内容正文:
2024-2025学年八年级英语上学期第一次月考卷(山东济南专用)
(满分150分 考试用时120分钟)
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听力(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
A)听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A.My sister is taller than me this year.
B.My sister and I are both tall.
C.My sister was not as tall as me last year.
2.A.Lily doesn’t go shopping with her mother.
B.Lily goes shopping four times a month.
C.Lily goes swimming with her mother once a week.
3.Mr. Smith didn’t smoke in the past.
A. Mr. Smith has given up smoking.
C.Mr. Smith has never smoked.
4.A.She can’t play the guitar. B.He doesn’t wear a suit. C.They didn’t buy anything.
5.A.Jack is tall and thin. B.I watched a movie last night. C.Bob likes to eat hamburgers.
B)在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6.Which is Daming’s favourite subject?
A.Math. B.History. C.Physics.
7.How will the woman get to the train station?
A.On foot. B.By bus. C.By taxi.
8.What does Betty like doing in her free time?
A.Playing basketball. B.Listening to music. C.Playing the piano.
9.What did the girl do on the farm in the evening?
A.She did some reading. B.She listened to the radio. C.She watched the stars.
10.Where did Tom and his parents visit last Sunday?
A.Beijing. B.Shanghai. C.Wuhan.
C)在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11.How does Tim go to the park?
A.By bike. B.By bus. C.On foot.
12.How often does Tim go to the park?
A.Five times a week. B.Four times a week. C.Three times a week.
13.What does Tim’s father do?
A.A cook. B.A teacher. C.A dentist.
14.What day is it today?
A.Thursday. B.Friday. C.Saturday.
15.Who likes taking photos?
A.Tim. B.Jim. C.Mark.
D) 在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16.Where does Mr. White work?
A.In a school. B.In a hospital. C.In a bank.
17.What is Mr. White like?
A.He is quiet. B.He is friendly. C.He is funny.
18.When did Mr. White start to play the piano?
A.At eight. B.At ten. C.At twelve.
19.What did the young man do in his talent show?
A.He danced. B.He sang. C.He played the drums.
20.What prize did Mr. White win in the show?
A.A bike. B.A piano. C.A computer.
2、 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
同学们的暑假生活学习了哪些特色课程呢?阅读下列短文,选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案,帮Lingling和Daming参谋参谋吧!
The DIY ClubWould you like to make a birthday cake for your father by yourself? Come here and learn to make all kinds of things!
Time: 6:00—8:00 on Monday evening
9:00—11:00 on Friday morning
Who can join: people over fifteen years old
Where: Room 1206, Huijin Building
The Music ClubDo you like music? Can you sing songs? Come and join us!
Time: 6:00—8:00 on Tuesday evening
2:00—4:00 on Saturday afternoon
Who can join: people over twelve years old
Where: Room 5005, Wenhua Theater
The Swimming ClubAre you good at swimming? Come and make friends with someone who has the same hobby as you!
Time: 2:00—5:00 on Sunday afternoon
Who can join: people over ten years old
Where: City Gym
The Art ClubCan you draw pictures? If you’re interested in drawing, please join the Art Club!
Time: 4:00—5:00 on Wednesday afternoon
Who can join: children between eight and sixteen years old
Where: Room 2012, Mizhou Building
21.If Lingling wants to learn to make something, what club can she join?
A.The Art Club. B.The Music Club.
C.The Swimming Club. D.The DIY Club.
22.Lingling’s friend Harry goes to City Gym every Sunday afternoon. What is he good at?
A.Drawing. B.Hand making. C.Swimming. D.Singing.
23.Which club is open on Wednesday afternoon?
A.The Music Club. B.The Art Club.
C.The DIY Club. D.The Swimming Club.
24.Daming’s cousin is 11 years old, how many clubs can he join?
A.One. B.Two. C.Three. D.Four.
25.Which of the following is NOT true?
A.The Art Club is open twice (两次) a week.
B.Sixteen-year-old girl Diana can join the Music Club.
C.People under nine years old can’t join the Swimming Club.
D.The DIY Club is in Room 1206, Huijin Building.
B
One day Nick and his friend went out for a walk. On the way they saw a lot of people. They went up and had a look. Oh, dear!
What did they see? There was a donkey (驴) in the middle of the road. It would not move. The cars and buses could not get past.
Then a policeman came. “Whose donkey is this?” he asked. “It’s mine,” said a farmer, “but I can’t make it move.” The farmer and the policeman did their best to make the donkey go, but it did not move at all. Many people watched and laughed, but the drivers of the cars and buses were worried. “We can’t make the donkey go,” the farmer and the policeman said. “What shall we do?” “Give me some vegetables!” Nick said.
Nick showed the vegetables to the donkey. When the donkey saw the vegetables, it walked after Nick. All the cars and buses could go at last. “It’s a good idea, Nick,” said his friend.
26.Nick went out for a walk with his ________.
A.classmates B.friend C.father and mother D.sister
27.The donkey was ________.
A.in the middle of the road B.by the roadside
C.sleeping in the road D.sitting in the road
28.The farmer and the policeman tried hard to ________.
A.ride on the donkey B.kill the donkey
C.move the donkey D.eat the donkey
29.The donkey ________ at last.
A.ate grass B.died C.was angry D.walked
30.The donkey walked after Nick because ________.
A.it liked green B.it liked Nike
C.it wanted to eat the vegetables D.it was nervous
C
Children now usually sit all day and spend their time in front of the screens. That’s not good for their health and growth. They should play more sports because sports are fun and they are really important for children.
Firstly, playing sports helps children keep healthy. Many children today don’t get enough exercise. This is one of the reasons why they are becoming too heavy. Sports are a great way to get kids moving. If a kid likes soccer and takes part in soccer games just twice a week, he or she will be much stronger than those who never exercise at all.
Another benefit of playing sports is helping kids to accept failure(失败). Of course it is important to win a game, but if children lose a game, can they learn anything? So it’s also important for children to accept the failure. They will understand that they are not born winners, and then they can move on and go farther.
Playing a team sport also teaches children how to work together. Knowing how to work as a team is good for kids’ whole life. Team sports such as football and basketball help improve this skill(技能). Children can learn how to solve problems, and how to work together to make a common goal(目标) come true.
In short, sports are one of the key things for children to keep healthy both in body and in mind. Children must play more sports. It’s time to turn off the TV or computer, put down the cell phone and get them moving!
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31.Why do many children today become too heavy?
A.Because they like to eat junk food.
B.Because they get too little exercise.
C.Because they have bad sleep at night.
D.Because they have many problems in schoolwork.
32.What does the underlined word “benefit” mean in Chinese?
A.好处 B.机会 C.挑战 D.纪律
33.Which sport is good for learning teamwork skills according to(根据) the text?
A.Running. B.Swimming. C.Basketball. D.Tennis.
34.What can we know from the text?
A.It’s easier for children to accept loss.
B.It’s important to learn to work with others for children.
C.Playing sports can help children get better grades at school.
D.Playing sports is more important for children than for adults.
35.What is the best title for the text?
A.Sports Games B.How to Play Sports
C.Children and Sports D.Different Kinds of Sports
D
Everybody knows that cats like to sleep. They spend more than half their lives sleeping and enjoy every minute of it. Other animals have different sleeping habits, however. Horses may not look like they are asleep. But they are! Horses spend about six hours sleeping every day and they do it standing up!
Fish also sleep every day but they have a strange(奇怪的) habit. They don’t close their eyes when they are sleeping. When ducks sleep they keep one eye open and half of the brain awake. It helps them stay alert(警觉的) and watch out for dangerous animals.
So what about humans(人类)? Well, most people sleep for about a third of their lives. The number of hours you sleep, however, has to do with your age. Most newborn(新生的) babies sleep a lot. They spend about 75% of their time sleeping every day! As you get older, you need less sleep. Children need about eleven hours and adults sleep for eight hours every night.
So, yes, you spend many hours a year doing nothing-sleeping in bed!
But you’re not just asleep-you’re not really doing nothing. Your body and your mind relax during this time, but a lot of things happen during sleep. Dreams are one way that the mind relaxes after a busy day. A person spends about 20% of every night dreaming. That means yo have about four or five dreams every night or about 1,600 dreams a year.
36.From the passage we know that a horse ________.
A.sleeps with one eye open B.spends half of its life sleeping
C.keeps standing up when sleeping D.doesn’t close its eyes when sleeping
37.According to the passage, how long do most new born babies sleep one day?
A.For about 12 hours. B.For about 14 hours.
C.For about 16 hours. D.For about 18 hours.
38.Which animal sleeps with one eye open and half of the brain awake?
A. B. C. D.
39.What is the passage mainly about?
A.Sleeping animals. B.Ways to sleep well.
C.Something to know about sleep. D.How to keep healthy
40.Where does the passage probably come from?
