湖南省郴州市2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题

郴州市 2024 年上学期期末学业质量抽测试卷 七年级英语 注意事项： 2.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将准考证条形码粘贴在答题卡的指定位置； 2. 选择题部分请按题号用2B铅笔填涂方框，修改时用橡皮擦擦干净，不留痕迹； 3.非选择题部分请按题号用0.5毫米黑色签字笔书写，否则作答无效； 4.在草稿纸上、试题卷上、答题卡区域外答题均无效； 5.请勿折叠答题卡，保证字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁； 6.答题完成后，请将试卷、答题卡放在桌上，由监考老师统一收回； 7.试题卷中听力技能材料以中速朗读两遍。 本试卷共8页，分四个部分，61小题，时量100分钟，满分100分。 Ⅰ.听力理解(共两节，满分20分) 第一节 (共5 小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What is Nancy good at? A. Singing. B. Dancing. C. Drawing. 2. How is the weather in Changsha? A. Windy. B. Rainy. C. Sunny. 3. What animals does Alice like? A. Pandas. B. Elephants. C. Giraffes. 4. What does Mrs Green's son look like? A. Tall. B. Thin. C. Short. 5. How often does Sally exercise? A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. 第二节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分 15分) 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第六段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. How does Peter usually go to school? A. By bike. B. By bus. C. By subway. 7. How long does it take him to get to school? A. About 10 minutes. B. About 20 minutes. C. About 30 minutes. 听第七段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What does the girl think of her family rules? A. Interesting. B. Strict. C. Terrible. 9. How long can the boy watch TV on Saturday? A. For one hour. B. For two hours. C. For three hours. 听第八段材料，回答第10、11题。 10. Where is Jane now? A. At school. B. At home. C. At the park. 11. When are they going to meet? A. At 2:00 p. m. B. At 4:00 p. m. C. At 6:00 p. m. 听第九段材料，回答第12 至 14题。 12. Who did John camp by the lake with? A. His sister. B. His friend. C. His classmates. 13. What did John do on Sunday morning? A. He flew a kite. B. He went boating. C. He visited his friend. 14. How was John's weekend? A. It was great. B. It was boring. C. It was not good. 听第十段材料，回答第15至17题。 15. What kind of dumplings would the woman like? A. mutton and onion dumplings. B. Beef and potato dumplings. C. Chicken and cabbage dumplings. 16. What is the woman's telephone number? A.5438627. B.4583627. C.4581539. 17. How much are the dumplings? A.25 yuan. B.55 yuan. C. 75 yuan. 听第十一段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. When does Jenny want to visit Mingming? A. Next Tuesday. B. Next Wednesday. C. Next Thursday. 19. How far is it from the train station to Mingming's house? A. About 8 kilometers. B. About 15 kilometers. C. About 20 kilometers. 20. What can we learn from the e- mail? A. Jenny can take the bus to get there. B. The No.18 bus will take Jenny there. C. Jenny should turn left at the first crossing. Ⅱ.阅读技能(共两节，满分30分) 第一节 (共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分) 阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 21. Who writes the book? A. Jennifer Green. B. Mark Brown. C. Jennifer Brown. 22. Jack wants to make an onion and tomato pizza. He can turn to . A. Page 3 B. Page 9 C. Page 15 23. The book is about . A. how to make pizzas B. where to eat pizzas C. different kinds of pizzas B Mr. Black works in a hotel. He is short- sighted (近视的), but he doesn't wear glasses. He thinks it is not cool to wear glasses. It is Saturday and it is fine today. Mr. Black likes sunny days and he wants to take a walk. He puts on his black hat, takes his yellow bag and goes out of his house. He walks on the street and looks around. The sun is shining and the birds are singing in the tree. Mr. Black feels very happy. Suddenly(突然地), a strong wind blows away his hat. “ Oh, my hat!” Mr. Black begins to run after it. He runs and the hat“ runs”, too. Mr. Black feels surprised (惊讶的). Just then, an old man shouts at him from a window,“ What are you doing?” Mr. Black answers,“I’m running after my hat!”