安徽省亳州市2023-2024学年高二下学期第二次阶段测试英语试题

2023~2024学年下学期高二年级第二次阶段测试 英语 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分 150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：人教版必修第一册~选择性必修第四册Unit 3。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What does the man mean? A. He doesn’t have to work today. B. He forgot to set an alarm clock. C. He slept late last night. 2. What is the woman? A. An actress. B. A broadcaster. C. A boss. 3. When will the man have an appointment? A. At 7: 30 am. B. At 8: 30 am. C. At 9: 00 am. 4. What will the woman probably do tonight? A. See a film. B. Cook an Italian dinner. C. Meet with Maggie. 5. Why does the woman ask for a leave sometimes? A. To look after Lily. B. To find a babysitter. C. To visit her friend. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题， 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What does the woman say about the part of Hard Times? A. Exciting. B. Interesting. C. Confusing. 7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Teacher and student. B. Friends. C. Author and reader. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What does the man think of space travel? A. It is not dangerous. B. It can be harmful. C. It makes astronauts famous. 9. What can help people learn something new according to the woman? A. Robots. B. Computers. C. Risks. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What is the purpose of the campaign? A. To raise money for animal shelters. B. To push people to adopt animals. C. To build a shelter for animals. 11. How much money has the man spent in helping animals? A. $20,000. B. $10,000. C. $5,000. 12. What is the woman doing? A. Advertising a website. B. Doing an interview. C. Making a speech. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. What is the woman looking for? A. Mushrooms. B. Rubbish. C. Bamboo grass. 14. What do we know about the man? A. He likes drawing. B. He is an art teacher. C. He hates eating mushrooms. 15. In which aspect is bamboo grass similar to mushrooms? A. It has a single root system. B. It is easy to get rid of. C. It grows very slowly. 16. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In the forest. B. In the speakers’ home. C. In the classroom. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. On what occasion is the speaker making the speech? A. A welcoming party. B. A graduation ceremony. C. A memorial ceremony. 18 What was delivered to the speaker? A. A book. B. Some money. C. A letter. 19. What kind of person was Alvin James? A. Generous. B. Brave. C. Selfish. 20. What is the speaker doing in the end? A. Doing a promotion. B. Making a suggestion. C. Asking for information. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Pitch Music & Arts Festival After its debut (问世) several years ago, Pitch Music &Arts Festival quickly became one of the most exciting and hotly anticipated events. Held at the foothills of the Grampian Plains, it aims to deliver a distinct blend of sonic soundscapes across three architecturally designed stages. This year, the festival will be headlined by Gerd Janson, Patrick Mason, French producer I Hate Models, Italian Job Jobse, and Berghain resident Marcel Dettmann. Daniel Avery will do a live set for the first time in Australia, coinciding (同时发生) with the recent10th anniversary of his classic album Drone Logic. KiNK will also be playing a live set. Other international artists include Chaos in the CBD, Aurora Halal (LIVE), Bailey Ibbs, Sally C, Bambounou and many more. Pitch Music & Arts will also highlight local pioneers, including James who will be playing with Willaris. K, Surusinghe, Bertie, Memphis LK, and many more. For those looking for a moment of peace, the Pitch Pavilion will appear this year. This place is where festivalgoers can participate in yoga classes and sound baths. For those ready to rough it, you can bring your own tent and set it up in a free camping area. Pitch allows you to bring up to 24 cans, or one bottle of spirits poured into a plastic bottle. There will be numerous bars on site serving cocktails, mixed drinks and a range of beers. The tickets will be on sale from 5, May to 6, June. Want to find more information? Then head to the Pitch website. 