A.An art book. B.A science book. C.A sports book D.A history book
3、 阅读理解七选五(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The students in the United States think that the long summer holiday can be a great time to learn or to do some new things. 41
Taking time out
The summer holiday can be a great time to do something for the next school year. You can have some time to think about your wish by yourself. 42
Being a volunteer (志愿者)
Are you thinking about helping others? The summer holiday gives you time to do something for them. 43 You can also make new friends when working as a volunteer.
Reading a lot
Don’t let your brain (大脑) get lazy. 44 Visit the library or bookstore and find books that are interesting for you. You can learn a lot from books.
Other things
Think about other things you wish to do. Write a book? Study English? Get a part-time job? 45
Now it’s time to talk to your parents about your holiday plan. Then have a great summer holiday!
A.Helping others can make you happy.
B.Make a trip to some interesting places?
C.That’s important for you.
D.Parents need to make holiday plans for their children.
E.You need to use your brain (大脑).
F.Here are some ways for you to plan an interesting summer holiday.
G.It’s lucky of you to help others on weekdays.
四、补全对话(5分)
阅读对话,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: Wow, so nice music! Cindy, I didn’t know you could play the violin.
B: You didn’t?
A: No.
B: I started to learn the violin when I was ten.
A: Not so young, huh?
B: Because of a CD.It was my 10th birthday gift from my uncle. I loved the violin music in it so much and began learning to play the violin.
A: You are playing so beautifully!
B: I practice every day.
A: You are great! It’s really difficult to keep practicing every day.
B: I don’t have much time for fun. Sometimes I just want to stop practicing. But my mom says I can play ball games with friends on weekends if I practice the violin every day.
A:
B: Haha, moms are always smarter than kids!
46.A.Where did you buy it? B.When did you start to learn it?
C.What did you like to listen to? D.Why did you help me with it?
47.A.Why do you learn the violin? B.Who teaches you chess?
C.How do you learn to play? D.How many CDs do you have?
48.A.Why not play games? B.How often do you practice?
C.What music do you play? D.How much is your violin?
49.A.No problem. B.That’s true.
C.I don’t know. D.I disagree.
50.A.What a famous teacher! B.How well your mom cooks!
C.How smart your mom is! D.What bad news!
五、完形填空 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。
Sophie was a ten-year-old girl. She loved 51 . She drew before breakfast. She drew after breakfast. Sometimes she even drew on her way to 52 .
One day Sophie arrived 53 at school. “Why are you late, Sophie?” asked her teacher. “I’m sorry, Miss. I was drawing a big house on the way to school. I forgot about the class.”
“Oh, Sophie,” said her teacher. “You must think 54 about your drawing and more about school. Can you give me your 55 now please?”
“I’m sorry, Miss, I don’t have it finished.”
“ 56 not, Sophie?”
“Yesterday I was in town. I saw a 57 running down the road. He had a handsome face so I drew him.” The teacher gave Sophie a strange look. “But Sophie, there was a 58 robbery (抢劫案) in town yesterday...”
“Maybe that was the man I 59 ,” said Sophie. “Maybe I have drawn a picture of the robber!”
After school, Sophie went to the police station. She 60 her picture to a policeman.
“Where did you 61 this picture?” asked the policeman. “I drew it,” said Sophie. “I drew it yesterday in 62 .” “This is a picture of Ronnie, the Robber,” said the policeman. “So Ronnie robbed the bank! Thank you, Sophie. Now we can 63 him.”
A week later, the policeman wrote a letter to Sophie’s school. “Sophie’s drawing helped us catch Ronnie, the Robber,” he said. “She is a very 64 girl.”
Now her teachers were very fond of Sophie, the girl who loves to 65 .
51.A.math B.art C.music D.writing
52.A.home B.park C.library D.school
53.A.late B.early C.happily D.sadly
54.A.little B.much C.less D.more
55.A.homework B.picture C.schoolbag D.notebook
56.A.How B.Why C.What D.When
57.A.banker B.robber C.man D.policeman
58.A.bus B.shop C.bank D.street
59.A.saw B.heard C.lost D.stopped
60.A.bought B.showed C.drew D.sold
61.A.draw B.buy C.get D.borrow
62.A.table B.school C.city D.town
63.A.ask B.telephone C.catch D.visit
64.A.clever B.outgoing C.hardworking D.lazy
65.A.paint B.play C.help D.draw
六、阅读填空 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
We have been in Australia for three years. We’re having 66 (冠词) good time here. Australia is the sixth 67 (large) country in the world. There is so much to see that it is 68 (possible) for me to tell you everything. Sydney is a beautiful city. There are many big trees and beautiful flowers around the houses and they look 69 (real) beautiful. There are also some special animals in Australia, such as kangaroos and koalas. They are so interesting.
During the past three days, we’ve visited many 70 (place) of interest around Sydney. I’d like to spend more time here. 71 (连词) we will fly to another city, Cairns, to see coral beds(珊瑚礁) tomorrow. It is said that words cannot describe the beauty of the colourful corals. Many famous cartoon films were made there. So the city is famous 72 (介词) films. Now we are busy packing our bags so that we will not 73 (lose) time when we leave. We can enjoy 74 (we) in Cairns this time tomorrow. I’m looking forward to 75 (go) there!
七、书面表达(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 情境运用(10分)
根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.
—What did you buy for your mother?
— .
77.
— ?
—Three times a week.
78.
—Does Lisa ride as fast as Tom?
—No, .
79.
— ?
—Sun Cinema. It has the biggest screen.
80.
— ?
—I can’t stand them. They are boring.
第2节 写作(25分)
假设你是Mary,从西安来成都上学一年后,你给西安的朋友Jenny写信介绍这一年在成都的生活。写作要点如下:
1. 你长高了许多,瘦了一点,因为你每周游泳2-3次。
2. 你更加友好、外向:而且尝试和许多与你不同的人交朋友。
3. 你喜欢看talk shows,你认为他们很精彩,你喜欢弄清楚不同的人对一个主题的看法。你的朋友喜欢soap operas,因为他/她喜欢跟着故事情节看看下一步会发生什么事。
4. 上周你去Town Cinema看了场电影,你很喜欢那里。因为:1……;2……;
注意:
1. 短文应包含要求的所有信息。
2. 书信的格式正确。
3. 文章应结构完整、语句通顺、句式多样。
4. 文中不能出现真实的人名信息。
5. 词数100词左右。
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2024-2025学年八年级英语上学期第一次月考卷(山东济南专用)
(满分150分 考试用时120分钟)
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听力(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
A)听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A.My sister is taller than me this year.
B.My sister and I are both tall.
C.My sister was not as tall as me last year.
2.A.Lily doesn’t go shopping with her mother.
B.Lily goes shopping four times a month.
C.Lily goes swimming with her mother once a week.
3.Mr. Smith didn’t smoke in the past.
A. Mr. Smith has given up smoking.
C.Mr. Smith has never smoked.
4. A.She can’t play the guitar. B.He doesn’t wear a suit. C.They didn’t buy anything.
5. A.Jack is tall and thin. B.I watched a movie last night. C.Bob likes to eat hamburgers.
B)在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6.Which is Daming’s favourite subject?
A.Math. B.History. C.Physics.
7.How will the woman get to the train station?
A.On foot. B.By bus. C.By taxi.
8.What does Betty like doing in her free time?
A.Playing basketball. B.Listening to music. C.Playing the piano.
9.What did the girl do on the farm in the evening?
A.She did some reading. B.She listened to the radio. C.She watched the stars.
10.Where did Tom and his parents visit last Sunday?
A.Beijing. B.Shanghai. C.Wuhan.
C)在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11.How does Tim go to the park?
A.By bike. B.By bus. C.On foot.
12.How often does Tim go to the park?
A.Five times a week. B.Four times a week. C.Three times a week.
13.What does Tim’s father do?
A.A cook. B.A teacher. C.A dentist.
14.What day is it today?
A.Thursday. B.Friday. C.Saturday.
15.Who likes taking photos?
A.Tim. B.Jim. C.Mark.
D) 在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16.Where does Mr. White work?
A.In a school. B.In a hospital. C.In a bank.
17.What is Mr. White like?
A.He is quiet. B.He is friendly. C.He is funny.
18.When did Mr. White start to play the piano?
A.At eight. B.At ten. C.At twelve.
19.What did the young man do in his talent show?
A.He danced. B.He sang. C.He played the drums.
20.What prize did Mr. White win in the show?
A.A bike. B.A piano. C.A computer.
2、 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
同学们的暑假生活学习了哪些特色课程呢?阅读下列短文,选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案,帮Lingling和Daming参谋参谋吧!
The DIY ClubWould you like to make a birthday cake for your father by yourself? Come here and learn to make all kinds of things!
Time: 6:00—8:00 on Monday evening
9:00—11:00 on Friday morning
Who can join: people over fifteen years old
Where: Room 1206, Huijin Building
The Music ClubDo you like music? Can you sing songs? Come and join us!
