安徽省池州市青阳县2023-2024学年八年级下学期期末考试英语试题

2023-2024学年度第二学期期末考试 八年级英语试题 （考试时间：120分钟 满分：120分） 第一部分 听力（共四大题；满分20分） Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项，每段对话读两遍。 1. What does the boy want to do? A B. C. 2. When will the boy go to the Wildlife Park? A. B. C. 3. What did Alice do at the weekend? A. She went to the mountains. B. She went shopping. C. She watched a movie. 4. What does the woman suggest the man doing? A. Going to the doctor. B. Taking some medicine. C. Staying in bed. 5. What does the man think of the movie? A. It’s exciting. B. It’s boring. C. It’s terrible. Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项，每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题 6. What time is it now? A 8:00 a. m. B. 9:00 a. m. C. 8:00 p. m. 7. What will Sam have for breakfast? A. Bread and milk. B. Sandwiches and milk. C. Bread and eggs. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题 8. Why is Michael worried? A. Because he will have a test tomorrow. B. Because he doesn’t want to study. C. Because he doesn’t like school 9. How does Michael feel before tests? A. Relaxed B. Nervous C. Excited 10. What is Linda`s advice for helping Michael? A. To practice his speech with a friend. B. To read a book about giving speeches. C. To listen to a CD about giving speeches. Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项，短文读两遍。 11. Where was Jack when the car accident happened? A. On his way home from school. B. At the bus stop. C. In the park. 12. What was Jack doing when the car hit him? A. Playing with his friends. B. Talking on his mobile phone. C. Trying to cross the street quickly. 13. How long was Jack in the hospital after the car accident? A. Over a month. B. A few days. C. Two weeks. 14. Who helped Jack after the second accident? A. His parents. B. The police. C. Some young men 15. What happened to Jack as a result of the second accident? A. He broke his arm. B. He broke his leg. C. He wasn’t hurt. Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词，短文读两遍。 School Volunteer Day Date On 16 26th Volunteer jobs Read books to the kids at an 17 care center. Take care of the 18 and play with them. Clean the chairs or pick up the 19 in the park. The working time may be long, so remember to bring some 20 . 第二部分 语言知识运用（共两大题；满分30分） Ⅴ. 单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. —I plan to do more exercise this year. —You made a good ________. I hope you can keep on doing it. A. stress B. decision C. interest D. cheat 2. —Can you see the boy ________ the guitar on the playground? —Yes, he practices it every day. A. play B. to play C. playing D. played 3. —________ you smile, ________ you will feel. —Thank you for your advice. A. Much; happy B. The much; the happy C. The more; the happier D. The more; more happy 4. The Greens ________ lunch when I arrived at their house yesterday. A. was having B. were having C. are having D. is having 5. —How’s your new neighbor? Have you talked to him? —Yes, We have talked a lot ________. He seems very friendly. A. recently B. truly C. usually D. hardly 6. —We ________ a lot of trees since we ________ here. —That’s great! It’s wonderful to protect our environment. A. planted; came B. have planted; came C. planted; have come D. have planted; have come 7. —________ we go to the zoo this weekend? —I’m afraid not. We ________ prepare for the exam first. A. Can; must B. Must; can C. Must; must D. Can; can 8. —They ran out of the room ________ they heard the alarm. —Safety first! We should stay calm and act quickly! A. as often as B. as well as C. as far as D. as soon as 9. —I heard the movie was really good, but I didn’t get a chance to see it. —________ Maybe you can watch it online later. A. It’s a shame! B. That’s OK. C. It’s not worth it. D. You’ll like it. 10. —Do you like to go out with your friends? —Yes, I do. We usually do ________ activities together on weekends. A. quite a few B. quite a little C. few D. little Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A Mike comes from a small town. Last year, he left school to Paris to find a job. He went to one factory after ___11___ factory. But no one wanted him. ___12___ he had little money, he had to go back to his small town. So he came to the station. He felt very sad and ___13___. It was very late at night and the train station was ___14___ of people. They were waiting to buy tickets of the last train. He bought the last