“ Your hat? You are running after my cat! ” says the old man. 24. Mr. Black doesn't wear glasses because . A. he doesn't have glasses B. he doesn't like to wear them C. he doesn't need to wear them 25. What does the words“ blows away” mean in Paragraph 2? A. 紧跟 B.远离 C. 吹走 26. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. Mr. Black likes rainy days. B. Mr. Black is running after a cat on the street. C. Mr. Black runs on the street to get his glasses. 27. What can we infer(推断) from the passage? A. The old man's cat may be black. B. The old man is friendly to Mr. Black. C. The old man helps Mr. Black find his hat. C This year is the Year of Dragon (龙) or we can call it the Year of Loong. Today I' ll tell you about the Chinese loong. Loong is the fifth of all the 12 Chinese zodiac (生肖) animals. It is one of the people's favorites. It's a symbol of Chinese culture (文化). Loong is friendly and brave(勇敢的). It brings people good luck. In China, loong is everywhere. It's on old buildings, like the Forbidden City(紫禁城), and in art. In Chinese New Year, there's always a Dragon Dance. People dance with the big and colorful dragon to welcome the new year and ask for good luck. During the Dragon Boat Festival, we also have dragon boat races and people enjoy watching them on TV. It's a good way to have fun. The Chinese dragon or loong teaches us to be brave and work as a team. It's a special part of China's history and we still love it today. 28. What can loong bring us in Chinese culture? A. Delicious food. B. Friendly animals. C. Good luck. 29. What can people see in Chinese New Year according to the passage? A. A Dragon Dance. B. A dragon boat race. C. A dragon play. 30. From the passage, we may know that . A. loong is the sixth of the 12 Chinese zodiac animals B. watching dragon boat races is a good way to have fun C. the Chinese dragon can teach us to be special and smart 31. What's the best title of the passage? A. The Year of Dragon. B. The Chinese Loong. C. Chinese Zodiac Animals. 第二节 (共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 How much do you know about golf (高尔夫)? It is a great sport. Many people all over the world enjoy it. 32 They play it for fun and they want to be healthy, too. 33 The sport started in Scotland (苏格兰). Scotland is the home of golf. People in Scotland were good at playing golf. 34 For a long time, they were often golf winners(获胜者) in some big golf games. But now something is different. 35 Some of the bigger winners come from South Korea, South Africa and South America. They are making the game of golf more exciting and more popular around the world. How do you like this sport? A. Where did golf start? B. They think it's a good way to relax. C. Do you know how to play golf well? D. Players from some other countries can also play very well. E. They were the ones who first played the game and took it to other places. Ⅲ.语言运用(共两节，满分25分) 第一节 (共 10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Maria Green doesn't like weekends at all because when weekends come, she has to stay at home by herself. Her parents are 36 with work, so they don't have much time to stay with her. Maria wishes to have a happy weekend with her parents. Last Friday night, Maria's parents came home from work very 37 . When Maria got home, 38 was ready on the table this time.“ Dear, what do you want to do this weekend?” asked her mom.“ There isn't anything 39 . Just do my homework and watch TV as usual (像平常一样)” Maria said sadly. “ Let's do something different this time,” her mom smiled (笑). “I want to do it, but both of you are 40 too busy! ” said Maria. “ What about going to the West Lake Park tomorrow morning? We went 41 and bought the food and drinks this afternoon.” Maria was so excited 42 hearing what her mom said. So the next day, the Greens were in the West Lake Park. They flew kites, went boating and had a big meal. They had a good time and it was really a happy 43 to remember. “ Thank you for such a great weekend! ” Maria said with tears (眼泪) in her eyes. “ We’ re 44 that we didn’t spend much time with you, Maria. But we’ ll have 45 time to stay with you from now on! ” her parents said with a smile. 