山东省烟台市莱州市2024-2025学年六年级上学期11月期中考试英语试题

2024—2025学年度第一学期期中学业水平测试 初一英语试题 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共8页, 满分90分, 考试用时90分钟。 2. 答卷前, 考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座位号填写在试卷和答题卡规定的位置上。 3. 选择题选出答案后, 用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的选项标号涂黑；如需改动, 用橡 皮擦干净后, 再选涂其它选项。 4. 非选择题必须用0. 5毫米黑色签字笔作答, 答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相 应位置上：如需改动, 先划掉原来的答案, 然后再写上新答案；不能使用涂改液、胶带纸、修正带 等。 5. 写在试卷上或答题卡指定区域外的答案无效。 第一部分选择题(共三节, 满分45分) 第一节阅读理解(共15小题；每小题2分, 满分30分) 阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的 A、B、C和D 四个选项中, 选出最佳选项。 A Name Pet hobby favourite fruit favourite colour Peter blue Sam green Alice red Bill black 1. Who has a dog? A. Peter. B. Sam C. Alice. D. Bill. 2. What does Bill like doing? A. Playing tennis. B. Playing basketball. C. Playing the piano. D. Playing football. 3. What is Sam's favourite colour? A. Blue. B. Green. C. Red. D. Black. 4. What is Alice's favourite fruit? A. Pear. B. Apple. C. Banana. D. Grape. 5. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Peter likes playing football. B. Alice's favourite colour is green. C. Peter and Bill like pears. D. Bill's pet is a cat. B My name is Helen White. I'm 12 years old. I like singing. I'm in a new school now. I'm in Class 2, Grade 6. My classmates are very nice. I like English very much. Mary Smith is my new friend. I'm in Class 2 , too. She's 11 years old. She likes dancing. We are both in the school band. Mrs. Brown is our English teacher. She is from Canada. She is very friendly. Her Chinese is good, but she only speaks English in class. She plays games with us. And role-play is my favourite. We play the boys and girls in the book to learn English. We all like her 6. What's Helen's hobby? A. Singing. B. Dancing. C. Running. D. Cooking. 7. Which class is Mary in? A. Class 1. B. Class 6. C. Class 2. D. Class 3. 8. Where is Mrs. Brown from? A. The US. B. China. C. The UK. D. Canada. 9. Can Mrs. Brown speak Chinese? A. Yes, he can. B. No, she can’t. C. Yes, she can. D. No, he can’t. 10. What does the underlined(划线)word “role—play” mean in Chinese? A. 角色扮演 B. 运动项目 C. 演讲比赛 D. 猜谜游戏 C I am Lucy. I live with my parents in a big city. My grandparents live on a farm and I often visit them on weekends. You can see many kinds of animals, such as cows, sheep, dogs and ducks. I like to play with them because they can make me happy. Every day, Grandpa goes to feed the animals. In the morning, Grandma often waters flowers. They are red, yellow and white. At noon, she makes nice lunch for the family. I love the farm very much. I always have a great time there. You are welcome to come there. 11. What does Grandparents' farm have? A. Dogs, sheep and pigs. B. Ducks, dogs and sheep. C. Cows, chickens and dogs. D. Horses, ducks and pigs. 12. What does Grandma do in the morning? A. Making lunch. B. Watering flowers. C. Picking pears. D. Growing vegetables. 13. What does the underlined word “They” refer to(指的是)? A. Animals. B. Flowers. C. Houses. D. Boxes. 14. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Lucy doesn't like animals. B. Lucy lives on the farm, C. Lucy's favourite colour is red. D. Lucy loves the farm. 15. What may be the title(题目)of the passage? A. My Grandparents B. The Animals on the Farm C. My Grandparents' Farm D. My Farm 第二节完形填空(共10小题；每小题1分, 满分10分) 阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的A, B、C 和D 四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最 佳选项。 Linda: Hello, Peter! Peter: Hello, Linda! I can't see my cap. Do you see it? Linda: 16 colour is it? Peter: It's blue. Linda: 17 in your schoolbag? Peter: Oh, I find it. Thank you. Linda: 18 Who is that girl over there? Peter: She is my classmate Jane. Let 19 introduce (介绍)you to her. Hi, Jane. Jane: Hi, Peter. Peter: Jane, 20 my friend, Linda。 Jane: Nice to meet you. Linda: 21 Jane: What's your 22 name, Linda? Linda: It's Miller. Jane: Oh, you have the same family name with me. Linda: It's nice. Are you from the UK? Jane: 23, I'm from Australia. Linda: Do you have a 24? Jane: Yes, I have a parrot. She can sing. Linda: I have a pet dog. I think we can be good 25. 16. A. What B. Which C. Who D. Where 17. A. It is B. Is it C. They're D. Are they 18. A. I'm good. B. Thank you. C. You're welcome. D. I'm sorry. 19. A. you B. me C. she D. us 20. A. She is B. That is C. This is D. They are 21. A. Nice to meet you too. B. How are you? C. Good morning. D. Hello! 22. A. first B. last C. full D. middle 23. A. Yes B. No C. It is D. Yet 24. A. job B. band C. pet D. bell 25. A. classmate B. classmates C. friend D. friends 第三节语音(共5小题；每小题1分, 满分5分) 从各题所给的A, B 、C和D四个选项中, 选出单词划线部分的读音不同于其他三项的选项。 26. A. take 27. A. cup 28. A. bag 29. A. read 30. A. open B. name B. cute B. bed B. head B. nose C. grade C. tube C. dad C. cheap C. stop D. past D. huge D. that D. eat D. photo 第二部分语言知识运用(共三节, 满分45分) 第一节语音知识根据音标写出对应的单词。(共10小题；每小题0. 5分, 满分5分) 31. /gri: t/ __________ 32. /'bɒtl/ ___________ 33. /'a: nsə/ ____________ 34. /'kærət/ ___________ 35. /kaʊnt/ ___________ 36. /beə/ _____________ 37. /həʊm/ ____________ 38. /ʃi: p/ ____________ 39. /nais/ ______________ 40. /'kʌntri/ __________ 第二节词汇知识运用 (一)阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入一个适当单词或括号内单词的正确形式。(共5小题； 每小题1分, 满分5分) Here is a picture of my bedroom. You can 41_______ (see)a table in the room. My computer is 42________ it. Two pencils, a pen and 43 _________ eraser are in my schoolbag. 44_______ is my football? It is under my bed. 45__________ (it) colour is white. (二)根据所给的汉语, 把英语句子补充完整, 每空一词。(共10小题；每小题1分, 满分 10分) 46. 我可以知道你的名字吗? _________ _________ have your _____________? 47. 你的裤子什么颜色? _________ __________are your trousers? 48. 你多大了? _________ _________ are you? 49. 到了上课的时候了。 It's time ________ ___________. 50. 他喜欢交朋友。 He likes to __________ ____________. 51. 我们应该保持房间整洁。 We should ________ our room _________. 52. 你的电话号码是多少? _________ ___________ your phone number? 53. 你在农场玩得很高兴吗? Do you ________ __________ on the farm? 54. 你爷爷有多少只兔子? ________ ________ rabbits does your grandpa have? 55. 