of a magazine is the text most probably taken from?
A. Art. B. Life. C. Sports. D. History
B
Sara and Jack helped their mother and father work on the farm. They got food and drink from the farm.
Sara got water from the stream(小溪). Jack got eggs from the hens. Sara got apples from the trees. Jack got corn from the field. Sara got milk from the cow. After Sara and Jack worked, they went into the house.
When it got dark at night, Father made a fire so that the house had light. Then Mother told the family some news. “There is a new kind of food called ice cream, ”Mother said. “But some people call it cream ice. ”The whole family smiled. The family thought that cream ice was a funny name for a kind of food.
“Can we try some ice cream, Mother? ”asked Jack. “We need ice and milk to make it, "said Mother. “We have to wait until winter when it snows. Then we will get ice. ”Sara and Jack couldn’t wait until winter so that they could try ice cream.
25. Where did Sara get water?
A. From the cow. B. From the field.
C. From the stream. D. From the trees.
26. When the house had light, Mother to the family.
A. showed some photos B. sang some songs
C. read some books D. told some news
27. What did the family think of the name of cream ice?
A. It was funny B. It was easy.
C. It was helpful. D. It was common
28. What did they need to make ice cream?
A. Sugar and eggs. B. Ice and milk.
C. Apples and corn. D. Mik and meat.
C
A student came to his teacher and asked him, “Sir, I have a question. How many friends should a person have-one or many? ”
“It is very simple, ”the teacher answered. “Get me that red apple from the highest branch(树枝)of the tree. ”
The student looked up and said, “It's too high! I cant reach it. ” “Ask a friend. Maybe he can help, ”the teacher suggested.
The student called another student and stood on his shoulders(肩膀 )to reach the branch
“I still can't reach it, sir. ”said the student sadly after the first try. “Don't you have more friends? ”the teacher smiled.
The student asked more friends to come over. They stood on each other's shoulders, trying to make a human pyramid(人形金字塔). But the apple was so high that they couldn’t go higher and the pyramid fell. The student still couldn’t reach the apple. Then one of the friends went home, brought a ladder(梯子)and the student finally picked the apple.
After getting the apple, the teacher asked, “So, do you understand how many friends a person needs? "
“I do, ”the student said. “Many, so together we can work out any problem. ”
“Well, ”the teacher said, “of course you need as many friends as you can. However, among all of these friends there should be at least one smart friend finding out that you needed a ladder? ”
29. What is the student's question?
A. How can we make friends?
B. How do we work together?
C. How many friends should one have?
D. How many apples can each one pick?
30. To answer the student's question, the teacher ___________.
A. gave a task(任务) B. setup a club
C. told a story D. made a speech
31. How did the student finally pick the apple?
A. By climbing the tree himself.
B. By making a human pyramid.
C. By using a ladder from a friend.
D. By standing on a teacher's shoulders.
32. What can we learn from the lesson?
A. A friend is a second self.
B. The more friends, the better.
C. A good teacher is a good friend.
D. Try to make more smart friends.
D
Once upon a time, there was a little boy. His parents were poor farmers. They couldn’t pay for a worker, so the boy had to help. He worked hard.
Everyday, he had a one-hour rest at sunset(日落). He used that time to climb to the top of a hill. There, he could see a house on another hill It had golden windows. They were really bright and shone(闪耀)like diamonds(钻石).
One day, the boy's father said to him, “You worked really hard, so you can take a day off. Try to learn something good. "
The boy thanked his father. Then, he left home and walked to the far hill.
He came to the house and knocked on the door, and a girl answered. He told her about the golden windows. The girl shook(摇头)her head and said, “Poor farmers like us only have glass windows. Look there! That's the house with the golden windows. ”She pointed at something far away.
When the boy looked, he saw his own house. He then thanked the girl and rushed home. Inside, he saw his family and smiled. He told them about his excellent day. He also said, "T learned a great lesson--our house has golden windows. ”
33. What do we know about the little boy?
A. He was quite lazy.
B. He was very rich.
C. He was a son of poor farmers.
D. He was a son of a worker.
34. What did the boy do when he had a one-hour rest?
A. He rested at home.
B. He built a house
C. He helped his parents.
D. He climbed to the top of a hill.
35. The boy took a day off because he _________________.
A. worked hard B. wanted to play
C. found a diamond D. needed to visit the girl
36. How did the boy feel when he got home?
A. Happy. B. Lonely. C. Surprised. D. Strange.
第二节阅读短文, 从短文后的五个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳 选项。选项中有一个多余的选项。
When we help our parents prepare a meal, some of us cant( 忍 不 住 )help putting our hands into the big tub(桶)of rice. So, what makes rice interest us so much?
