山东省烟台市海阳市2023-2024学年六年级下学期期末英语试题

2023-2024学年度第二学期期末检测 初一英语试题 注意事项： 1.本试卷共8页，满分90分，考试用时100分钟； 2.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座位号填写在试卷和答题卡规定的位置上； 3.选择题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的选项标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它选项； 4.非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新答案；不能使用涂改液等。不按以上要求作答无效； 5.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回 第一部分 基础知识运用（共四节，满分25分） 第一节 语音考察（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） A.从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出划线部分与其他三个不同的选项。 1. A. good B. look C. cool D. book 2. A. learn B. near C. early D. earth 3. A. young B. house C. around D. cloudy 4. A. much B. chess C. school D. chicken 5. A. uniform B. useful C. student D. supermarket B.根据所给的音标，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出与所给音标对应的单词。 6. /bæk/ A. bag B. bike C. back D. bank 7. /drɪŋk/ A. dry B. dress C. drive D. drink 8. /peɪ/ A. pay B. play C. pair D. pear 9. /seɪv/ A. say B. save C. same D. center 10. /hɑ:f/ A. hall B. hard C. hair D. half 第二节 词汇运用（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据句意和所给的汉语提示，写出句中单词的适当形式。 11. Mary spends one hour ______（打扫） her room every Sunday. 12. There is a ______（餐馆） across from the hospital. 13. She can answer the question ______（容易地）. 14. The ______（男人） in white are Jack’s uncles. 15. The boy wishes to have his mother’s ______（美味的） food. 第三节 句型转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词） 16. The little girl likes cats because they are cute.（对画线部分提问） ______ does the little girl ______ cats? 17. Remember to bring me the notebook .（改为同义句） ______ ______ to bring me the notebook. 18. Sam always plays soccer every Saturday.（改为否定句） Sam ______ always ______ soccer every Saturday. 19. The students are reading books in the library.（改为一般疑问句） ______ the students ______ books in the library? 20. Lily is doing her homework in her room now.（对画线部分提问） ______ is Lily ______ in her room now? 第四节 完成句子（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词） 根据所给汉语句子，把英语句子补充完整。 21.你能给他捎个信吗？ Could you take a ______ ______ him? 22.今天是周日。超市里有许多人在购物。 Today is Sunday. Many people ______ ______ in the supermarket now. 23.邮局在旅馆的后面。 The post office is ______ the ______. 24.当你面临危险时，请记得马上拨打110。 Please remember call 110 at once when you are ______ ______. 25.我妈妈喜欢听轻柔的音乐。 My mother enjoys ______ ______ soft music. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Julie is my aunt. She is a teacher. Let me tell you about 26 life. She gets up at 6:30 in the morning. Then she 27 for twenty minutes. She thinks it’s good exercise. It can make her 28 . She eats breakfast at about 7:20. She usually eats it quickly 29 she doesn’t have much time. After breakfast, she goes to work 30 subway. At 12:00, she eats 31 at school. Her favorite food is chicken. She thinks it 32 nice. She has no classes in the afternoon. So she works in the teachers’ office（办公室）. She goes home at about 5:30 p. m. She doesn’t go to work on Saturday or Sunday. She usually goes to the 33 with her family. Look! Her son Sam is 34 a small lion in the zoo. And she is drinking water. 35 is Sam’s father doing? Oh, he is boating. 26. A. my B. her C. his D. their 27. A. reads B. draws C. writes D. runs 28. A. healthy B. boring C. healthily D. quiet 29. A. or B. but C. because D. so 30. A. on B. in C. at D. by 31. A. lunch B. dinner C. breakfast D. vegetables 32. A. looks B. tastes C. sounds D. gets 33. A. zoo B. club C. library D. supermarket 34. A. see B. watch C. listening D. watching 35. A. Who B. When C. What D. Where 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 You can’t see this school on any map of New Delhi, India. There are no desks 36 chairs for the students here. There 37 （be） only a blackboard and three walls. Rajesh Kumar Sharma opens（开办） it. Sharma is forty-nine years old. He is from a family of eleven. No one in 38 （he） family goes to university（大学）. He opens the school 39 （help） poor（贫穷的） boys and girls go to school. Any student 40 Grade 1 and Grade 9 can study here. Now there are about 200 41 （student） in the school. They don’t have a classroom, but they are happy in the school. Look! They 42 （have） classes near flowers and trees now. Sharma often 43 （tell） his students, “Study hard, and you can go to university one day.” Mamta is 44 student in Grade 9 here. “Our teacher is Sharma. We really thank him for 45 （teach）us.” she says. 