青海省西宁市大通回族土族自治县2024-2025学年高三上学期开学摸底考试英语试题

青海省大通县教学研究室 2025 届高三开学摸底考试 英语 考生注意： 1. 本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分 150分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前，考生务必用直径0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3. 考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4. 本卷命题范围：高考范围。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30 分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 When should the meeting have started? A. At 9:00 am. B. At 10:00 am. C. At 11:00 am. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Where are the speakers? A. In a zoo. B. In a library. C. At home. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What are the speakers talking about? A. A narrow road. B. A car accident. C. A nice car. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Which name was suggested by the woman’s husband? A. Amy. B. Louise. C. Elizabeth. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What does the woman need to do? A. Print a report. B. Buy a computer. C. Borrow a phone. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. What’s the matter with the woman? A. Her hand hurts. B. She is too tired. C. She is very sick. 7. What does the doctor suggest the woman do? A. Quit her job. B. Take some medicine. C. Have a break. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. When will a special copy of the magazine be sent to the woman? A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday. 9. Which of the following helps the man learn better? A. Lectures. B. Recordings. C. Pictures. 10. What is the woman? A. An editor. B. A scientist. C. A shopping assistant. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. Where will the speakers have dinner tonight? A. At the man’s house. B. At a BBQ restaurant. C. At a Mexican restaurant. 12. What will the speakers buy? A. Chocolate. B. Bread. C. Ice cream. 13. How will the speakers go to the cafe on Main Street? A. By car. B. By train. C. On foot. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 14. Where was Charlie last seen by the man? A. At the park. B. In the yard. C. On the street. 15. What do we know about Charlie? A. He is young. B. He has brown eyes. C. He has long white hair. 16. What is the woman doing? A. Searching for a missing pet. B. Looking for a mailman. C. Helping the man make a poster. 17. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Strangers. B. Neighbors. C. Father and daughter. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 18. What is the small device mentioned by the speaker? A. A television. B. A mobile phone. C. A radio. 19. How old is the speaker? A. 40. B. 60. C. 90. 20. What does the speaker want to tell the audience? A. The world is changing very fast. B. They should study some history. C. He is too old to accept new things. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Let’s take a look at some of the big celebrations that happen during spring Songkran Songkran is a celebration marking the Thai New Year. The festival usually lasts three days, though festivities can start early or end later in some cities. Water plays a major role in the festival. Symbolically, it washes away the previous year so people can get ready for the next one Therefore, many Songkran traditions are associated with water, such as cleaning homes and pouring water on Buddha statues and the hands of elders. Outside, Songkran is celebrated with street parties and a friendly water fight. In 2023, it began on April 13. Holi Known as the festival of colors, Holi is celebrated on the last full moon in the lunar month of Phalguna. This ancient tradition marks the end of winter and honors the victory of good over bad. Celebrators light big fires, throw colorful powder called gulal at each other, eat sweets, and dance to traditional folk music. The annual Hindu celebration was held on March 8, 2023. Easter It is a Christian tradition marking the day when Jesus Christ is said to have come back to life. On Easter Sunday, people attend church services where they sing and pray. It’s a day for some fun family activities too, like decorating hard-boiled eggs and searching for the hidden treats around the house or yard. Some kids also receive baskets filled with goodies, and many families have big feasts. In 2023, Easter was celebrated on Sunday, April 9. Passover Passover is a time to reflect on Jews’ suffering in ancient Egypt. Jews were believed to have been led to freedom by a religious leader named Moses. Passover is celebrated for seven or eight days in reflection of the suffering. In 2023, Passover began in the evening of April 5 and ended in the evening of April 13. 21. When did Thai people start to celebrate the New Year in 2023? A. On March 8. B. On April 5. C. On April 9. D. On April 13. 22. Which holiday celebrates the victory of good? A. Songkran. B. Holi. C. Easter. D. Passover. 