36. A. strict B. free C. busy 37. A. early B. slowly C. late 38. A. breakfast B. lunch C. dinner 39. A. terrible B. special C. popular 40. A. always B. never C. sometimes 41. A. fishıng B. shopping C. camping 42. A. before B. after C. from 43. A. winter B. tonight C. weekend 44. A. sorry B. sad C. interested 45. A. more B. little C. best 第二节 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Long long ago, a bear(熊) lived in a forest. After 46. long and cold winter, spring came and it got warm. On a 47. ( sun) morning, the bear woke up from a three- month sleep. He was so hungry.“I need to get some food,” he said. There 48. ( be) a small river in the forest. He left 49. ( he) home in the early morning and went fishing by the river. He got one 50. ( easy) but he let it go.“ The fish is too small,” he said. He wanted 51. ( get) a big one. He looked into the water. Then again a small fish came and he let it go, too. He thought he could get a big one. He 52. ( see) lots of fish come and go, but he was not interested 53. them at all. The bear sat by the river for six 54. ( hour). At last, he didn't get any fish. It was dark and he had to go back home.“ If I get many small fish, I could be full(饱的),” he thought. 55. it's too late. That day the bear learned a lesson——a small fish in hand is worth (值得) a big fish in water. Ⅳ.综合技能 (共两节，满分25分) 第一节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分 10分) 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答56~58小题，翻译59~60小题。 Hello, I'm Grace. Let me tell you something about my neighborhood. It is beautiful and quiet. My house is next to a new building on Green Street. My best friend Betty lives in that building. There is a clean and big park across from Betty's building. I often go to the park to exercise with my father. 59. There is a music school in my neighborhood. I go there to learn to play the guitar every Saturday afternoon. It's across from a bank. Is there a supermarket in my neighborhood? Of course, there is. On the right of it, there's a noodle house. Betty's mother works there. Every morning, I often go there to have a large bowl of beef potato noodles for only 9 yuan. It's cool. My favorite place in the neighborhood is the library. 60.放学后, 我经常去那里阅读。It's next to the music school. It's across from an old hospital. My mother works in it. 56. How is Grace's neighborhood? 57. Who works in the noodle house? 58. What is Grace's favorite place in the neighborhood? 59.将文中划线部分的句子翻译成中文。 60.将文中划线部分的句子翻译成英文。 第二节 (共1小题，满分 15分) 假如你是李华,下周你班将召开主题为“ My Best Friend”的英语竞赛，请根据以下图表介绍一下你的好朋友。 要求： (1)词数70左右(开头已给出，不计入总词数)； (2)短文须包括图表所有提示内容，可适当发挥； (3)短文中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名。 My Best Friend I have a good friend. She is 郴州市2024 年上学期期末学业质量抽测试卷 七年级英语听力测试材料、参考答案及评分标准 一、听力测试材料 郴州市2024年上学期期末教学质量抽测七年级英语听力测试现在开始。 注意：做听力试题时，请先在试题卷上作答。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将第1至第20小题的答案转涂到答题卡上。听力材料以中速朗读两遍。 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. M: Nancy, are you good at singing? W: No. I'm good at drawing. 2. M: It's sunny in Chenzhou. How's the weather in Changsha? W: It's raining right now. 3. M: What animals do you like, Alice? W: I like pandas. They are so cute. 4. M: Mrs. Green, is your son short or tall? W: He's short. And he has short hair. 5. M: When do you usually exercise, Sally? W: I usually exercise on Wednesday and Sunday. 第二节 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第六段材料，回答第6、7题。 W: How do you go to school, Peter? M: I usually go to school by bus. W: How long does it take you to get there? M: About ten minutes. 听第七段材料，回答第8、9题。 W: I have too many family rules. They are terrible. M: Like what? W: I have to clean my room before watching TV on Saturday. M: How long can you watch TV? W: For two hours. M: Oh, but I can watch TV for only one hour. 