1. Who does Drone Logic belong to? A. Gerd Janson. B. Daniel Avery. C. Job Jobse. D. KiNK. 2. What will James do during the festival? A. Deliver a lecture. B. Release an album. C. Give a performance. D. Interview Willaris. K. 3. What is the closing date for ticket purchases? A. May 5. B. May 25. C. June 2. D. June 6. B Despite his slim body of work, J. D. Salinger was one of the most influential American writers of the 20th century. His short stories, many of which appeared in The New Yorker, inspired the early careers of writers such as Phillip Roth, John Updike and Harold Brodkey. Born on January 1, 1919, in New York, Salinger was a restless student, attending New York University, Ursinus College and Columbia University. While taking classes at the latter, he met Professor Whit Burnett, who was also the editor of Story magazine. Burnett, sensing Salinger’s talent as a writer, pushed him to create more often and soon Salinger’s works were appearing not just in Story, but in other big-name publications such as Collier’s and the Saturday Evening Post. His career had started to take off, but then, like so many young American men around that time, World War II interrupted his life. Following the attack on Pearl Harbor, Salinger was drafted into the army, serving from 1942 to 1944. During that time, however, Salinger kept writing for a new novel whose main character was a deeply unsatisfied young man named Holden Caulfield. When Salinger returned to New York, he quickly set about resuming his life as a writer and soon found his work published in his favorite magazine, The New Yorker. He also pushed on with the work on his novel about Holden Caulfield. Finally, in 1951, The Catcher in the Rye was published. The book earned its share of positive reviews, but some critics weren’t so kind. But over time the American reading public ate the book up and The Catcher in the Rye became an essential part of the academic literature course. To date, the book has sold more than 65 million copies. In 1953, two years after the publication of The Catcher in the Rye, Salinger moved from New York City to Cornish, New Hampshire. There, Salinger did his best to cut off contact with the public and significantly slowed his literary output. He only published one new story, the 25,000-word Hapworth 16, 1924, before his death on January 27, 2010, in Cornish, New Hampshire. 4. Who had a great influence on J. D. Salinger? A. Phillip Roth. B. Whit Burnett. C. John Updike. D. Harold Brodkey. 5. What does the underlined word “resuming” in paragraph 4 mean? A. Continuing. B. Saving. C. Wasting. D. Risking. 6. What can be learned about The Catcher in the Rye from paragraph 5? A. It was published during World War II. B. It has sold less than 65 million copies. C. It was well received by American readers. D. It features an old man as the main character. 7. What do we know about J. D. Salinger? A. He stopped writing when he was in the army. B. He wrote lots of short stories in his later years. C. His literary output was very low in his later years. D. He had moved to New York City just before he died. C More than 1 billion children, teenagers and adults live with obesity (肥胖) around the world, making it the most common form of malnutrition in many countries, according to a study published on Thursday in the journal The Lancet. “Previous estimates by the World Obesity Federation suggested that there would be 1 billion people living with obesity by 2030, but that number was already overtaken in 2022,” Dr. Majid Ezzati, senior author of the study and professor at Imperial College London, said in a news conference on Thursday. “We hadn’t expected that the things happened so fast.” The new global study, conducted by more than 1,500 researchers from the Non-Communicable Diseases Risk Factor Collaboration and the World Health Organization (WHO), analyzed the height and weight measurements of over 220 million people from more than 190 countries. The study focused on rates of underweight and obesity, both forms of malnutrition that are harmful to people’s health. Adults were regarded as obese if their body mass index (指数) (BMI) was greater than or equal to 30 and considered as underweight if their BMI was below18.5. Children and teenagers were defined as obese or underweight based on age and sex, according to the study. “Undernutrition and obesity are two faces of the same problem, which is the lack of access to a healthy diet,” Dr. Francesco Branca, director of the WHO Department of Nutrition and Food Safety, said in the news conference. “Public policy must aim to improve monitoring of food producers and ensure fair access to healthy and nutritious food for everyone. Over 3 billion people in the world still cannot afford a healthy diet.” France, which saw a steady level in its obesity rates in the study, has carried out a national plan called Programme National Nutrition Santé that sets objectives for nutritional policy at the industry, consumer and research levels. Countries in South America have begun carrying out front-of-package nutritional labelling that includes clear warnings about fat, sugar and salt levels. Mexico has led the way on taxation of sweetened drinks, and in Chile, processed foods cannot be marketed to children. 