Time: 6:00—8:00 on Tuesday evening
2:00—4:00 on Saturday afternoon
Who can join: people over twelve years old
Where: Room 5005, Wenhua Theater
The Swimming ClubAre you good at swimming? Come and make friends with someone who has the same hobby as you!
Time: 2:00—5:00 on Sunday afternoon
Who can join: people over ten years old
Where: City Gym
The Art ClubCan you draw pictures? If you’re interested in drawing, please join the Art Club!
Time: 4:00—5:00 on Wednesday afternoon
Who can join: children between eight and sixteen years old
Where: Room 2012, Mizhou Building
21.If Lingling wants to learn to make something, what club can she join?
A.The Art Club. B.The Music Club.
C.The Swimming Club. D.The DIY Club.
22.Lingling’s friend Harry goes to City Gym every Sunday afternoon. What is he good at?
A.Drawing. B.Hand making. C.Swimming. D.Singing.
23.Which club is open on Wednesday afternoon?
A.The Music Club. B.The Art Club.
C.The DIY Club. D.The Swimming Club.
24.Daming’s cousin is 11 years old, how many clubs can he join?
A.One. B.Two. C.Three. D.Four.
25.Which of the following is NOT true?
A.The Art Club is open twice (两次) a week.
B.Sixteen-year-old girl Diana can join the Music Club.
C.People under nine years old can’t join the Swimming Club.
D.The DIY Club is in Room 1206, Huijin Building.
B
One day Nick and his friend went out for a walk. On the way they saw a lot of people. They went up and had a look. Oh, dear!
What did they see? There was a donkey (驴) in the middle of the road. It would not move. The cars and buses could not get past.
Then a policeman came. “Whose donkey is this?” he asked. “It’s mine,” said a farmer, “but I can’t make it move.” The farmer and the policeman did their best to make the donkey go, but it did not move at all. Many people watched and laughed, but the drivers of the cars and buses were worried. “We can’t make the donkey go,” the farmer and the policeman said. “What shall we do?” “Give me some vegetables!” Nick said.
Nick showed the vegetables to the donkey. When the donkey saw the vegetables, it walked after Nick. All the cars and buses could go at last. “It’s a good idea, Nick,” said his friend.
26.Nick went out for a walk with his ________.
A.classmates B.friend C.father and mother D.sister
27.The donkey was ________.
A.in the middle of the road B.by the roadside
C.sleeping in the road D.sitting in the road
28.The farmer and the policeman tried hard to ________.
A.ride on the donkey B.kill the donkey
C.move the donkey D.eat the donkey
29.The donkey ________ at last.
A.ate grass B.died C.was angry D.walked
30.The donkey walked after Nick because ________.
A.it liked green B.it liked Nike
C.it wanted to eat the vegetables D.it was nervous
C
Children now usually sit all day and spend their time in front of the screens. That’s not good for their health and growth. They should play more sports because sports are fun and they are really important for children.
Firstly, playing sports helps children keep healthy. Many children today don’t get enough exercise. This is one of the reasons why they are becoming too heavy. Sports are a great way to get kids moving. If a kid likes soccer and takes part in soccer games just twice a week, he or she will be much stronger than those who never exercise at all.
Another benefit of playing sports is helping kids to accept failure(失败). Of course it is important to win a game, but if children lose a game, can they learn anything? So it’s also important for children to accept the failure. They will understand that they are not born winners, and then they can move on and go farther.
Playing a team sport also teaches children how to work together. Knowing how to work as a team is good for kids’ whole life. Team sports such as football and basketball help improve this skill(技能). Children can learn how to solve problems, and how to work together to make a common goal(目标) come true.
In short, sports are one of the key things for children to keep healthy both in body and in mind. Children must play more sports. It’s time to turn off the TV or computer, put down the cell phone and get them moving!
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31.Why do many children today become too heavy?
A.Because they like to eat junk food.
B.Because they get too little exercise.
C.Because they have bad sleep at night.
D.Because they have many problems in schoolwork.
32.What does the underlined word “benefit” mean in Chinese?
A.好处 B.机会 C.挑战 D.纪律
33.Which sport is good for learning teamwork skills according to(根据) the text?
A.Running. B.Swimming. C.Basketball. D.Tennis.
34.What can we know from the text?
A.It’s easier for children to accept loss.
B.It’s important to learn to work with others for children.
C.Playing sports can help children get better grades at school.
D.Playing sports is more important for children than for adults.
35.What is the best title for the text?
A.Sports Games B.How to Play Sports
C.Children and Sports D.Different Kinds of Sports
D
Everybody knows that cats like to sleep. They spend more than half their lives sleeping and enjoy every minute of it. Other animals have different sleeping habits, however. Horses may not look like they are asleep. But they are! Horses spend about six hours sleeping every day and they do it standing up!
Fish also sleep every day but they have a strange(奇怪的) habit. They don’t close their eyes when they are sleeping. When ducks sleep they keep one eye open and half of the brain awake. It helps them stay alert(警觉的) and watch out for dangerous animals.
So what about humans(人类)? Well, most people sleep for about a third of their lives. The number of hours you sleep, however, has to do with your age. Most newborn(新生的) babies sleep a lot. They spend about 75% of their time sleeping every day! As you get older, you need less sleep. Children need about eleven hours and adults sleep for eight hours every night.
So, yes, you spend many hours a year doing nothing-sleeping in bed!
But you’re not just asleep-you’re not really doing nothing. Your body and your mind relax during this time, but a lot of things happen during sleep. Dreams are one way that the mind relaxes after a busy day. A person spends about 20% of every night dreaming. That means yo have about four or five dreams every night or about 1,600 dreams a year.
36.From the passage we know that a horse ________.
A.sleeps with one eye open B.spends half of its life sleeping
C.keeps standing up when sleeping D.doesn’t close its eyes when sleeping
37.According to the passage, how long do most new born babies sleep one day?
A.For about 12 hours. B.For about 14 hours.
C.For about 16 hours. D.For about 18 hours.
38.Which animal sleeps with one eye open and half of the brain awake?
A. B. C. D.
39.What is the passage mainly about?
A.Sleeping animals. B.Ways to sleep well.
C.Something to know about sleep. D.How to keep healthy
40.Where does the passage probably come from?
A.An art book. B.A science book. C.A sports book D.A history book
3、 阅读理解七选五(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The students in the United States think that the long summer holiday can be a great time to learn or to do some new things. 41
Taking time out
The summer holiday can be a great time to do something for the next school year. You can have some time to think about your wish by yourself. 42
Being a volunteer (志愿者)
Are you thinking about helping others? The summer holiday gives you time to do something for them. 43 You can also make new friends when working as a volunteer.
Reading a lot
Don’t let your brain (大脑) get lazy. 44 Visit the library or bookstore and find books that are interesting for you. You can learn a lot from books.
Other things
Think about other things you wish to do. Write a book? Study English? Get a part-time job? 45
Now it’s time to talk to your parents about your holiday plan. Then have a great summer holiday!
A.Helping others can make you happy.
B.Make a trip to some interesting places?
C.That’s important for you.
D.Parents need to make holiday plans for their children.
E.You need to use your brain (大脑).
F.Here are some ways for you to plan an interesting summer holiday.
G.It’s lucky of you to help others on weekdays.
四、补全对话 (5分)
阅读对话,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: Wow, so nice music! Cindy, I didn’t know you could play the violin.
B: You didn’t?
A: No.
B: I started to learn the violin when I was ten.
A: Not so young, huh?
B: Because of a CD.It was my 10th birthday gift from my uncle. I loved the violin music in it so much and began learning to play the violin.
A: You are playing so beautifully!
B: I practice every day.
A: You are great! It’s really difficult to keep practicing every day.
B: I don’t have much time for fun. Sometimes I just want to stop practicing. But my mom says I can play ball games with friends on weekends if I practice the violin every day.
A:
B: Haha, moms are always smarter than kids!
46.A.Where did you buy it? B.When did you start to learn it?
C.What did you like to listen to? D.Why did you help me with it?
47.A.Why do you learn the violin? B.Who teaches you chess?
C.How do you learn to play? D.How many CDs do you have?
48.A.Why not play games? B.How often do you practice?
C.What music do you play? D.How much is your violin?
49.A.No problem. B.That’s true.
C.I don’t know. D.I disagree.
50.A.What a famous teacher! B.How well your mom cooks!
C.How smart your mom is! D.What bad news!
五、完形填空 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。
Sophie was a ten-year-old girl. She loved 51 . She drew before breakfast. She drew after breakfast. Sometimes she even drew on her way to 52 .
One day Sophie arrived 53 at school. “Why are you late, Sophie?” asked her teacher. “I’m sorry, Miss. I was drawing a big house on the way to school. I forgot about the class.”
“Oh, Sophie,” said her teacher. “You must think 54 about your drawing and more about school. Can you give me your 55 now please?”
“I’m sorry, Miss, I don’t have it finished.”
“ 56 not, Sophie?”
“Yesterday I was in town. I saw a 57 running down the road. He had a handsome face so I drew him.” The teacher gave Sophie a strange look. “But Sophie, there was a 58 robbery (抢劫案) in town yesterday...”