23. What makes Passover different from the other three holidays? A. The season of celebration. B. The widespread use of water. C. The sad holiday atmosphere. D. The bright decorating colors. B She could have just quit. The race was long decided, and it was raining cats and dogs. But the drenched Bou Samnang knew that she was running for her country — Cambodia. So she kept going, racing alone on a track in Phnom Penh. And for that, she has won over fans around the sporting world and beyond. “I tried to reach the finish line because I wanted to show people that in life, even though we go a bit slow or fast, we will reach our destination all the same,” she said in an interview. “Even if we’ re in last place, even if the weather is terrible, even if it feels like we can’t do it, we should not give up.” Social media around the world shared the video of her finishing the women’s 5, 000-meter race on May 8 at the Southeast Asian Games, which Cambodia is hosting for the first time. In the video, the sound of rainfall is mixed with cheers and shouts of encouragement as Bou Samnang finally nears and then crosses the finish line, almost six minutes behind the winner, Vietnam’s Thi Oanh Nguyen. As she waves her hands to acknowledge the fans who brave the rain to cheer her on, her face is wet with tears and rain as she lifts her country’s flag. The athlete said later that she was disappointed to finish last but also happy to hear people supporting her — and surprised that the video caused such great excitement. The runner’s performance was also noted by Cambodian King Norodom Sihamoni, who said he was proud of her for reminding everyone that sports are about more than winning and losing. The Southeast Asian Games is held every two years and athletes from the 11 nations in the region compete against each other in 581 events. Its closing ceremony is set for Wednesday. 24. What does the word “drenched” underlined in paragraph one mean? A. Wet. B. Smelly. C. Pretty. D. Energetic. 25. How did Bou Samnang feel about the response from the social media? A Depressed. B. Surprised. C. Annoyed. D. Amused. 26. What does King Norodom Sihamoni mean? A. Bou Samnan g should set a better example. B. He is disappointed that his country has not won. C. He takes pride in hosting the Games in Cambodia. D. The significance of sports goes beyond winning medals. 27. Which of the following best describes Bou Samnan g as an athlete? A. Talented. B. Competitive. C. Determined. D. Promising. C You may have already seen them in restaurants: waist-high machines that can greet guests, lead them to their tables, deliver food and take dirty dishes to the kitchen. Some even have cat-like faces and make cat-like sounds when you touch their heads. But are robot waiters going to be accepted in the world? Many restaurant owners think so. Li Zhai is one of them. When Zhai was having trouble finding staff for his restaurant in the summer of 2021, he bought a BellaBot from Pudu Robotics. The robot was so successful that he added two more. Now, one robot leads diners to their seats while another delivers steaming noodles to tables. The third robot is used to transport dirty dishes to the kitchen. “We only need three robots to do the same volume of business that five or six people used to handle,” says Zhai, “A robot costs around $15, 000, but a person costs $5, 000 to $6, 000 per month. The robots also give human servers more time to communicate with customers, which increases tips. And customers often post videos of the robots on social media that attract others to visit.” “Eventually, a certain percentage of restaurants — maybe 30% — will continue to have human servers and be considered more luxurious, while the rest will rely more heavily on robots in the kitchen and in dining rooms,” said Dennis Reynolds, professor of the Hilton College of Global Hospitality Leadership. “Economics are on the side of robots. The cost of human labor will continue to rise, but technology cost will fall.” But not all have had the same success with robots. Chili’s introduced a robot server named Rita in 2020 and expanded the test to its 61 restaurants before abandoning the experiment last August. The chain found that Rita moved too slowly and got in the way of human servers. And 58% of guests surveyed said Rita didn’t improve their overall experience. “We don’t go to a restaurant to be served by technology. We go for the experience of being served by humans,” many of the diners said. 28. Why did Li Zhai decide to buy the first robot? A. He wanted to save money. B. He couldn’t find human waiters. C. Robot waiters were popular. D. His workers wanted to get more tips. 29. What is Dennis Reynolds’ prediction mainly based on? A Customers’ ready acceptance. B. Competition in food industry. C. Costs of staffing a restaurant. D. Technological advancements. 