ticket, so he was very happy. At that time, a woman ___15___ a crying baby walked to him. She asked him to ___16___ her the ticket. He gave her the ticket. He thought they needed ___17___ more than he did. After the train ___18___, he sat on the floor and didn’t know ___19___ to go. Just then an old man came and said, “Young man, I saw what you did to help the woman. I have a big factory. I need a good young man ___20___ you. Would you like to work for me?” 11. A. another B. other C. the other D. others 12. A. So B. So that C. Because D. Because of 13. A. please B. pleased C. tiring D. tired 14. A. fall B. fell C. full D. fill 15. A. between B. among C. with D. without 16. A. sell B. sold C. buy D. bought 17. A. a B. an C. the D. it 18. A. leave B. leaves C. left D. leaving 19. A. how B. where C. what D. which 20. A. look like B. like C. as if D. similar B Everyone forgets things sometimes, but as we get older, we may feel like we’re forgetting ___21___. But don’t worry! Research shows that there are some ways to help. The first way is to make plans for your ___22___. If you often plan things and ___23___ things, you will be less likely to get Alzheimer’s disease (早老性痴呆症). It doesn’t ___24___ be big plans, just simple things like meeting a friend for coffee each week. Having things to do helps keep your brain (大脑) active. The second way is to go for a walk or swim. ___25___ can help your blood sugar to be normal, it is good ___26___ your brain. In other words, taking care of your ___27___ also means taking good care of your brain. Then, try learning something new. It can be ___28___, like taking a class or joining a club. ___29___ new things helps keep your brain strong and ___30___ your memory. And it’s fun to learn new things! So remember, there are ways to help your brain stay healthy. Make plans, exercise, and learn new things! 21. A. less B. more C. many D. few 22. A. future B. past C. beginning D. ending 23. A. look through B. look after C. look for D. look forward to 24. A. should B. will C. have to D. must 25. A. Risk B. Stress C. Exercise D. Illness 26. A. at B. for C. of D. by 27. A. change B. body C. rest D. spirit 28. A. anything B. nothing C. anybody D. nobody 29. A. Learn B. Learns C. To learn D. Learning 30. A. imagine B. improve C. interest D. include 第三部分 阅读理解（共两大题，满分45分） Ⅶ. 补全对话 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分。） 据对话内容，从下面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两项为多余选项。 A: Dad, why don’t you drive to work today? B: Now the air pollution is heavy, ___31___. A: So, what should we do? B: We should drive less. ___32___. A: Good idea! They are also good for health. Then as a middle school student, what should I do? B: I think you can start with small things. For example, ___33___. A: Oh, I see. That’s easy. Anything else? B: ___34___. Trees can help make air clean. A: I agree with you. And we can’t cut down trees. B: Of course we can’t. What’s more, we can’t waste food as well. A: OK, dad. ___35___. Even small acts count. A. You’d better save paper and not use paper cups. B. I think everyone can make a difference. C. And we can also plant more trees. D. How do you go to work every day? E. I think driving is not good for the environment. F. We can ride the bike or take the bus instead. G. What about the air pollution from the paper factories? Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分。） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A House fires often happen. So it is necessary to learn something useful to protect family from them. The following poster will tell you how to do it. Fire Safety Put a smoke alarm in your house and test it every month. Half of all house fire deaths happen between 11 pm and 7 am. Working smoke alarms can make you less likely to die in a house fire. Make sure your hearing aid (助听器), wheclchair or eyeglasses are next to your bed. Fire can spread (蔓延) through a house soon. You may have as little as two minutes to be safe. Be ready to act at once. Make a fire escape (逃脱) plan. 77% of families don’t have a house fire escape plan to follow. That’s one of the reasons why at least one child dies and 293 children are hurt in a house fire every day. Be calm, and take the right actions. Don’t call 119 until you are safe outside. During a fire, the first thing to do is to get out of the house as fast as you can. Don’t carry many things. 