“Maybe that was the man I 59 ,” said Sophie. “Maybe I have drawn a picture of the robber!”
After school, Sophie went to the police station. She 60 her picture to a policeman.
“Where did you 61 this picture?” asked the policeman. “I drew it,” said Sophie. “I drew it yesterday in 62 .” “This is a picture of Ronnie, the Robber,” said the policeman. “So Ronnie robbed the bank! Thank you, Sophie. Now we can 63 him.”
A week later, the policeman wrote a letter to Sophie’s school. “Sophie’s drawing helped us catch Ronnie, the Robber,” he said. “She is a very 64 girl.”
Now her teachers were very fond of Sophie, the girl who loves to 65 .
51.A.math B.art C.music D.writing
52.A.home B.park C.library D.school
53.A.late B.early C.happily D.sadly
54.A.little B.much C.less D.more
55.A.homework B.picture C.schoolbag D.notebook
56.A.How B.Why C.What D.When
57.A.banker B.robber C.man D.policeman
58.A.bus B.shop C.bank D.street
59.A.saw B.heard C.lost D.stopped
60.A.bought B.showed C.drew D.sold
61.A.draw B.buy C.get D.borrow
62.A.table B.school C.city D.town
63.A.ask B.telephone C.catch D.visit
64.A.clever B.outgoing C.hardworking D.lazy
65.A.paint B.play C.help D.draw
六、阅读填空 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
We have been in Australia for three years. We’re having 66 (冠词) good time here. Australia is the sixth 67 (large) country in the world. There is so much to see that it is 68 (possible) for me to tell you everything. Sydney is a beautiful city. There are many big trees and beautiful flowers around the houses and they look 69 (real) beautiful. There are also some special animals in Australia, such as kangaroos and koalas. They are so interesting.
During the past three days, we’ve visited many 70 (place) of interest around Sydney. I’d like to spend more time here. 71 (连词) we will fly to another city, Cairns, to see coral beds(珊瑚礁) tomorrow. It is said that words cannot describe the beauty of the colourful corals. Many famous cartoon films were made there. So the city is famous 72 (介词) films. Now we are busy packing our bags so that we will not 73 (lose) time when we leave. We can enjoy 74 (we) in Cairns this time tomorrow. I’m looking forward to 75 (go) there!
七、书面表达(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 情境运用
根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.
—What did you buy for your mother?
— .
77.
— ?
—Three times a week.
78.
—Does Lisa ride as fast as Tom?
—No, .
79.
— ?
—Sun Cinema. It has the biggest screen.
80.
— ?
—I can’t stand them. They are boring.
第2节 写作(25分)
假设你是Mary,从西安来成都上学一年后,你给西安的朋友Jenny写信介绍这一年在成都的生活。写作要点如下:
1. 你长高了许多,瘦了一点,因为你每周游泳2—3次。
2. 你更加友好、外向:而且尝试和许多与你不同的人交朋友。
3. 你喜欢看talk shows,你认为他们很精彩,你喜欢弄清楚不同的人对一个主题的看法。你的朋友喜欢soap operas,因为他/她喜欢跟着故事情节看看下一步会发生什么事。
4. 上周你去Town Cinema看了场电影,你很喜欢那里。因为:1……;2……;
注意:
1. 短文应包含要求的所有信息。
2. 书信的格式正确。
3. 文章应结构完整、语句通顺、句式多样。
4. 文中不能出现真实的人名信息。
5. 词数100词左右。
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2024-2025学年八年级英语上学期第一次月考卷(山东济南专用)
(满分150分。考试用时120分钟)
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听力(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
A)听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A.My sister is taller than me this year.
B.My sister and I are both tall.
C.My sister was not as tall as me last year.
【答案】C
【原文】My sister is as tall as me this year.
2.A.Lily doesn’t go shopping with her mother.
B.Lily goes shopping four times a month.
C.Lily goes swimming with her mother once a week.
【答案】B
【原文】Lily goes shopping with her mother once a week.
3.Mr. Smith didn’t smoke in the past.
A. Mr. Smith has given up smoking.
C.Mr. Smith has never smoked.
【答案】B
【详解】Mr Smith doesn’t smoke any more.
4. A.She can’t play the guitar. B.He doesn’t wear a suit. C.They didn’t buy anything.
【答案】A
【原文】She can’t play the guitar.
5. A.Jack is tall and thin. B.I watched a movie last night. C.Bob likes to eat hamburgers.
【答案】B
【原文】
I watched a movie last night.
B)在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6.Which is Daming’s favourite subject?
A.Math. B.History. C.Physics.
【答案】A
【原文】M: Which subject do you like best, Helen?
W: I like history best, because it’s interesting. What about you, Daming?
M: My favorite subject is math. And I’m good at it.
7.How will the woman get to the train station?
A.On foot. B.By bus. C.By taxi.
【答案】C
【原文】W: How can I get to the train station?
M: You can take a taxi.
W: Okay, thank you.
8.What does Betty like doing in her free time?
A.Playing basketball. B.Listening to music. C.Playing the piano.
【答案】B
【原文】M: What do you like doing in your free time, Betty?
W: I like listening to music.
9.What did the girl do on the farm in the evening?
A.She did some reading. B.She listened to the radio. C.She watched the stars.
【答案】A
【原文】M: Did you have a good time on the farm?
W: Yes, I did. The only problem was that there was nothing much to do but read in the evening.
10.Where did Tom and his parents visit last Sunday?
A.Beijing. B.Shanghai. C.Wuhan.
【答案】A
【原文】W: Where did you go last Sunday, Tom?
M: I visited Beijing with my parents.
C)在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11.How does Tim go to the park?
A.By bike. B.By bus. C.On foot.
12.How often does Tim go to the park?
A.Five times a week. B.Four times a week. C.Three times a week.
13.What does Tim’s father do?
A.A cook. B.A teacher. C.A dentist.
14.What day is it today?
A.Thursday. B.Friday. C.Saturday.
15.Who likes taking photos?
A.Tim. B.Jim. C.Mark.
【答案】11.C 12.A 13.C 14.B 15.B
【原文】W: Oh, how beautiful this park is! So many people are here.
M: Yes, Alice. My home is not far from here so I often come here.
W: Do you ride your bike here, Tim?
M: No, I walk here. It usually takes me about ten minutes.
W: What do you do in the park?
M: On Monday and Wednesday, I play basketball. On Tuesday and Thursday, I play soccer. On Saturday, I go fishing with my father.
W: Is your father free on Saturday?
M: Yes. He is a dentist. He doesn’t go to work on Saturday.
W: Can I go fishing with you tomorrow?
M: Sure. Look! Mark is taking photos there.
W: No, he isn’t Mark. He is Jim. Mark is taller and thinner than Jim.
M: Oh, I remember. Jim likes taking photos. Mark likes drawing pictures.
D) 在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16.Where does Mr. White work?
A.In a school. B.In a hospital. C.In a bank.
17.What is Mr. White like?
A.He is quiet. B.He is friendly. C.He is funny.
18.When did Mr. White start to play the piano?
A.At eight. B.At ten. C.At twelve.
19.What did the young man do in his talent show?
A.He danced. B.He sang. C.He played the drums.
20.What prize did Mr. White win in the show?
A.A bike. B.A piano. C.A computer.
【答案】16.A 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.C
【原文】
Mr. White is a 45-year-old man. He is short and heavy. He is a middle school teacher. And he teaches music. He is friendly, and all of his students like his classes. In his free time, Mr. White likes to play the piano. He started to play it when he was 12 years old. Mr. White is really good at it. Last month, Mr. White watched a talent show on TV and saw many talented people. In the show, a young man danced well and many people liked him. Then Mr. White planned to join the show and he did it. In the show, Mr. White played the piano very well and he won a computer as a prize. All of his students felt happy for him.
2、 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
同学们的暑假生活学习了哪些特色课程呢?阅读下列短文,选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案,帮Lingling和Daming参谋参谋吧!
The DIY Club.
Would you like to make a birthday cake for your father by yourself? Come here and learn to make all kinds of things!
Time: 6:00—8:00 on Monday evening
9:00—11:00 on Friday morning
Who can join: people over fifteen years old
Where: Room 1206, Huijin Building
The Music Club.
Do you like music? Can you sing songs? Come and join us!
Time: 6:00—8:00 on Tuesday evening
2:00—4:00 on Saturday afternoon
Who can join: people over twelve years old
Where: Room 5005, Wenhua Theater
The Swimming Club.
Are you good at swimming? Come and make friends with someone who has the same hobby as you!
Time: 2:00—5:00 on Sunday afternoon
Who can join: people over ten years old
Where: City Gym
The Art Club.
Can you draw pictures? If you’re interested in drawing, please join the Art Club!
Time: 4:00—5:00 on Wednesday afternoon
Who can join: children between eight and sixteen years old
Where: Room 2012, Mizhou Building
21.If Lingling wants to learn to make something, what club can she join?