听第八段材料，回答第10、11题。 M: What are you doing, Jane? W: I'm reading a newspaper at home, but it's kind of boring. M: How about going to the movies with me? W: OK. When and where shall we meet? M: Let's meet at 4:00 p. m. at school first. W: All right. See you then. 听第九段材料，回答第 12 至 14题。 M: Hi, Lucy! How was your last weekend? W: Not so good, John. M: Really? Did you go out? W: No, I stayed at home. I studied for the maths test. What about you? M: Well, on Saturday morning, I camped by the lake with my classmates. In the afternoon, we went boating, and at night, I visited my friend. W: Cool. What about Sunday? M: In the morning, I flew a kite in the park with my sister. In the afternoon, I went to the library, and at night, I did my homework. W: Wow! You had a good time. 听第十段材料，回答第 15 至 17题。 M: Hello, House of Dumplings! W: Hello! I want to order some food, please. M: Sure. What would you like? W: I'd like twelve beef and potato dumplings, please. M: OK. What's your address, please? W:25 Center Street. M: And what's your telephone number? W:4583627. M: 4583627? W: Yes. That's right. M: Thank you. That' ll be 75 yuan. 听第十一段材料，回答第18至20题。 Mingming has a pen pal. Her name is Jenny. Jenny wants to visit Mingming next Thursday. To help Jenny find his house easily, Mingming is writing an e- mail to tell Jenny the way to his home. Dear Jenny, My home is on Center Street. It is about 15 kilometers away from the train station to my house. It is far, so take Bus No. 8 from the train station to Beihu Park. Go down Center Street. Then turn right at the first crossing. At the end of the street, you can see a house with many orange trees in front. That's my home. Yours, Mingming 听力材料朗读完毕，请同学们继续做下面的试题，监考老师请关机。 二、参考答案 1~5 CBACB 6~10 BACAB 11~15 BCAAB 16~20 BCCBA 21~25 ABABC 26~30 ACCAB 31~35 BBAED 36~40 CACBA 41~45 BBCAA 46. a 47. sunny 48. was 49. his 50. easily 51. to get 52. saw 53. in 54. hours 55. But 56. It's beautiful and quiet./ Beautiful and quiet.(只回答 Beautiful 或 Quiet 给1分) 57. Betty's mother ( works in a noodle house). 58. The library. / Grace's favorite place ( in the neighborhood) is the library. 59.在我的街区有一所音乐学校。 60. After school, I often go there to read./ I often go there to read after school./ After school,I often go to the library to read ( some books). /. .. 61. One possible version I have a good friend. She is Julie. She is 13 years old. She is from Australia. She can speak English and a little Chinese. She is very beautiful. She has big eyes and long straight hair. She is tall and thin. She likes music, playing chess and swimming. She often helps others. So her classmates all like her. Her parents are English teachers. They teach in a middle school in China. Julie has two brothers. Their names are Jack and Dick. They like swimming, too. 三、评分标准 1.第1~20小题,每小题1分;第21~35 小题,每小题2分;第36~45小题,每小题1.5分；第46~55小题，每小题1分；第56~60小题，每小题2分；书面表达计15分。 2.第46~55 小题，不影响表意的大小写错误可不扣分。 3.第56~60小题除参考答案之外可接受的或关键信息词正确的答案均可酌情给分，不影响表意的大小写和标点错误可不扣分。 4.作文评分细则： (1)评分时根据内容和语言确定档次给分，主要考虑要点、词汇和语法结构的准确性及上下文的连贯。 (2)拼写和标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时应根据对表达的影响程度给予考虑。(单词拼写错误每个扣0.25分，同一错误不重复扣分。不影响表意的拼写和标点错误可不扣分。) (3)词数太少(不够50词)的或书写不规范的应酌情扣1~2分(但不倒扣分)。 (4)以下情况均不给分：书写极差以致严重影响表达；所写内容与文章无关。 (5)作文要点给分细则： 要 点 分 值 年龄，国籍，语言 3分 外貌(根据图片描述) 3分 爱好 3分 家庭成员介绍 3分 拓展+书写 3分 按五个档次给分： A档(13~15分)：很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少，格式正确，书写规范。 B档(10~12分)：较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点，结构较为完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少，格式基本正确，书写较为规范。 C档(7~9分)：基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，格式基本正确，书写基本规范。 D档(4~6分)：未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。 E档(0~3分)：未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法和词汇错误很多，书写不规范。 七年级英语答案第4页(共4页) 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$