37. ___________
When we put our hands deep into a tub of rice, it causes gentle pressure to our fingers. This can make the blood in our fingers run faster and more smoothly. The softness of rice will also create a feeling of relaxation. It can certainly reduce(减 少 )our stress and worry.
Rice conducts(传导)heat better than air.
Rice has the ability to conduct heat. It can carry away some heat from our hands and that will reduce hand temperature. 38.___________ Sweat (汗水)can be taken away by rice.
Rice is rich in starch(淀粉). When rice is around our hands, rice starch takes away sweat. 39. ______________ Playing with rice must be a pleasant activity, especially in the hot summer.
We can see that the feelings of putting our hands into rice are connected with
our blood, temperature and many other things. 40._________ It may not only make the rice dirty, but also cause some waste.
A. Rice can make our fingers warmer.
B. As a result, our hands will feel dry in it.
C. The pressure from rice helps reduce stress.
D. However, we'd better not do that next time.
E. Lower hand temperature brings an enjoyable experience.
二、完形填空(共10小题, 每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文, 理解其大意, 从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处 的最佳选项。
One day, our English teacher Mr. White came into the classroom with a book in his hand. He started his lesson with a 41, “Who can describe(描述)what stress s like? "No one answered. Then he raised(举起)the book and asked, "How 42 is the book? ”
On hearing the question, we began to think and 43 . One student said, “think it is 100 g. ”Another student said, “It's 200 g. ”Our answers were different.
44 , Mr. White explained, "It doesn't only depend on the real weight( 重 量 )It also has 45 to do with the time we hold it. If I hold it for a minute, it is OK. If I hold it for an hour, I will have a 46 in my right arm. If I hold it for a day, 1 will have to see a doctor. It is the exact same weight, 47 the longer I hold it, the heavier it becomes.
This book stands for(代表) 48 . If you hold it without putting it down, sooner or later, you will not be able to keep on. No matter how much stress you have, stop and have a rest for a while if possible. Boys and girls, you should learn to relax 49. I am sure you will live a happy school life. ”
We all 50 Mr. White for giving such a meaningful lesson. It made a difference to us.
41. A. song B. story C. question D. picture
42. A. heavy B. big C. old D. thick
43. A. guess B. practice C. read D. search
44. A. Luckily B. Especially C. Secretly D. Finally
45. A. little B. much C. nothing D. everything
46. A. break B. book C. guard D. pain
47. A. and B. so C. but D. for
48. A. time B. stress C. pleasure D. knowledge
49. A. yourselves B. yourself C. you D. yours
50. A. troubled B. excused C. feared D. thanked
第 二 部 分 非 选 择 题
三、语篇填空(共10小题, 每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文, 在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式 填空, 使短文通顺、连贯。
Have you heard of wallball? Wallball is a simple sport to play. You only need a ball 51. ______ a wall, so you can play anywhere at any time.
As the name shows, wallball is about hitting a small ball against a wall. To do this, keep your hand open and use your palm( 手 掌 )to hit it. Usually, gloves 52_______ (need), but you can choose not to wear them. You can use either of your 53. _______(hand)to hit the ball.
Two players take turns to hit the ball One player bounces(弹起)the ball once and hits it against the wall. Then 54. ________other player hits it back to the wall. If a player fails to hit the ball to the wall before it bounces twice, this player will lose one point.
The player that reaches 11, 15 or 21 points first wins the game. Before starting, make sure how many points you want 55._________ (reach). If you win two games first, you'll win the match. But if the game score is 1-1, one more game is often played.
Last month, we 56. _________(have)several matches against other schools. Every match was 57. _________ (exciting)than I thought. I can't wait for next year's match! It makes 58.______ (I) crazy, "said James, a wallball lover from the UK.
More and more people today become interested 59. _________ wallball. Some clubs have built colorful courts(球场). However, you can 60.______ (certain)set up your own court at home.
If you like wallball, get started.
四、阅读与表达(共4小题, 61~63小题, 每小题2分, 64小题4分;满 分10分)
阅读短文, 然后根据内容回答问题。
What do you think of celebrating Christmas Day in China? Christmas Day is popular in China, especially with young people. Should Chinese people celebrate Christmas Day? 60%of people think that we should not take Christmas so seriously. 10%think everyone should celebrate Christmas.