8 How does Ezzati feel about the number of obese people worldwide in 2022? A. Disappointed. B. Astonished. C. Amused. D. Relieved. 9. How did the researchers conduct the new study? A. By asking questions. B. By analyzing data. C. By making observations. D. By carrying out experiments. 10. For adults, which BMI means normal weight according to the study? A. 33. B. 30. C. 20. D. 18. 11. What is the last paragraph mainly about? A. The good habits of teenagers in South America. B. The differences in diet among different countries. C. The problems of rising obesity rates faced by France. D. The measures taken by several countries to address obesity. D. Information from this year’s IQAir World Air Quality Report showed only seven countries met the World Health Organization’s pollution recommendations in 2023, which were Australia, Estonia, Finland, Grenada, Iceland, Mauritius and New Zealand. Of the 134 countries and regions measured, 124 had higher levels than called for in the WHO pollution guidelines. The report said the five countries with what it called the lowest air quality had particle (颗粒物) levels at least nine times higher than what the WHO recommends. Three South Asian countries — Bangladesh, Pakistan and India — had the world’s lowest air quality. In 2022, India was eighth and Bangladesh was fifth. The information came from the Swiss company IQAir. The report used measurements from over 30,000 stations across 134 countries. IQAir used the WHO standard of PM 2.5 to measure the size of breathable pollutant particles in the air. The PM2.5 measurement means the particles are 2.5 microns (微米) or less in diameter (直径). The diameter of human hair, for example, is about 30 times larger than a particle of 2.5 microns. In Bangladesh, the concentration of PM2.5 particles reached 79.9 micrograms per cubic meter in 2023. In Pakistan, the number was 73.7. India’s level was 54.4, Tajikistan in Central Asia was 49 and Burkina Faso in West Africa was the fifth-most polluted nation at 46.6. Firoz Khan, an air pollution expert at North South University in Dhaka, Bangladesh, said 20 percent of the early deaths in the country were caused by air pollution. He added spending on pollution-related healthcare was equal to four to five percent of the nation’s economy. Christi Chester Schroeder oversees air quality science for IQair. She said South Asia’s geography and climate conditions influence its air quality. “The pollution has nowhere to go,” she added. “Because of agricultural practices, industry and population density, it really does look like it is going to get worse before it gets better.” 12. What can be inferred from the text? A. Bangladesh’s air quality may have decreased in 2023. B. India’s air quality was greatly improved in 2022. C. Mauritius had the fifth-worst air quality in the world in 2022. D. Pakistan’s air quality was the third-worst in the world in 2023. 13. Why does the author mention “human hair” in paragraph.3? A. To demonstrate how to use hair products. B. To offer suggestions to people with hair problems. C. To emphasize the difficulty of measuring pollutant particles. D. To explain the size of breathable pollutant particles in the air. 14. Which statement will Christi Chester Schroeder probably agree with? A. Developing agriculture will help improve air quality. B. Geographical conditions have little influence on air quality. C. The future of air quality in South Asia does not look bright. D. South Asian countries should try to increase their populations. 15. What is the text mainly about? A. A report on global air pollution. B. Plans to fight against air pollution. C. The harm of air pollution to humans. D. Advice on cutting air pollution. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Writing a poem is about observing the world within or around you. ____16____, from love to loss to the gate at the old farm. Writing poetry seems difficult. However, with the right approach, you can write a poem that you can be proud to share with others. Pick a specific theme or idea. This can make it easier for you to narrow down what images and descriptions you are going to use in your poem. For example, you may decide to write a poem around the theme of love and friendship. ____17____. Avoid cliché(陈词滥调). Your poetry will be much stronger if you avoid cliches, which are phrases that have become so familiar that they have lost their meaning. ____18____. By