30. What did Chili’s customers complain about concerning the robot waiters? A. Their appearances. B. The complex software. C. Their slow speech. D. The lack of personal interaction. 31. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Are Robot Waiters the Future? B. Will Robots Replace Human Brain? C. Why Do Customers Dislike Robot Waiters? D. How Can a Restaurant Improve the Dining Experience? D John Dryden, an English poet who died in 1700, once said, “Wealthy families can rarely continue to be rich for three generations.” In 19th- century America, successful families were also said to “go from shirtsleeves to shirtsleeves” in that length of time. In Asia, there is an identical saying that family wealth could not pass three generations. As a rising share of the world’s wealthiest comes from Asia, the three-generation hypothesis (假想) is being tested once again. Overall, the results of the three-generation test so far look encouraging for Asia’s wealthiest families. What has helped the wealthiest families to survive the test is the education that the younger generations have received. While many of their grandparents and parents never completed university most of them have attended the best-known universities abroad, often in America. As a result, they are far worldlier than their elders, who built their fortunes on local businesses in periods of rapid economic development. John Riady, the child of an Indonesian family that owns Lippo Karawaci, attended Georgetown University, before earning an MBA at the Wharton School of the University of Pennsylvania and a law degree from Columbia University. Isha Ambani, daughter of Mukesh Ambani, graduated from Yale and then Stanford University’s Graduate School of Business in 2018. At the same time, they are more sharply aware of their responsibility to avoid one of the traditional traps: putting relationship before anything else. Instead, after they take charge of the businesses, they usually try to establish rules and regulations in their family businesses in order to keep generating wealth over centuries. In many developing countries, dealing with interest groups and local authorities remains an important part of doing business. It can ensure access to big contracts. However, American business schools do not teach them such skills. To preserve their family businesses, they have to learn a thing or two from their elders. 32. What do “shirtsleeves” most probably stand for in the first paragraph? A. Being poor. B. Being generous. C. Being stupid. D. Being lazy. 33. What does the author say about the richest younger generations in Asia? A. They are much wiser. B. They are more responsible. C. They are better educated. D. They are more experienced. 34. What do the younger leaders of the big family businesses stress? A. Western education. B. Social connection. C. Close relationship. D. Professional management. 35. What does the author advise the children of the wealthiest families to do? A. Get big contracts with dirty tricks. B. Learn from their grandparents and parents. C. Stay away from the powerful interest groups. D. Establish rules and regulations in their businesses. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Benefits of Exploring New Places Discovering unfamiliar places can often be frightening, but it’s also an adventure that offers many benefits. Whether you go abroad or plan a pleasant, local staycation (就近度假) , traveling gives you the opportunity to step away from your busy schedule to clear your mind and center yourself. ___36___. It improves mental health It may come as no surprise to learn that exploring new places is good for your physical happiness, but do you know that it’s also good for your mental and emotional health? ___37___. It also keeps your brain active as you learn and explore new places, meet new people and live through new experiences. By taking advantage of the freedom that comes with traveling, you’ re accepting a healthy, positive and optimistic mindset. It lets you disconnect from your daily life ___38___. Traveling offers a great relief from the stress that comes from work and daily demands. A weekend trip or stay cation can help you unwind and explore at a slow and relaxing pace. By taking a break from your daily responsibilities, you’ re giving your body and mind some time to heal and renew. It helps you step out of your comfort zone New experiences can often bring forth new challenges. ___39___. But once you step out of your comfort zone, you’ll gain a renewed sense of strength and independence. Doing things differently from your daily activities will also help improve your productivity, gain problem- solving skills and build your confidence. ___40___ Traveling can teach you many things about a destination, including its history, people and languages, which a book simply can’t. When you meet with new cultures