A.The Art Club. B.The Music Club.
C.The Swimming Club. D.The DIY Club.
22.Lingling’s friend Harry goes to City Gym every Sunday afternoon. What is he good at?
A.Drawing. B.Hand making. C.Swimming. D.Singing.
23.Which club is open on Wednesday afternoon?
A.The Music Club. B.The Art Club.
C.The DIY Club. D.The Swimming Club.
24.Daming’s cousin is 11 years old, how many clubs can he join?
A.One. B.Two. C.Three. D.Four.
25.Which of the following is NOT true?
A.The Art Club is open twice (两次) a week.
B.Sixteen-year-old girl Diana can join the Music Club.
C.People under nine years old can’t join the Swimming Club.
D.The DIY Club is in Room 1206, Huijin Building.
【答案】21.D 22.C 23.B 24.B 25.A
【导语】本文是一篇应用文。主要介绍了四个俱乐部的功能,开放时间,适用人群以及位置。
21.细节理解题。根据“Come here and learn to make all kinds of things!”可知在The DIY Club你可以学会制作各种各样的东西。故选D。
22.细节理解题。根据“City Gym”将答案定位到“The Swimming Club”,根据“Are you good at swimming”可知,游泳俱乐部的人都擅长游泳。故选C。
23.细节理解题。根据四个方框中的“Time:”一栏可知,The DIY Club开放时间为:周一晚上6点—8点和周五早上9点到11点,The Music Club开放时间为周六下午2点—4点和周二晚上6点到8点,The Swimming Club开放时间为周日下午2点—5点,The Art Club开放时间为周三下午4点到5点,因此周三下午可以去美术俱乐部。故选B。
24.细节理解题。根据四个方框中的“Who can join”一栏可知,The DIY Club欢迎15岁以上的人,The Music Club欢迎12岁以上的人,The Swimming Club欢迎10岁以上的人,The Art Club欢迎8—16岁的孩子,因此11岁的Daming可以加入游泳和艺术俱乐部。故选B。
25.细节理解题。根据“The Art Club…Time: 4:00—5:00 on Wednesday afternoon”可知,The Art Club是每周三下午四点到五点,一周只有一次课,不是两次课。故选A。
B
One day Nick and his friend went out for a walk. On the way they saw a lot of people. They went up and had a look. Oh, dear!
What did they see? There was a donkey (驴) in the middle of the road. It would not move. The cars and buses could not get past.
Then a policeman came. “Whose donkey is this?” he asked. “It’s mine,” said a farmer, “but I can’t make it move.” The farmer and the policeman did their best to make the donkey go, but it did not move at all. Many people watched and laughed, but the drivers of the cars and buses were worried. “We can’t make the donkey go,” the farmer and the policeman said. “What shall we do?” “Give me some vegetables!” Nick said.
Nick showed the vegetables to the donkey. When the donkey saw the vegetables, it walked after Nick. All the cars and buses could go at last. “It’s a good idea, Nick,” said his friend.
26.Nick went out for a walk with his ________.
A.classmates B.friend C.father and mother D.sister
27.The donkey was ________.
A.in the middle of the road B.by the roadside
C.sleeping in the road D.sitting in the road
28.The farmer and the policeman tried hard to ________.
A.ride on the donkey B.kill the donkey
C.move the donkey D.eat the donkey
29.The donkey ________ at last.
A.ate grass B.died C.was angry D.walked
30.The donkey walked after Nick because ________.
A.it liked green B.it liked Nike
C.it wanted to eat the vegetables D.it was nervous
【答案】26.B 27.A 28.C 29.D 30.C
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲了尼克和朋友出去散步的时候,发现路上有一头驴,堵塞交通,警察和农夫都没办法,最后尼克用蔬菜把驴弄走了。
26.细节理解题。根据第一段中的“One day Nick and his friend went out for a walk.”可知,尼克和他的朋友出去散步。故选B。
27.细节理解题。根据第二段中的“There was a donkey (驴) in the middle of the road.”可知,这头驴在路中间。故选A。
28.细节理解题。根据第三段中的“The farmer and the policeman did their best to make the donkey go, but it did not move at all.”可知,农夫和警察尽力让驴子走,但它一点也不动。故选C。
29.细节理解题。根据最后一段中的“When the donkey saw the vegetables, it walked after Nick.”可知,最后,这头驴走了。故选D。
30.推理判断题。根据“Nick showed the vegetables to the donkey. When the donkey saw the vegetables, it walked after Nick.”可知,驴跟在尼克后面,因为它想吃蔬菜。故选C。
C
Children now usually sit all day and spend their time in front of the screens. That’s not good for their health and growth. They should play more sports because sports are fun and they are really important for children.
Firstly, playing sports helps children keep healthy. Many children today don’t get enough exercise. This is one of the reasons why they are becoming too heavy. Sports is a great way to get kids moving. If a kid likes soccer and takes part in soccer games just twice a week, he or she will be much stronger than those who never exercise at all.
Another benefit of playing sports is helping kids to accept failure(失败). Of course it is important to win a game, but if children lose a game, can they learn anything? So it’s also important for children to accept the failure. They will understand that they are not born winners, and then they can move on and go farther.
Playing a team sport also teaches children how to work together. Knowing how to work as a team is good for kids’ whole life. Team sports such as football and basketball help improve this skill(技能). Children can learn how to solve problems, and how to work together to make a common goal(目标) come true.
In short, sports are one of the key things for children to keep healthy both in body and in mind. Children must play more sports. It’s time to turn off the TV or computer, put down the cell phone and get them moving!
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31.Why do many children today become too heavy?
A.Because they like to eat junk food.
B.Because they get too little exercise.
C.Because they have bad sleep at night.
D.Because they have many problems in schoolwork.
32.What does the underlined word “benefit” mean in Chinese?
A.好处 B.机会 C.挑战 D.纪律
33.Which sport is good for learning teamwork skills according to(根据) the text?
A.Running. B.Swimming. C.Basketball. D.Tennis.
34.What can we know from the text?
A.It’s easier for children to accept loss.
B.It’s important to learn to work with others for children.
C.Playing sports can help children get better grades at school.
D.Playing sports is more important for children than for adults.
35.What is the best title for the text?
A.Sports Games B.How to Play Sports
C.Children and Sports D.Different Kinds of Sports
【答案】31.B 32.A 33.C 34.B 35.C
【导语】本文讲述了目前孩子们由于长时间坐着出现了很多问题,因此建议孩子们多运动,并给出运动的很多好处。
31.细节理解题。根据“Many children today don’t get enough exercise. This is one of the reasons why they are becoming too heavy.”可知,缺乏锻炼是孩子们变重的一个原因。故选B。
32.词义猜测题。根据上文“Firstly, playing sports helps children keep healthy.”及“Another benefit of playing sports is helping kids to accept failure(失败).”可知,此处也是讲好处的,所以此处划线单词的意思是“好处,益处”,故选A。
33.细节理解题。根据“Team sports such as football and basketball help improve this skill(技能).”可知,像足球和篮球这样的团队运动有助于孩子们学会团队合作。故选C。
34.推理判断题。根据“Children can learn how to solve problems, and how to work together to make a common goal(目标) come true.”可知,对孩子们来说,学会与他人合作是很重要的。故选B。
35.最佳标题题。根据“In short, sports are one of the key things for children to keep healthy both in body and in mind.”及全文可知,全文讲述了目前孩子们由于长时间坐着出现了很多问题,因此建议孩子们多运动,并给出运动的很多好处,因此C选项“孩子们和运动”符合短文主旨,故选C。
D
Everybody knows that cats like to sleep. They spend more than half their lives sleeping and enjoy every minute of it. Other animals have different sleeping habits, however. Horses may not look like they are asleep. But they are! Horses spend about six hours sleeping every day and they do it standing up!
Fish also sleep every day but they have a strange(奇怪的) habit. They don’t close their eyes when they are sleeping. When ducks sleep they keep one eye open and half of the brain awake. It helps them stay alert(警觉的) and watch out for dangerous animals.
So what about humans(人类)? Well, most people sleep for about a third of their lives. The number of hours you sleep, however, has to do with your age. Most newborn(新生的) babies sleep a lot. They spend about 75% of their time sleeping every day! As you get older, you need less sleep. Children need about eleven hours and adults sleep for eight hours every night.
So, yes, you spend many hours a year doing nothing-sleeping in bed!
But you’re not just asleep-you’re not really doing nothing. Your body and your mind relax during this time, but a lot of things happen during sleep. Dreams are one way that the mind relaxes after a busy day. A person spends about 20% of every night dreaming. That means yo have about four or five dreams every night or about 1,600 dreams a year.
36.From the passage we know that a horse ________.
A.sleeps with one eye open B.spends half of its life sleeping
C.keeps standing up when sleeping D.doesn’t close its eyes when sleeping
37.According to the passage, how long do most new born babies sleep one day?