Some people think celebrating Christmas Day can help them understand western culture better. Some people think it is a great holiday to have a good time with their families and friends. On Christmas Day, they can meet friends, go shopping, watch movies and go to different parties.
But I have different ideas. China has its own holidays, such as the Spring.
Festival, the Double Ninth Festival and the Mid-Autumn Festival, so we don’t have to celebrate holidays from other counties. Some people spend a lot of money celebrating Christmas Day. People buy lots of gifts for their friends and families, but this is not the best way to show their love.
61. Who likes Christmas Day better in China?
62. How many reasons are listed(列出)for celebrating Christmas Day?
63. What’s the writer's opinion about celebrating Christmas Day?
64. Which Chinese festival do you like best? Write something about it. (Write 30 words or more. )
五、书面表达(满分20分)
65. 假如你是李辉, 你的朋友刘利即将转入你校学习, 他对你校的社团活动 很感兴趣。请你根据以下信息, 用英文写一封电子邮件, 向他介绍你校社团 并推荐一个你参加过的社团。
提示问题
1. What clubs does your school have?
2. What club did you join? What did you do in the club?
3. Why do you recommend(推荐)the club?
注意:
1. 邮件中不得出现真实姓名及学校名称;
2. 须包含以上提示内容, 可适当发挥;
3. 词数:80-100词左右;开头和结尾已给出, 不计入总词数。
Dear Liu Li,
Welcome to our school. I am glad to hear that you are interested in our school clubs. Let me tell you something about them.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Li Hui
2024-2025学年度第一学期教学质量检测
九年级英语参考答案
1-5 B A C A B
6-10 C B BA A
11-13 A B C
14-16 B A B
17-20 A C B A
21-24 C A B B
25-28 C D A B
29-32 C A C D
33-36 C D A A
37-40 C E B D
41-45 C A A D B
46-50 D C B A D
51. and 52. are needed 53. hands 54. the 55. to reach
56. had 57. more exciting 58. me 59. in 60. certainly
61. Young people (like Christmas Day better).
62. Two(reasons are listed for celebrating Christmas Day).
63. The writer thinks(China has its own holidays) we don’t have to celebrate it. /we don’t need to/needn’t celebrate it/it’s not necessary to celebrate it. /We shouldn’t celebrate it.
64. I like. . . best. . . .
(开放性试题) 第1问1分, 第2问3分, 出现语法错误酌情扣分。
65. 略。
选择性试题根据所给答案评分。
二、非选择性试题如考生与答案不完全一致, 但与其表达意思相近, 符合问题或情境要求, 酌情给分。
阅读与表达:拼写错误三处扣1分, 语法错误2处扣1分。
其中 64题要按照要求表达出观点即可, 拼写、语法错误每三处扣1分。字数不足25词, 扣1分;字数不足20词扣2分。
三、书面表达
(1)语法、词汇错误每三处扣1分, 同一错误不重复扣分, 最多不超过3分。
(2)拼写与标点符号的误用是影响语言准确性的重要因素, 评分时应视其対交际的影响程度酌情扣分, 英美式拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3)作文划等时, 注意内容是否全面, 逻辑是否清楚, 语言表述是否正确、有意义, 校内或校外活动内容都可以。
(4)内容上少一项提示扣1分。
(5)文章不少于80词, 不足60词扣3分, 不足70词扣5分。
(6)只写3至4句与表达信息相关内容, 每句给1分, 抄写阅读不给分。
1. 评分原则:评分时首先要根据作文内容和语言, 初步确定其所属等次, 再以该等次的要求来衡量, 确定或调整等次, 最后给分。内容要点可用不同方式表达, 鼓励在紧扣主题的基础上适当发挥。
2. 评分标准:
一等文:(18-20分)作文内容完整, 表达清楚, 条理清楚, 语句通顺、正确、可读性强。
二等文:(15-17分)符合题意要求, 作文内容比较完整, 条理清楚, 语言较流畅;语言基本无误;可读性较好。
三等文:(11-14分)基本符合题意要求, 表达基本完整, 条理较清楚, 语句较通顺, 语言有部分错误。
四等文:(8-10分)不符合题意要求, 表达表达不清楚, 语言错误过多。
五等文:(0-7分)写的内容均与所要求的内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
3. 扣分说明
(1) 单词拼写、大小写错误每三处扣1分;
(2) 语法错误每两处扣1分, 同一错误不重复扣分;
(3) 词数不足, 扣2分
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