第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下列短文，从短文后每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Wang Mei is a girl from Shanghai, China. Today is July 1st. She is chatting（聊天） with her new friends on the Internet at home. Li Hua I’m a girl from China, and I live in Sanya, Hainan Island. It’s summer here now. It is usually sunny and hot in summer. I like to play volleyball on the beach and swim in the sea. Linda I’m from Sydney, Australia. It’s snowing here these days. It’s very cold. I’m wearing a coat. I like snowy days because I can make a snowman with my brother. I also like skating. Jenny I live in London, the UK. It’s summer now, and it is sunny and hot. I think it’s the best time to travel（旅行）. I usually go to some beautiful places of the country with my parents. 46. What’s the weather like in Sydney these days? A. Snowy. B. Windy. C. Rainy. D. Cloudy. 47. What does Jenny usually do in summer? A. She usually swims in the sea. B. She usually goes to the movies. C. She usually goes to the mountains. D. She usually travels around the country. 48. What can we learn from the passage? A. Wang Mei is from Beijing. B. Jenny likes snowy days very much. C. It’s summer in Sanya now. D. Linda wants to skate with her brother. B Most people go to school or go to work by car or by bus. They think it’s convenient（方便的）. I usually ride a bike to school. Here are the reasons（原因）. It’s healthy. Riding a bike is good exercise for us. It makes us feel good. It’s green. Riding a bike is green. It causes very little pollution（污染）, so if more people ride bikes, the air will be cleaner. It’s fun. It’s very interesting to ride a bike if you want to go on a trip with friends. You can stop if you’d like to see the beautiful things. You can also talk and sing happily and feel relaxed. 49. How many reasons are there for the writer to ride a bike? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five 50. The writer doesn’t think it’s ______ to ride a bike. A. healthy B. green C. interesting. D. expensive 51. From the passage we can know that the writer’s life may be ______. A. busy B. boring C. cheap D. colorful 52. What’s the best title for this passage? A. A cheap bike. B. Different jobs. C. Reasons for riding bikes. D. How to ride bikes. C My name is Amy. I come from Australia. Now let me tell you something about my neighborhood. There are three streets and a lot of buildings（建筑物） in it. On Star Street, there is a hotel and it is across from the park. The park is very beautiful. Many people go there to have fun. I like to play there on weekends, too. A bank is next to the hotel and some clothes stores are near the bank. There is a post office on Green Street. A library is between the post office and the hospital. Across from the hospital, there is a restaurant. The food there is good. Many people like to have lunch and dinner there, so it’s very crowded every day. On Center Street, there is a big middle school with about 3000 students and 200 teachers. It’s my school. At the end of the street, there is a zoo. It’s a place for people to see animals. I really like spending time there. ★ 53. Where can people buy clothes in the passage? A. On Star Street. B. On Green Street. C. On Center Street. D. In a park. 54. What does the underline word crowded in Paragraph 3 mean in Chinese? A. 现代的 B. 拥挤的 C. 宽敞的 D. 发达的 55. Which is the map of Center Street? A. B. C. D. 56. Which of the following can be put in ★ ? A. Do you like my country? B. Do you like my school? C. I love my school very much. D. I love my neighborhood very much. D In Thailand there are many elephants. The elephants are very big and kind. They can carry heavy things, so they can do a lot of hard work for people. And they are very cute and clever. They can act（表演） and dance. Sometimes they can play games with people. Now people from all over the world go to Thailand to have fun with elephants. It is very interesting. But do you know there is a festival for the elephants in Thailand? It is Elephant Day. It comes at the third weekend of November. On that day, the elephants don’t work or act, so they can have a good rest. The elephants can also wear colorful clothes. And people give them a lot of good food, such as fruit and vegetables, so they are happy and have a good time. 57. What can’t elephants do in Thailand in this passage? A. Dance and act. B. Carry heavy things. C. Take photos for people. D. Play games with people. 58. What does the underlined （划线） word “they” refer to（指）? A. The people in Thailand. B. The elephants in Thailand. C. The fruit and vegetables. D. The people from all over the world. 59. What does it mainly talk about in Paragraph（段） 2? A. Something about Elephants Day. B. Elephants can eat good food. C. Elephants can have a good rest. D. The elephants can wear colorful clothes. 