and people, you’re improving your creativity in the process. Involving yourself in other people’s traditions, beliefs and real- life experiences will teach you new skills and insights, while sparking (激发) your creativity. A. It improves creativity B. It expands your understanding C. Traveling boosts happiness and satisfaction D. Here are the benefits of discovery, near and far E. A leisurely walk can help calm your mind and spirit F. Sometimes your mind and body need to rest and recharge G. Exploring a new city, state or country can be scary at first 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30 分） 第一节（共15 小题；每小题1分，满分 15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 When Dave Hughes lost his job and his place to live, he made his way to a camp under a bridge. It was relatively out of the way, so police don’t ___41___ a few people living there. But he felt very ___42___. “The first thing that I missed was a ___43___. I really wanted to make a (n) ___44___ with an animal of any kind,” Hughes told reporters. One day, a water bird ___45___ on the lake beside the camp. It seemed to be driven away from its group. Before long, it started sleeping next to Hughes under the bridge. He built it a ___46___ with donated clothes and it moved in. “She didn’t want to be alone, either. I’m convinced that she came to me for safety and ___47___, which was the two things that I really needed,” Hughes said. “It’s ___48___ to be out there alone.” The homeless bird ___49___ with him until March 9, 2022. Then it was gone. For months, Hughes ____50____ the lake and nearby ponds every day, looking for it. “Since then, I began to really get in touch with the birds here and started to notice a ____51____ in myself,” Hughes said. “It’s a ____52____ she gave me because she let me see that there’s this entire world going on. I didn’t really ____53____ it until I just stopped and looked at it.” Hughes is now a specialist in the ____54____ around the lake. He lights up when he starts talking about his ____55____ hobby. 41. A. mind B. rescue C. investigate D. arrange 42. A. happy B. cold C. hungry D. lonely 43. A. meal B. pet C. house D. child 44. A. agreement B. comparison C. connection D. appointment 45. A. showed up B. fell down C. flew away D. pulled over 46. A. bank B. boat C. castle D. nest 47. A. food B. water C. companionship D. entertainment 48. A. scary B. fun C. calming D. quiet 49. A. struggled B. sailed C. lived D. relaxed 50. A. cleaned B. searched C. dug D. dried 51. A. sadness B. talent C. change D. model 52. A. burden B. medal C. title D. gift 53. A. realize B. accept C. like D. want 54. A. history B. herb C. wildlife D. weather 55. A. new B. hunting C. expensive D. forgotten 第二节（共10小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Experts began raising the alarm about climate change in 1979. In 2015, over 200 countries signed ___56___ first international agreement, the Paris Climate Agreement, ___57___ (fight) climate change in the world. The agreement has set a goal of keeping warming under 2℃ and pursuing an even ___58___ (low) warming limit of 1. 5℃. Addressing climate change ___59___ (require) many solutions. Yet nearly all of them exist today. They range from ___60___ we get our electricity to protecting forests from destruction. New technology will also help reduce emissions. For example, scientists are working on ___61___ (variety) ways to gather CO2 from power plants and store it underground or turn it into valuable products such as gasoline. ___62___ addition, planting trees and increasing the use of agricultural cover crops may help clean up 37% of CO2 needed to reach the Paris Agreement's 2030 targets. Improved ecosystems can also benefit biodiversity, ___63___ (provide) a win- win for nature and human beings. Individuals and communities around the world are already recognizing that adaptation must also be part of the ___64___ (respond) to climate change. It includes eating less meat, rethinking modes of transport and designing energy-saving houses. Some of the above solutions are broad ones that must ____65____ (carry) out by governments and businesses, but many other ideas involve changes that anyone can make. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40 分） 第一节（满分15分） 66. 假定你是李华，你的好友Peter对中国文化很感兴趣。他委托你帮忙报名学校的国画俱乐部，但因人数已满，报名不成功。请给他写一封邮件，要点包括： 1.告知实情； 2.推荐其他社区俱乐部。 注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Peter, ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Best wishes! Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 My sister Tina and I are very different. I'm a just simple-minded girl, at least in her eyes, while she is literally the symbol of perfection. When I was young I wanted to be like her. If she wore her hair in a new style one day, I would do the same with mine the following day. I always tried to follow her and her friends around and begged to be included, but her life didn't really have much space for a bothersome two-year-younger sister. Over time, my admiration for her had turned into indifference. Living in the same apartment as strangers, we barely spoke to each other. I even felt relieved in secret when she informed me this year that she would be spending eight months studying abroad. I assumed I'd use her video player and wear the dresses she left behind. That was the only way l thought her leaving would affect me. I sat in my room that first evening after she departed and tried to concentrate on my homework. However, I couldn't get rid of the feeling that something was wrong, or something was missing. I looked around the apartment and everything was the same. But it was so silent that I could hear my own breathing. I went to Tina's room. Both her video player and her talk on the phone with her friends were absent. When I sat down on her bed, I became sharply aware of how different my life was without her. Even though we didn't always talk, just having her there made me feel secure. Sitting there, I looked back at the wasted years and regretted trying to live my own life and overlooking hers. I felt particularly bad because I had not even given her a hug before she boarded her plane, and that made my heart ache. 注意：1.续写词数应为150个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 As the night went on, I decided to do something to make it up. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ For a long time there was nothing but silence on the other end of the line. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 青海省大通县教学研究室 2025 届高三开学摸底考试 英语 考生注意： 1. 本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分 150分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前，考生务必用直径0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3. 考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4. 本卷命题范围：高考范围。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30 分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】C 【3题答案】 【答案】A 【4题答案】 【答案】C 【5题答案】 【答案】A 第二节（共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. A 7. C 【8~10题答案】 【答案】8. A 9. C 10. B 【11~13题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. B 13. C 【14~17题答案】 【答案】14. B 15. C 16. A 17. B 【18~20题答案】 【答案】18. B 19. B 20. A 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【21~23题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. B 23. C B 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. A 25. B 26. D 27. C C 【28~31题答案】 【答案】28. B 29. C 30. D 31. A D 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. A 33. C 34. D 35. B 第二节（共5小题；每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36 D 37. C 38. F 39. G 40. A 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30 分） 第一节（共15 小题；每小题1分，满分 15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【41~55题答案】 【答案】41. A 42. D 43. B 44. C 45. A 46. D 47. C 48. A 49. C 50. B 51. C 52. D 53. A 54. C 55. A 第二节（共10小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分） 【56~65题答案】 【答案】56. the 57. to fight 58. lower 59. requires 60. where##how 61. various##varied 62. In 63. providing 64. response##responses 65. be carried 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40 分） 第一节（满分15分） 【66题答案】 【答案】Dear Peter, I have received your email and tried to help you join the Chinese traditional painting club at school. Unfortunately, the club is already full. The good news is that in the neighborhood there is a club that provides more choices, including Chinese traditional painting, writing and other related activities. Best of all, most of the courses are free and you can study with local experts and residents. I think it is a really good opportunity to learn Chinese culture. Please let me know if you would like me to assist you in signing up for any of these courses. Best wishes! Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 【67题答案】 【答案】One possible version: As the night went on, I decided to do something to make it up. I picked up the phone and called her halfway across the world. As I waited for her to pick up, my concerns kept growing every second. Finally she was on the phone. Without waiting for her “Hello”, I said, “It's me. I just want to tell you I really miss you. I know we aren't as close as some sisters, but that doesn't mean I'm not missing you a ton.” For a long time there was nothing but silence on the other end of the line. Finally she spoke. Her voice sounded as though it came from nearby. “I've been sitting here, all alone, thinking about you guys back home, too. Your voice makes me feel as though I were right there with you,” she said very quickly just as I did. “I miss you, too. I'm counting down the days before I can go home.” 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$null青海省大通县教学研穷室2025届高三开学摸底考试 英语 答题卡 条形码粘贴处 准 考证号 [0][0] 1.答题前,考生先将自已的学校,班级,姓名,准考证号填写清楚 ] 0] 0][0]0]o][0][0 r1] 1 [ 出 2.