36. ________ can make the risk of dying in a house fire smaller. A. A smoke alarm B. A fire C. A poster D. A telephone 37. You have to make sure the following things are next to your bed EXCEPT (除了……之外) your________. A. hearing aid B. wheelchair C. eyeglasses D. cup 38. According to the poster, what can save you from a house fire? A. Testing the smoke alarm when the fire happens. B. Making and following a fire escape plan. C. Keeping awake between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m.. D. Carry as many things as possible. B It was a Friday night. My parents and my little brother went to their rooms. I was still watching TV in the living room. Just then, the telephone rang. After my father answered it, he said Grandpa was ill and my uncle was taking him to the hospital. My parents asked our neighbor to help look after my little brother. Then, my parents and I went to the hospital quickly. When we got there, I found Grandpa was lying on the bed. I said “hello” to him, but he couldn’t talk. I knew he must feel terrible because he didn’t look well. At that time, three doctors and two nurses came to Grandpa’s bed and said that he would have an operation right away. All my family stood outside the operating room. We worried about Grandpa very much. My father walked around. My uncle stood in front of the door of the operating room without saying a word. Two hours later, the doctors and the nurses went out and said that the operation was very successful. All of us became happy. That day, I learned how important my family’s health was to me. 39. What day was it when the story happened? A. Sunday. B. Monday. C. Friday. D. Saturday. 40 How did the writer’s grandpa feel when the writer saw him? A. He felt well. B. He felt terrible. C. He felt happy. D. He felt relaxed. 41. What did the writer learn from this experience? A. How important it was to help others. B. How important it was to be healthy. C. How important his grandpa was to him. D. How important his family’s health was to him. 42. In which part of a newspaper can we find the text? A. Weather. B. Sports. C. Story. D. Science. C You get up in the morning and look into the mirror. Your face is not likely to change and stays young-looking. In 2050, medical science is better than ever. Many people of your age could live to be 150, so your parents look as young as you at that time. You say to your shirt, “Turn red.” It changes from blue to red. In 2050, it’s easy to change the color or the look of your smart clothes. At breakfast, your smart fridge gives you ideas for healthy meals according to what you like to eat and what your body needs. You just choose what sounds good, and the kitchen robots make the food for you. It’s time to go to work. In 2050, your daily trip to work is easy, cars drive themselves. Just tell your smart car where to go. You can relax and enjoy the views, or use your virtual (虚拟的) glasses to do some work. In 2050, life is amazing and feels like magic. With medical science getting better, living a long and healthy life is becoming possible. You’re excited for the future because each day brings new things to do and see. 43. What is special about your looking in 2050? A. Your face changes every day. B. You always look very old. C. Your face stays young-looking. D. You can’t see yourself. 44. How does the smart fridge help you at breakfast? A. It tells you when to eat your meals. B. It cooks breakfast for you. C. It suggests healthy meals according to your body. D. It helps you with eating. 45. What is the best title for the passage? A. Why will Everyday Life be Changed? B. How will We Live in 2050? C. When will Smart Technology be Used? D. What will We Eat and Wear in 2050? D Xinjiang is a beautiful place. And the food in Xinjiang is also famous. Let’s have a look! Naan Naan is a traditional food with a history of over 2,000 years in Xinjiang. People usually cook it in a clay（陶土） oven. It is round. People think it can bring good luck to them. They like to share the food with others because they want to share good luck. Xinjiang Big Plate Chicken It’s a famous dish and you can find it all over the country. A cook called Li Shilin created it about 20 years ago. At that time, people enjoyed the taste of the dish, but they thought a small plate wasn’t enough. This is why Li decided to cook a whole chicken one day, and put it in a big plate for his guests. The dish tastes really good. Xinjiang Hand-pulled Noodles Xinjiang Hand-pulled Noodles, also known as Latiaozi, are a kind of popular Xinjiang food. People there add mutton and all kinds of vegetables to the dish. Lots of people are interested in the cooking of the noodles and they all like to watch it, especially pulling noodles. 