60. What food do people give elephants on Elephant Day? A. Rice. B. Eggs. C. Bananas. D. Chicken 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下列对话，从对话后的选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 A: Excuse me, could you tell me the way to the post office? B: I’m sorry I don’t know. 61 You can ask the man over there. A: 62 （A walks to a man.） A: Excuse me, sir. 63 C: No, there isn’t. But there is one on Xinhua Street. A: 64 C: It’s about five kilometers. You can take a bus there. A: 65 C: You should take No.108 bus. It will take you to the post office. A: OK, I see. Thank you very much. A. I’m new here. B. Thanks all the same. C. How far is it from here? D. Which bus should I take? E. I’m looking for a post office. F. Is there a post office around here? 第四部分 书面表达（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下列短文，完成短文后的问题。 There are seven days in a week. They are Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday. The students go to school from Monday to Friday. They have many lessons and play happily after school. On weekends, they don’t go to school. They often stay at home. They do their homework, help their parents with the housework, read books and watch TV. Some boys like to play computer games. But they can’t play too much. It’s bad for their eyes. They have fun playing with their friends. They talk about interesting things, chat with each other and have snacks（零食） and drinks. Sometimes they go out. They go swimming with their parents, walk their dogs, visit museums, see films and watch ball games like football, basketball, volleyball and badminton. They enjoy themselves on weekends. 66. What’s the first day of a week? ________________________________________________________________________________________ 67. When do the students go to school? ________________________________________________________________________________________ 68. Why can’t the boys play too much computer games? ________________________________________________________________________________________ 69. Please list（列举） two ball games in the passage. ________________________________________________________________________________________ 70. What do you usually do on weekends?（开放题） ________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节写作（满分15分） 假如你是李华，现在升入初中已经一年了，请根据以下信息提示介绍一下你的中学概况及你的班级和学习近况。 1.学校概况：有15个班级和60名老师，你的教室在一楼，教室后面是一个大操场，右面是一个小花园，里面有很多花和树，在花园的前面有一个图书馆； 2.班上同学很友好、互相帮助； 3.你最喜欢的学科是……并说明理由。 提示词汇：the first floor 一楼；playground 操场；garden花园 要求： 1.必须包含以上提示内容，可适当增加细节，以使语句通顺，行文连贯； 2.书写认真规范，词数60左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）； 3.文章中不得出现个人真实姓名和校名。 I’m Li Ha. I’m in Grade Six. Now let me tell you something about my school and my study here. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 初一英语参考答案及评分标准 第一部分 基础知识运用（共四节，满分25分） 第一节 语音考察（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 1-5 CBACD 6-10 CDABD 第二节 词汇运用（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 11. cleaning 12. restaurant 13. easily 14. men 15. delicious 第三节 句型转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词） 16. Why like 17. Don’t forget 18. doesn’t play 19. Are reading 20. What doing 第四节 完成句子（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分；每空一词） 21. message for 22. are shopping 23. behind hotel 24. in danger 25. listening to 第二部分 语言知识应用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 26-30. BDACD 31-35. ABADC 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 36. or/ and 37. is 38. his 39. to help 40. between 41. students 42. are having 43. tells 44. a 45. teaching 第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 46—50 ADCBD 51-55 DCABD 56-60 DCBAC 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 61-65 ABFCD 第四部分 书面表达（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） （注意：答案不唯一，表达语言准确规范，内容符合题目要求即可。） 66. Sunday 67. From Monday to Friday. 68. Because it’s bad for their eyes. 69. football, basketball（列举文中任意两种球类运动，首字母大小写皆可） 70. I usually do some reading at home.（开放题） 第二节 写作（满分15分） One possible version: I’m Li Ha. I’m in Grade Six. Now let me tell you something about my school and my study here. There are 15 classrooms and 60 teachers in my school. My classroom is on the first floor. There is a big playground behind my classroom. There is a small garden on the right. There are a lot of flowers and trees in it. They are very beautiful. There is a library in front of the garden. My classmates are friendly. We help each other. We have English, Chinese, maths, art and PE. My favorite subject is maths. It is difficult but interesting. I love my school. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$