A.For about 12 hours. B.For about 14 hours.
C.For about 16 hours. D.For about 18 hours.
38.Which animal sleeps with one eye open and half of the brain awake?
A. B. C. D.
39.What is the passage mainly about?
A.Sleeping animals. B.Ways to sleep well.
C.Something to know about sleep. D.How to keep healthy
40.Where does the passage probably come from?
A.An art book. B.A science book. C.A sports book D.A history book
【答案】36.C 37.D 38.A 39.C 40.B
【导语】本文是一篇说明文,主要介绍了不同动物的睡眠方式和时间、人的睡眠时间以及人体各部分在睡眠中的活动。
36.细节理解题。根据“Horses spend about six hours sleeping every day and they do it standing up!”可知,马睡觉的时候是站立着的。故选C。
37.细节理解题。根据“They spend about 75% of their time sleeping every day! ”可知,人类幼崽花费75%的时间睡觉,一天是24小时,因此是18小时。故选D。
38.细节理解题。根据“When ducks sleep they keep one eye open and half of the brain awake.”可知,睡觉时保持一只眼睛睁着和一半脑子醒着的是鸭子。故选A。
39.主旨大意题。本文主要介绍了不同动物的睡眠方式和时间、人的睡眠时间以及人体各部分在睡眠中的活动,全文都是围绕睡眠的。故选C。
40.推理判断题。本文主要介绍了不同动物的睡眠方式和时间、人的睡眠时间以及人体各部分在睡眠中的活动,由此可以推测,本文来自于科学书。故选B。
3、 阅读理解七选五(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The students in the United States think that the long summer holiday can be a great time to learn or to do some new things. 41
Taking time out
The summer holiday can be a great time to do something for the next school year. You can have some time to think about your wish by yourself. 42
Being a volunteer (志愿者)
Are you thinking about helping others? The summer holiday gives you time to do something for them. 43 You can also make new friends when working as a volunteer.
Reading a lot
Don’t let your brain (大脑) get lazy. 44 Visit the library or bookstore and find books that are interesting for you. You can learn a lot from books.
Other things
Think about other things you wish to do. Write a book? Study English? Get a part-time job? 45
Now it’s time to talk to your parents about your holiday plan. Then have a great summer holiday!
A.Helping others can make you happy.
B.Make a trip to some interesting places?
C.That’s important for you.
D.Parents need to make holiday plans for their children.
E.You need to use your brain (大脑).
F.Here are some ways for you to plan an interesting summer holiday.
G.It’s lucky of you to help others on weekdays.
【答案】41.F 42.C 43.A 44.E 45.B
【导语】本文主要介绍了如何计划一个有趣的暑假。
41.根据“The students in the United States think that the long summer holiday can be a great time to learn or to do some new things. ”及下文的介绍可知,此处是总体指出有一些方法可以让假期变得有趣,下文介绍具体的方法,横线处内容承上启下,选项F“这里有一些方法可以让你计划一个有趣的暑假。”符合语境,故选F。
42.根据“The summer holiday can be a great time to do something for the next school year. You can have some time to think about your wish. ”可知,此处介绍暑假时间是为下一个学年作准备的好时机,此处应进一步论证为什么这么做,选项C“这对你很重要。”符合语境,故选C。
43.根据“The summer holiday gives you time to do something for them.”以及“You can also...”可知,此处介绍暑假时间可以帮助别人,横线后介绍了帮助他人的第二个好处,所以横线处应该介绍帮助他人的第一个好处,选项A“帮助别人可以让你快乐。”符合语境,故选A。
44.根据“Don’t let your brain(大脑) get lazy.”可知,不要让你的大脑懒惰,选项E“你需要让你的大脑运转起来。”符合语境,故选E。
45.根据“Think about other things you wish to do. Write a book? Study English? Get a part-time job?”可知,此处与前面是相同的疑问句,且说的是暑假心愿建议,选项B“去一些有趣的地方旅行?”符合语境,故选B。
四、补全对话(5分)
阅读对话,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: Wow, so nice music! Cindy, I didn’t know you could play the violin.
B: You didn’t?
A: No.
B: I started to learn the violin when I was ten.
A: Not so young, huh?
B: Because of a CD.It was my 10th birthday gift from my uncle. I loved the violin music in it so much and began learning to play the violin.
A: You are playing so beautifully!
B: I practice every day.
A: You are great! It’s really difficult to keep practicing every day.
B: I don’t have much time for fun. Sometimes I just want to stop practicing. But my mom says I can play ball games with friends on weekends if I practice the violin every day.
A:
B: Haha, moms are always smarter than kids!
46.A.Where did you buy it? B.When did you start to learn it?
C.What did you like to listen to? D.Why did you help me with it?
47.A.Why do you learn the violin? B.Who teaches you chess?
C.How do you learn to play? D.How many CDs do you have?
48.A.Why not play games? B.How often do you practice?
C.What music do you play? D.How much is your violin?
49.A.No problem. B.That’s true.
C.I don’t know. D.I disagree.
50.A.What a famous teacher! B.How well your mom cooks!
C.How smart your mom is! D.What bad news!
【答案】46.B 47.A 48.B 49.B 50.C
【导语】本文是A与Cindy的对话,对话中介绍了Cindy学小提琴的原因,时间以及练习的频率等。
46.根据“I started to learn the violin when I was ten.”可知设空处问了什么时候开始学习小提琴的。选项B“你什么时候开始学的?”符合语境。故选B。
47.根据“Because of a CD.”可知设空处问了为什么学习小提琴。选项A“你为什么学小提琴?”符合语境。故选A。
48.根据“I practice every day.”可知设空处问了练习的频率。选项B“你多久练习一次?”符合语境。故选B。
49.根据“It’s really difficult to keep practicing every day.”和“I don’t have much time for fun”可知,下文应对这个结论进行评价,且表示赞同。选项B“确实是的。”符合语境。故选B。
50.根据“But my mom says I can play ball games with friends on weekends if I practice the violin every day.”可知这里提到了妈妈用激励的方式鼓励练琴。选项C“你妈妈真聪明!”符合语境。故选C。
五、完形填空 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。
Sophie was a ten-year-old girl. She loved 51 . She drew before breakfast. She drew after breakfast. Sometimes she even drew on her way to 52 .
One day Sophie arrived 53 at school. “Why are you late, Sophie?” asked her teacher. “I’m sorry, Miss. I was drawing a big house on the way to school. I forgot about the class.”
“Oh, Sophie,” said her teacher. “You must think 54 about your drawing and more about school. Can you give me your 55 now please?”
“I’m sorry, Miss, I don’t have it finished.”
“ 56 not, Sophie?”
“Yesterday I was in town. I saw a 57 running down the road. He had a handsome face so I drew him.” The teacher gave Sophie a strange look. “But Sophie, there was a 58 robbery (抢劫案) in town yesterday...”
“Maybe that was the man I 59 ,” said Sophie. “Maybe I have drawn a picture of the robber!”
After school, Sophie went to the police station. She 60 her picture to a policeman.
“Where did you 61 this picture?” asked the policeman. “I drew it,” said Sophie. “I drew it yesterday in 62 .” “This is a picture of Ronnie, the Robber,” said the policeman. “So Ronnie robbed the bank! Thank you, Sophie. Now we can 63 him.”
A week later, the policeman wrote a letter to Sophie’s school. “Sophie’s drawing helped us catch Ronnie, the Robber,” he said. “She is a very 64 girl.”
Now her teachers were very fond of Sophie, the girl who loves to 65 .
51.A.math B.art C.music D.writing
52.A.home B.park C.library D.school
53.A.late B.early C.happily D.sadly
54.A.little B.much C.less D.more
55.A.homework B.picture C.schoolbag D.notebook
56.A.How B.Why C.What D.When
57.A.banker B.robber C.man D.policeman
58.A.bus B.shop C.bank D.street
59.A.saw B.heard C.lost D.stopped
60.A.bought B.showed C.drew D.sold
61.A.draw B.buy C.get D.borrow
62.A.table B.school C.city D.town
63.A.ask B.telephone C.catch D.visit
64.A.clever B.outgoing C.hardworking D.lazy
65.A.paint B.play C.help D.draw
【答案】
51.B 52.D 53.A 54.C 55.A 56.B 57.C 58.C 59.A 60.B 61.C 62.D 63.C 64.A 65.D
【分析】本文是一篇记叙文。主要讲了苏菲由于喜欢画画,不经意间画了一副抢劫者的图片,因此帮助了警察的故事。
51.句意:她喜欢美术。
math数学;art美术;music音乐;writing写作。根据“She drew before breakfast. She drew after breakfast.”可知,苏菲喜欢美术,因此art符合句意。故选B。
52.句意:有时她甚至在上学的路上画画。
home家;park公园;library图书馆;school学校。根据“Why are you late, Sophie?”可知,是在上学的路上画画,因此school符合句意。故选D。
53.句意:一天苏菲上学迟到了。
late迟地;early早地;happily开心地;sadly悲伤地。根据“Why are you late, Sophie?”可知,苏菲上学迟到了,因此late符合句意。故选A。
54.句意:你必须少考虑你的绘画多考虑学校。
little少;much多;less更少;more更多。根据“more about school”可知,此空需要一个比较级;再者根据“her teacher”可知,老师让苏菲少考虑绘画,因此less符合句意。故选C。
55.句意:你现在能把你的作业给我吗?
homework家庭作业;picture照片;schoolbag书包;notebook笔记本。根据“I’m sorry, Miss, I don’t have it finished.”可知,是作业没有完成,因此homework符合句意。故选A。
56.句意:为什么没有,苏菲?