这是你的杯子吗? 是的。 —Is this your cup? —Yes, _________ ___________. 第三部分书面表达(共25分) 第一节阅读表达(共5小题；每小题2分, 满分10分) 请根据短文内容, 回答下列问题。 Hello, everyone! I'm Jack White. I'm 12 years old. I am from the US. I'm in China now. I like Chinese food a lot. My favourite colour is green. I have a friend. He is a Chinese boy. His name is Wang Ming. Brown is his favourite colour. He likes Beijing roast duck very much. We are good friends. 56. Where is Jack from? 57. Does Jack like Chinese food? 58. 将文中划线句子译成汉语。 59. What's Wang Ming's favourtie colour? 60. Are Jack and Wang Ming good friends? 第二节写作(15分) 假如你是李华, 想在学校结交好朋友。请根据以下面表格中所提供的信息, 写一张交友卡片介绍自己。 Age 12 Living habit(生活习惯) 干净整洁。书放在书橱里。钢笔和铅笔放在书包里 Hobby 喜欢踢足球，放学后经常和同学一起踢足球；还喜欢音乐 Favourite colour 绿色 Favourite food 火锅 要求： 1. 书写认真规范, 语句通顺, 表达正确, 包含所有要点提示, 可适当发挥, 以使行文连 贯； 2. 不少于60词, 开头已给出, 不计入总词数； 3. 文中不得出现真实校名和人名。 I'm Li Hua. I'd like to be your friend. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2024-2025学年度第一学期期中学业水平测试 初一英语试题答案 第一部分 选择题 第一节 (30分, 每小题2分) 1-5 BDBCC 6-10 ACDCA 11-15BBBDC 第二节 完形填空（10分, 每小题1分） 16-20 ABCBC 21-25 ABBCD 第三节 语音知识（5分, 每小题1） 26-30 DABBC 第二部分语言知识运用 第一节 语音知识（5分, 每小题0. 5） 31. greet 32. bottle 33. answer 34. carrot 35. count 36. bear 37. home 38. sheep 39. nice 40. country 第二节 词汇知识运用 语法填空（5分, 每小题1分） 41. see 42. on 43. an 44. Where 45. Its 填空 （10分, 每小题1分, 每空0. 5分） 46. May I 47. What colour (color) 48. How old 49. for class 50. make friends 51. keep tidy 52. What is 53. have fun 54. How many 55. it is 第三部分 书面表达(25分) 第一节 阅读表达 (10分, 每小题2分) 56. The US/America. 57. Yes, he does. 58. 他是（一）个中国男孩。 59. Brown. 60. Yes, they are. 第二节 写作 (15分) One possible version: I’m Li Hua. I’d like to be your friend. I’m 12 years old. I’m in Class 3, Grade 1. I have a good living habit. I’m tidy. My books are in the bookcase. My pens and pencils are in my schoolbag. My favourite sport is football. ( I like playing football. )I often play it with my friends after school. I like music and I play the guitar in the school band. My favourite colour is green. I like many kinds of food. My favourite food is hot pot. 评分标准 一、评分原则 1. 本题总分为15分, 按六个档次进行评分。 2. 评卷时, 首先根据文章要点的涵盖度和语言表达水平初步确定其是否达到及格线（9分）, 然后确定其所属档次, 再以该档次的语言要求来衡量或调整档次, 最后给分。 3. 评分时还应注意： 1）要点：根据考生写对的有效要点量进行评分, 大部分要点表达正确, 一般在及格线（9分）以上； 要点可以用不同的表达方式。 2）内容：内容可以适当发挥, 但要紧扣主题。 3）时态：时态出现错误, 档内酌情扣分。 4）词数：词数太少酌情扣分, 词数多了不扣分。 5）拼写、标点：根据错误多少或其对交际的影响程度酌情扣分。 6）书写：书写较差以致影响交际的, 酌情扣分。 二、要点赋分 1. 年龄：2分； 2. 生活习惯：6分; 3. 兴趣爱好：4分； 4. 喜欢的颜色、食物 ：3分。 三、各档次的给分范围和要求： 档次 分数段 细则 第六档 优秀 （漂漂亮亮） 13—15 ●覆盖所有要点 ●表达清楚, 合理, 语句流畅 ●无错句、几乎无错词 第五档 良好 （清清楚楚） 10—12 ●覆盖所有要点 ●表达较为清楚, 合理 ●有个别语句错误, 但不影响理解 第四档 一般 （马马虎虎） 7—9 ●基本覆盖所有要点 ●有个别表达不够清楚, 合理 ●有1/2以上的句子完全正确 第三档 较差 （一塌糊涂） 4—6 ●遗漏或未清楚表达一些内容要点或一些内容与写作目的不相关。 ●明显的句法错误很多, 不足1/3句子可读 ●未能达到预期的写作目的。 第二档 差 （支离破碎） 1—3 ●遗漏或未清楚表达大部分内容要点或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。 ●错误很多, 罗列有效的单词、短语, 只有1─2个句子可读 ●完全未达到预期的写作目的。 第一档 0 0 ●未作答；抄写试卷上原句；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；与题目要求完全不相关。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$