46. What is the traditional food with a history of over 2,000 years in Xinjiang? A. Nann B. Xinjiang Big Plate Chicken C. Xinjiang Hand-pulled Noodles D. Latiaozi 47. Why do people in Xinjiang like to share naan with others? A. Because it is cooked in the clay oven. B. Because it is a traditional food with a long history C. Because it is round and brings good luck D. Because it is a famous dish enjoyed all over the country 48. Who created the Xinjiang Big Plate Chicken? A. An unknown cook B. A cook named Li Shilin C. The guests D. People who enjoyed the dish 49. What do people in Xinjiang add to the Hand-pulled Noodles dish? A. Bee and eggs B. Mutton and vegetables C. Chicken and rice D. Fish and tomatoes E We learn things from our books at school every day, but we should also read other books in our free time. Reading is a great way to learn. However, today, many people spend their free time on the internet for fun, watching video s or playing games. Maybe many of them have forgotten about the happiness of reading. Last year, a teacher named Dong Yuhui from New Oriental (新东方) Education encouraged many people to read more. His love for reading has made others discover the joy of books. This made them more interested in reading and learning. Because of this, more and more people now like to read in libraries or buy books from bookstores. A student named Jiang Hua said, “Reading is the most wonderful part of life!” To help students with reading, more and more schools are starting reading classes. These classes will also help students with other school subjects. Some schools have libraries or reading corners in their classrooms, where students can have a quiet and nice place to read. So let’s read and have fun reading! 50. What do many people do in their free time nowadays? A. They read books. B. They watch videos on the internet. C. They study in libraries. D. They play sports. 51. What did Dong Yuhui’s love for reading do to others? A. It made them hate reading. B. It made them more interested in reading. C. It made them feel bored with books. D. It made them play more computer games. 52. What is the author’s advice to readers? A. Spend more time on the internet. B. Forget about reading. C. Only read books at school. D. Start reading and enjoy it. 第二节 F 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题 。(请注意每小题的字数要求) One day a man saw four strong elephants on the road. The trainer used only a thin rope to tie them, but none of the elephants tried to run away. It wasn’t difficult for them to break the thin rope. However, they didn’t. Then the man walked to the trainer and asked, “How can you tie (栓) the elephants with such a thin rope?” “When they were very young, we used the rope of the same size to tie them, and it was not strong enough at that time,” the trainer answered. “Now they grow up and become stronger, but they never try to get free. They believe the rope can still tie them.” Hearing that, the man seemed to understand. Sometimes humans act like elephants. After the first failure, they probably stop trying again. They believe it is not easy for them to be successful. In fact, failure is an important part of our life. We should learn from the failure and try over and over again. 53. What did the trainer use to tie the elephants? (不超过5词) _________________________________ 54. Did the elephants try to get free when they grow up? (不超过5词) _________________________________ 55. What can you learn from the passage? (不超过15词) _________________________________ 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分。） 56. Bob and Tony stopped a________ (争论) when they saw the teacher coming into the classroom. 57. With the teacher’s help Susan’s English has progressed r________ (快速地). 58. We decided to give out these n________ (通知) to tell students about the sports activity. 59. Our hometown has left many soft and s________ (甜蜜的) memories in our hearts. 60. To eat healthily and safely, she often makes food by h________(她自己) instead of buying some. Ⅹ. 书面表达（共计20分） 61. 2024年4月26日，池黄高铁（The Chi-Huang High-Speed Railway）正式通车，这使得青阳人民出行更加便利，那就让我们来一场说走就走的旅行吧。