How如何;Why为什么;What什么;When什么时候。根据“Yesterday I was in town.”可知, 老师是问苏菲为什么没有完成,因此why符合句意。故选B。
57.句意:我看见一个人沿着路跑。
banker银行家;robber强盗;man男人;policeman警察。根据“He had a handsome face so I drew him.”可知,是看见一个人沿着路跑,因此man符合句意。故选C。
58.句意:可是,索菲,昨天城里发生了一起银行抢劫案……
bus公交汽车;shop商店;bank银行;street街道。根据下文“So Ronnie robbed the bank!”可知,昨天发生了一起银行抢劫案,因此bank符合句意。故选C。
59.句意:也许这就是我看到的那个人。
saw看见;heard听到;lost丢失;stopped停止。 根据“Maybe I have drawn a picture of the robber!”可知,苏菲画的人就是她看到的人,因此saw符合句意。故选A。
60.句意:她把自己的照片给警察看。
bought买;showed展示;drew画画;sold卖。根据“After school, Sophie went to the police station.”可知,她把自己的照片给警察看,因此showed符合句意。故选B。
61.句意:你从哪儿弄到这张照片的?
draw画画;buy买;get得到;borrow借。根据“I drew it”可知,警察问苏菲从哪儿弄到这张照片的,因此get符合句意。故选C。
62.句意:我昨天在城镇里画的。
table桌子;school学校;city城市;town城镇。根据上文“Yesterday I was in town.”可知,是在城镇里画的,因此town符合句意。故选D。
63.句意:现在我们可以抓住他了。
ask问;telephone打电话;catch抓住;visit参观。根据“So Ronnie robbed the bank! Thank you, Sophie.”可知,现在我们可以抓住他了,因此catch符合句意。故选C。
64.句意:她是一个聪明的女孩。
clever聪明的;outgoing外向的;hardworking努力的;lazy懒惰的。根据“Sophie’s drawing helped us catch Ronnie, the Robber,”可知,苏菲是一个聪明的女孩,因此clever符合句意。故选A。
65.句意:现在她的老师们都很喜欢苏菲,这个喜欢画画的女孩。
paint上油漆;play玩;help帮助;draw画画。根据全文可知,苏菲喜欢画画,因此draw符合句意。故选D。
六、阅读填空 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
We have been in Australia for three years. We’re having 66 (冠词) good time here. Australia is the sixth 67 (large) country in the world. There is so much to see that it is 68 (possible) for me to tell you everything. Sydney is a beautiful city. There are many big trees and beautiful flowers around the houses and they look 69 (real) beautiful. There are also some special animals in Australia, such as kangaroos and koalas. They are so interesting.
During the past three days, we’ve visited many 70 (place) of interest around Sydney. I’d like to spend more time here. 71 (连词) we will fly to another city, Cairns, to see coral beds(珊瑚礁) tomorrow. It is said that words cannot describe the beauty of the colourful corals. Many famous cartoon films were made there. So the city is famous 72 (介词) films. Now we are busy packing our bags so that we will not 73 (lose) time when we leave. We can enjoy 74 (we) in Cairns this time tomorrow. I’m looking forward to 75 (go) there!
【答案】
66.a 67.largest 68.impossible 69.really 70.places 71.But 72.for 73.lose 74.ourselves 75.going
【导语】本文主要介绍了澳大利亚,以及过去三天作者在澳大利亚旅游的情况。
66.句意:我们在这里玩得很开心。have a good time“玩得开心”,a为不定冠词,此处为固定搭配,故填a。
67.句意:澳大利亚是世界第六大国。 由句中“the sixth”可知,此句是说澳大利亚是世界第六大国,“the+序数词+形容词最高级+名词”意为“第……最……的……”,故填largest。
68.句意:要看的东西太多了,我不可能把一切都告诉你。由句中“There is so much to see”可知,此句是说不可能把一切都告诉你。possible“可能的”,形容词,此处用其反义词impossible,意为“不可能的”,故填impossible。
69.句意:房子周围有许多大树和美丽的花朵,它们看起来真地很漂亮。此处用副词修饰形容词“beautiful”,形容词real的副词形式为really,意为“真地”,故填really。
70.句意:在过去的三天里,我们参观了悉尼周围的许多名胜古迹。place“地点”,可数名词,由修饰词“many”可知,此处用其复数形式。place of interest“名胜古迹”,为固定短语,故填places。
71.句意:但是我们明天将飞往另一个城市凯恩斯,去看珊瑚礁。前句“I’d like to spend more time here.”和后句“we will fly to another city, Cairns, to see coral beds(珊瑚礁)tomorrow.”构成转折关系,应用连词but,意为“但是”,故填But。
72.句意:所以这座城市以电影而闻名。句中“films”意为“电影”,表示某物,此处用结构be famous for,意为“因……而闻名”,故填for。
73.句意:现在我们正忙着收拾行李,以便我们离开时不会浪费时间。句中“will”为助动词,后面跟动词原形,此句为一般将来时。lose“失去”,动词,lose time“浪费时间”,故填lose。
74.句意:明天这个时候我们可以在凯恩斯玩得开心。enjoy oneself“玩得开心”,由主语“We”可知,此处用其反身代词ourselves,意为“我们自己”,故填ourselves。
75.句意:我期待着去那里!look forward to doing sth.“期待做某事”,其中“to”作介词,后面跟动名词作宾语,故填going。
七、书面表达(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 情境运用
根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.
—What did you buy for your mother?
— .
77.
— ?
—Three times a week.
78.
—Does Lisa ride as fast as Tom?
—No, .
79.
— ?
—Sun Cinema. It has the biggest screen.
80.
— ?
—I can’t stand them. They are boring.
【答案】
76.I bought a mirror
77. How often does Bob/Eric play football with Eric/Bob
78. she doesn’t
79. Which cinema do you go to
80.What do you think of talk shows/How do you like talk shows
【解析】76.根据图片及问句可知,此处表达的是“我买了一面镜子”,问句是一般过去时,回答中句子也用一般过去时,动词用过去式,buy“买”的过去式是bought,a mirror“一面镜子”,故填I bought a mirror。
77.根据图片及答语可知,此处表达的是“鲍勃多久和埃里克踢一次足球”,提问频率用how often,此处主语是第三人称单数Bob或者Eric,助动词用does,play football“踢足球”,此处动词用原形,故填How often does Bob/Eric play football with Eric/Bob。
78.根据图片及问句可知,此处表达的是“她不能”,此处是一般疑问句的否定回答,结构是“No, 主语+do/does+not”,问句中Lisa是女孩,回答用she代替,主语是三单,助动词用does,does与not缩写成doesn’t,故填she doesn’t。
79.根据图片及答语可知,此处表达的是“你去哪家电影院”,句子用which提问,which后接名词cinema,后接一般疑问句do you go to,故填Which cinema do you go to。
80.根据图片及答语可知,此处表达的是“你认为谈话节目怎么样”,“认为……怎么样”用what do you think of/how do you like结构,talk show“谈话节目”,结合回答中的“them”可知,名词用复数形式,故填What do you think of talk shows/How do you like talk shows。
第2节 写作(25分)
假设你是Mary,从西安来成都上学一年后,你给西安的朋友Jenny写信介绍这一年在成都的生活。写作要点如下:
1. 你长高了许多,瘦了一点,因为你每周游泳2—3次。
2. 你更加友好、外向:而且尝试和许多与你不同的人交朋友。
3. 你喜欢看talk shows,你认为他们很精彩,你喜欢弄清楚不同的人对一个主题的看法。你的朋友喜欢soap operas,因为他/她喜欢跟着故事情节看看下一步会发生什么事。
4. 上周你去Town Cinema看了场电影,你很喜欢那里。因为:1……;2……;
注意:
1. 短文应包含要求的所有信息。
2. 书信的格式正确。
3. 文章应结构完整、语句通顺、句式多样。
4. 文中不能出现真实的人名信息。
5. 词数100词左右。
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________【答案】例文:
Dear Jenny,
I miss you very much. I’ve been studying in Chengdu for one year. Let me tell you my life.
I’m getting taller and thinner because I swim two or three times a week. I try making friends with many people. They are different from me. So I’m friendlier than before. I like to watch talk shows because they are wonderful. I also like to find out what different people think about a subject. My friend loves soap operas because he likes to follow the story to see what will happen next. I went to see a movie at Town Cinema last week. I like it very much because it has the most comfortable seats and its service is the best.