选择题使用2B铅笔填涂;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选择其他答案标 2] 2 12 [2 12] 2) 2 ) 1 3) 号:非选择题使用提色碳素笔书写,字体工整、笔迹清楚,按照题号题序在 , 册 [4 各题目的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效;在草稿纸,试 [5 5 15 [5 5 ) I [5 。 项 上答题无效 [6] [6] 16 16 6 [6 _ E2 。 6 。 17 7 7 心 3.保持卡面清洁,不折叠,不破损 17 [8 8 。 过[ [o1o{ [][9] 填涂 正确填涂: 缺考 [10 ][][ 范例 记 错误填涂:CD 选择题(请用2B铅笔填涂) 1[][B[C] 6[A][8][C] 11[A][8][C] 16 [A][][C] 2] CB][c] 7 ][n][c] 12 [A][n][c] 17[A][] rc] 3] 1 [目][C] r] 13[][][c] 8 ][B] 18[][B] [C] 4[A][][C] 9 [][][c] 14 [A]r][c] 19[][][C] 10 [A][B][C] 5[A][B][c] 15[][B][C] 20[][][c] 21A][][c][o] 26 [](e][c]co] 31 CA][][c]co] 36 [A][e] [C] [D] [e][F] [G] 22 27[A][B] 32[][B][c] r][C] 1[C][D][=][F] 10] [C][] [D] 37[][B] [G] 23A [][C][D] 33 [A][][C][D] 28 [A][][C][D] 38 [A][] 1[C][D][E][F] [G 24A C][c][D] 29 [A][B][C][o] 34[][][c][o] 39 [A][8][C] [D] [E][F][G] 25.[A][B][C][0] 30 [A][][C][o] 35[][][C][] 40 [A] [8] [C] [D] [E][E][G] 。_ 41[A]CB][c][o] 46[A][][c][o] 51 [A][][c][p] 47 [A][B][c][o] 42] [][c][o] 52[A][][C][D] 48 [A][] 53 [A][][c] [D] 43[] B[C] [C][D] rp] 44[A][B][c][o] 49 [A][B][c][o] 54 [A][][c] rp 45 A][][C][D] 50 [A]][c][D] 55 [A][B][c]D] 非选择题(请使用0.5毫米的黑色字迹签字笔书写) 第二节(15分) 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. ) 64. 65. 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 高三开学摸底考试·英语 第1页(共2页)25-L-038C ■ 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 △第一节(15分) Dear Peter. Best wishes! Yours. Li Hua △第二节(25分) As the night went on, I decided to do something to make it up For a long time there was nothing but silence on the other end of the line. 请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出矩形边框限定区域的答案无效! 高三开学摸底考试·英语 第2页(共2页) 25-L-038C写作评分细则 第一节（满分 15 分） （一）评分原则 1.本题总分为 15 分，按 5 个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最 后给分。 3.词数少于 60 或多于 100 的，从总分中减去 2 分。 4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇 用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。 （二）各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档（13～15 分） ——完全完成试题规定的任务。 ——覆盖所有内容要点。 ——应用较多的语法结构和词汇。 ——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 ——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 ——完全达到预期的写作目的。 第四档（10～12 分） ——完成试题规定的任务。 ——虽漏掉 1～2 个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。 ——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 ——达到预期的写作目的。 第三档（7～9 分） ——基本完成试题规定的任务。 ——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 ——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 ——整体而言，基本达到预期的写作目的。 第二档（4～6 分） ——未适当完成试题规定的任务。 ——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 ——语法结构单调，词汇有限。 ——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 ——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。 ——信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档（1～3 分） ——未完成试题规定的任务。 ——明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题的要求。 ——语法结构单调，词汇有限。 ——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 ——缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 ——信息未能传达给读者。 0 分 ——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判。 ——所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 第二节（满分 25 分） （一）评分原则 1.本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档 次，最后给分。 3.词数少于 120 的，酌情扣分；只写一段的原则上不超过 10 分。 4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑： （1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度； （2）内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况； （3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性； （4）上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及 词汇用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。 （二）各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档（21～25 分） ——与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。 ——内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息。 ——所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。 ——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。 第四档（16～20 分） ——与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。 ——内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息。 ——所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 ——比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。 第三档（11～15 分） ——与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 ——写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息。 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。 ——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 第二档（6～10 分） ——与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 ——写出了一些有关内容，较少利用文中的关键信息。 ——语法结构单调，词汇有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达。 ——较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。 第一档（1～5 分） ——与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。 ——写出的内容较少，很少利用文中的关键信息。 ——语法结构单调，词汇很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。 ——缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。 0 分 ——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。