请以A Travel Plan为题，根据下列的问题，写一篇短文，不少于80词，开头已给出。 A Travel Plan Where and when will you go? Who will you go with? What activities will you do? What’s your feelings? … A Travel Plan The Chi-Huang High-Speed Railway opened on April 26,2024, making it much easier for people in Qingyang to travel. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2023-2024学年度第二学期期末考试 八年级英语试题 （考试时间：120分钟 满分：120分） 第一部分 听力（共四大题；满分20分） Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项，每段对话读两遍。 1. What does the boy want to do? A. B. C. 2. When will the boy go to the Wildlife Park? A. B. C. 3. What did Alice do at the weekend? A. She went to the mountains. B. She went shopping. C. She watched a movie. 4. What does the woman suggest the man doing? A. Going to the doctor. B. Taking some medicine. C. Staying in bed. 5. What does the man think of the movie? A. It’s exciting. B. It’s boring. C. It’s terrible. Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项，每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题 6. What time is it now? A. 8:00 a. m. B. 9:00 a. m. C. 8:00 p. m. 7. What will Sam have for breakfast? A. Bread and milk. B. Sandwiches and milk. C. Bread and eggs. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题 8. Why is Michael worried? A. Because he will have a test tomorrow. B. Because he doesn’t want to study. C. Because he doesn’t like school 9. How does Michael feel before tests? A. Relaxed B. Nervous C. Excited 10. What is Linda`s advice for helping Michael? A. To practice his speech with a friend. B. To read a book about giving speeches. C. To listen to a CD about giving speeches. Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项，短文读两遍。 11. Where was Jack when the car accident happened? A. On his way home from school. B. At the bus stop. C. In the park. 12. What was Jack doing when the car hit him? A. Playing with his friends. B. Talking on his mobile phone. C. Trying to cross the street quickly. 13. How long was Jack in the hospital after the car accident? A. Over a month. B. A few days. C. Two weeks. 14. Who helped Jack after the second accident? A. His parents. B. The police. C. Some young men 15. What happened to Jack as a result of the second accident? A. He broke his arm. B. He broke his leg. C. He wasn’t hurt. Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词，短文读两遍。 School Volunteer Day Date On 16 26th Volunteer jobs Read books to the kids at an 17 care center. Take care of the 18 and play with them. Clean the chairs or pick up the 19 in the park. The working time may be long, so remember to bring some 20 . 第二部分 语言知识运用（共两大题；满分30分） Ⅴ. 单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】C 【3题答案】 【答案】C 【4题答案】 【答案】B 【5题答案】 【答案】A 【6题答案】 【答案】B 【7题答案】 【答案】A 【8题答案】 【答案】D 【9题答案】 【答案】A 【10题答案】 【答案】A Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11 A 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. B B 【21~30题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. D 30. B 第三部分 阅读理解（共两大题，满分45分） Ⅶ. 补全对话 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分。） 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. E 32. F 33. A 34. C 35. B Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分。） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A 【36~38题答案】 【答案】36. A 37. D 38. B B 【39~42题答案】 【答案】39. C 40. B 41. D 42. C C 【43~45题答案】 【答案】43. C 44. C 45. B D 【46~49题答案】 【答案】46. A 47. C 48. B 49. B E 【50~52题答案】 【答案】50. B 51. B 52. D 第二节 F 【53~55题答案】 【答案】53. A thin rope. 54. No, they didn’t. 55. We should learn from the failure and try over and over again. 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分。） 【56题答案】 【答案】(a)rguing 【57题答案】 【答案】(r)apidly 【58题答案】 【答案】(n)otices 【59题答案】 【答案】(s)weet 【60题答案】 【答案】(h)erself Ⅹ. 书面表达（共计20分） 【61题答案】 【答案】范文： A Travel Plan The Chi-Huang High-Speed Railway opened on April 26, 2024, making it much easier for people in Qingyang to travel. I’m going to visit Huangshan with my best friends in July, 2024. It will take only 14 minutes to get there by the new railway. First, we will climb Huangshan Mountain. I’ve heard the beautiful rocks and clouds are amazing. We’ll take a lot of photos, too. After that, we’re going to try the food there. I’m especially looking forward to trying some traditional Huangshan cuisine! This trip will be much fun. I’m so excited that I can’t wait to see Huangshan and experience its beauty with my friends. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$