How about your life in Xi’an? I’m looking forward to hearing from you.
Yours,
Mary
【详解】[总体分析]
① 题材:本文是一篇书信作文;
② 时态:时态为“一般现在时”和“一般过去时”;
③ 提示:写作要点已给出,考生应注意不要遗漏“信息提示”中每一项内容,适当添加细节,并突出写作重点。
[写作步骤]
第一步,介绍你的变化以及原因;
第二步,介绍你和朋友喜欢看的电视节目;
第三步,最后介绍上周你的活动;
[亮点词汇]
①make friends交朋友
②be different from和……不同
③find out弄清
④look forward to期待
[高分句型]
My friend loves soap operas because he likes to follow the story to see what will happen next.(原因状语从句和宾语从句)
试卷第6页,共7页
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2024-2025学年八年级英语上学期第一次月考卷(山东济南专用)
参考答案
(满分150分。考试用时120分钟)
1、 听力(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
1-5 CBBAB 6-10 ACBAA 11-15 CACBB 16-20 ABCAC
2、 阅读理解
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
A
【答案】21.D 22.C 23.B 24.B 25.A
B
【答案】26.B 27.A 28.C 29.D 30.C
C
【答案】31.B 32.A 33.C 34.B 35.C
D
【答案】36.C 37.D 38.A 39.C 40.B
3、 阅读理解七选五
【答案】41.F 42.C 43.A 44.E 45.B
四、补全对话 阅读对话,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案完成对话。(5分)
【答案】46.B 47.A 48.B 49.B 50.C
五、完形填空 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
【答案】
51.B 52.D 53.A 54.C 55.A 56.B 57.C 58.C 59.A 60.B 61.C 62.D 63.C 64.A 65.D
六、阅读填空 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
【答案】
66.a 67.largest 68.impossible 69.really 70.places 71.But 72.for 73.lose 74.ourselves 75.going
七、书面表达(共两节,满分35分)
第一节情境运用
【答案】
76.I bought a mirror
77. How often does Bob/Eric play football with Eric/Bob
78. she doesn’t
79. Which cinema do you go to
80.What do you think of talk shows/How do you like talk shows
第2节 写作(25分)
【答案】例文:
Dear Jenny,
I miss you very much. I’ve been studying in Chengdu for one year. Let me tell you my life.
I’m getting taller and thinner because I swim two or three times a week. I try making friends with many people. They are different from me. So I’m friendlier than before. I like to watch talk shows because they are wonderful. I also like to find out what different people think about a subject. My friend loves soap operas because he likes to follow the story to see what will happen next. I went to see a movie at Town Cinema last week. I like it there very much because it has the most comfortable seats and its service is the best.
How about your life in Xi’an? I’m looking forward to hearing from you.
Yours,
Mary
答案第2页,共2页
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2
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$$null2024-2025学年八年级英语上学期第一次月考卷(山东济南专用)
英语·答题卡
姓
名:
条 码 粘 贴 处
准考证号:
缺考标记
注意事项
违标记
,
答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚
以上标记由临考
请将准考证条码粘贴在右例条码粘贴处的方框内。
人员用2B铅笔
3.
选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须用0.5m黑色字迹的签字笔填写,字体工整。
填涂!
,
请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答,超出范围的答案无效,在草纸、试卷上作答无效。
,
保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。
填涂样例 正确 []错误 [--lV][×]
选择题(请用2B铅笔填涂
1.[A]1B1|C]
6.[A][B]IC1
11.[A][B1[C]
16.[A][B1|C]
2.|A]IB]|C]
7.[A]1B]1C]
12.[A]1B][C1
17.[A][B1[C]
3.[A]IB]IC]
8.[A]|B][C]
13.[A][B1|C]
18.A]IB][C]
9.A][B][C]
4.A][B]|C]
14.[A]1B][C]
19.[A][B][C]
5.[A11B11C1
10.[A]1B11C]
15.[A][B1|C]
20.A11B1IC]
26.[A]1B][C11D]
31.[A][B11C1[D]
21.[A]IB1[C]1D]
36.[A1[B1|C11D]
27.1A1[B1[C11D1
22.1A][B1IC1[D]
32.[A][B][C][D]
37.A][B]|C11D]
23.[A]1B][C][D]
28.|A]1B]|C][D]
33.[A][B]IC]1D]
38.JA][B][C11D]
24.[A][B][C][D]
29.]A][B][C1[D]
34.[A][B][C][D]
39.A]|B]|C]ID
25.[A][B]IC][D]
30.[A]1B1[C1[D]
35.[A][B][C1[D]
40.A][B1[C1[D]
46.[A][B]1C11D1
41.AIIBIIC]IDIIEIIFIIG
51.1A11B11C11D1
56.[A][B]1C11D]
42.|A]IB1IC1IDIIElIFlIG1
47.[A]IB]1C11D1
52.[A][B1IC1[D]
571A11B11C11D1
43.[A]IB1[C1IDI|IEIIFIIG]
48.|A][B][C1[D]
53.[A][B]|C1[D]
58.[A][B]|C1[D]
44.[A][B]IC]IDIIEIIFlIG]
49.[A][B]IC]ID]
54.[A][B]IC][D]
59.A1[B1IC]ID
45.[A][B][C][DIIEIIFIIG]
50.[A][B][C1[D]
55.[A][B][C1[D]
60.]A][B][C1[D]
61.[A][B1IC11D1
62.[A][B][C][D]
63.[A1[B][C][D]
64.[A][B][C][D]
65.[A]1B11C1[D1
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!
英语第1页(共2页)
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!
非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答
六、阅读填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
66.
67.
68.
6
70
71.
72
73
74.
75
七、书面表达(共两节,满分35分)
第一节情境运用(10分)
76.
#
78.
d
第二节写作(25分
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!
英语第2页(共2页)20242025学年八年级英语上学期第一次月考卷(山东济南专用)
英语·答题卡
姓
名:
条码粘贴处
准考证号:
缺考标记口
注意麻项
违妃标记☐
1,答题前,考生先将自己的姓名,准考证号码填写清楚
以上标记由监考
请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的条码粘贴处]的方框内。
人员用2B铅笔
3
选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂:非选择题必须用0.5mm黑色字迹的签字笔填写,字体工整
填涂!
4.
请按题号颗序在各题的答题区内作答,超出范围的答案无效,在草纸、试卷上作答无效。
5.
保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。
6.
填涂样例正确■】错误一Ⅱ√1I×】
选择题(请用2B铅笔填涂)
1AIIBIICI
6.1AIIBIICI
11.1AIIBIICI
16.1AIIBIICI
2.1AJIBIICI
7.A1IB11C1
12.JAIIBIICI
17.A1IB11C1
3AJIBIICI
8.1AIIBIICI
13.1AIIBIICI
18.1A]IBIICI
4.1A1IBIICI
9A11B11C1
14.1AlIBIICI
19.A11B11C1
51AJIBIICI
10.A1IB11C1
15.JA]IBIICI
20.1AIIBIICI
211AJIBIICIIDI
26.AIIBIICIIDI
31A11B1IC11D1
36.1AIIBIICIID]
22AJIBIICIIDI
27.A11B1IC11D1
32.1AJIBIICIIDI
37.AIIBIICIIDI
23.1A1IBIICIIDI
28AIIBIICIIDI
33.1AI[BIICIIDI
38.1AIIBIICIID]
24.A11B1IC11D1
29.A11B1IC11D1
341A1IBIICIIDI
39.JAIIBIICIID]
25.1AJIBIICIIDI
30.A1fB11C11D1
351A1IBIICIIDI
40.JAIIBIICIIDI
41.AJIBIICJIDIEIFIGI
46.1AIIBIICIIDI
51.1AlIBIICIID]
56.1AIIBIICIIDI
42.1A1IBIICIIDIEIFIIGI
47.A11B1IC11D1
52.1AIIBIICIIDI
571AJIBIICIID]
43.1AIIBIICIIDIEIFHGI
48.1AIIBIICIIDI
53.A11B11C11D1
58.1AIIBIICIID1
44AJIBIICIIDIEIFIGI
49.AIIBIICIIDI
54.1A1IBIICIIDI
59.1AIIBIICIID]
45.1AJIBIICIIDIIEHFIGI
50.1AJIBIICIIDI
551AJIBIICIIDI
60.1AJIBIICIID]
611AJIBIICIIDI
62.AIIBIICIIDI
63.A11B11C1ID1
64.JA1IBIICIIDI
65.1A]IBIICIIDI
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!
英语第1页(共2页)
■
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!
非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答)
六、阅读填空(共10小题:每小题1.5分,满分15分)
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72
73.
74.
75.
七、书面表达(共两节,满分35分)
第一节情境运用(10分)
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
第二节写作(25分)
请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效!
英语第2页(共2页)