doing so, your reader is surprised and attracted by your writing. If you feel a certain phrase or image is too familiar to your reader, replace it with a more unique one. ____19____. Poetry is made to be read out loud. So you should write your poem with a focus on how it sounds on the page. Pay attention to the structure of your poem and your word choice. Notice how each line of your poem flows into one another and how placing one word next to another creates a certain sound. Get feedback(反馈) from others. You can also share your poem with other poets to get feedback from them and improve your poem. ____20____, where you discuss your poems with other poets and work on your poetry together. Or you may take a poetry writing class, where you work with an instructor and other poets to improve your writing. A. Write for the ear B. Do writing exercises C. A poem can be about anything D. You may join a poetry writing group E. Go for creative descriptions and images in your poem F. Strong emotional moments make for beautiful and interesting poems G. Then you may think about the moments where you experienced them 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 He Cuiying lives on a mountain peak in Yunnan province, at an altitude of 3,000 meters. Every morning, the 91-year-old woman is ___21___ by floating fog, which creates a fairy-tale landscape. Four years ago, He Cuiying opened a homestay (民宿) in her yard with the help of her granddaughter, He Qingmei. Ever since, she has ___22___ her stories, the beautiful scenery and the ___23___ culture of her village with visitors from across China and other parts of the world. He Cuiying is a member of the Naxi ethnic group, while her husband is from the Tibetan ethnic group and he is a ___24___ in Tibetan Buddhism. In Qibie village, He Cuiying’s home, eight ethnic minorities live ___25___ in the same village, where local people ___26___ 102 homestays. The villagers say they have turned “houses into homestays and people into ___27___”. They speak the Naxi language, ___28___ Tibetan customs and warmly welcome tourists from all over the world. In just eight years, they have developed a ___29___ multiethnic (多民族的) homestay village, becoming a key demonstration project for cultural ____30____ in Yunnan. He Cuiying loves ____31____. Whenever guests visit her home, she sings songs and offers blessings continuously. Her favorite song is Chairman Mao Is Like the Sun. She remembers how the remote village was liberated and ____32____ poverty under the leadership of the Communist Party of China, so she has a sincere ____33____ for Beijing as the capital city. Now, as He Cuiying gets older, He Qingmei and her cousins are gradually ____34____ the homestay. They hope to share the beautiful scenery and stories of Grandma’s home with more people through the ____35____ of guests from all over the world. 21. A. interrupted B. greeted C. called D. proved 22. A. compared B. exchanged C. combined D. shared 23. A. unique B. corporate C. fashionable D. royal 24. A. dreamer B. liar C. believer D. villager 25. A. desperately B. peacefully C. precisely D. originally 26. A. rent B. examine C. exhibit D. operate 27. A. travelers B. performers C. passengers D. strangers 28. A. follow B. learn C. join D. leave 29. A. realistic B. free C. united D. true 30. A. business B. tourism C. industry D. agriculture 31. A. writing B. dancing C. drawing D. singing 32. A. escaped B. faced C. covered D. brought 33. A. apology B. hope C. desire D. admiration 34. A. paying for B. giving back C. taking over D. talking about 35. A. visits B. surveys C. directions D. risks 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Last Sunday was the official birthday of the world’s oldest land animal. Jonathan, a Seychelles giant tortoise(陆龟) living on the island of Saint Helena, turned 190 years old. The event ___36___(celebrate) with a big party, which included a special “salad cake”. Nobody knows for sure how old Jonathan is. But in 1882, he was brought ___37___ a gift to Sir William Grey-Wilson, ___38___ lived in Saint Helena. Pictures ___39___(take) around that time show that Jonathan was already full-grown. Since it takes about 50 years for Seychelles giant tortoises ___40___ (become) adults, animal experts say Jonathan must have been born around 1832. That’s earned him the Guinness World Record for the world’s oldest land animal. Joe Hollins, the veterinarian(兽医) who looks after Jonathan, says Jonathan is probably ___41___ (old) than 190, but there’s no way to know. Mr. Hollins says the tortoise is ___42___(general) pretty happy as long as he can sleep and eat. He likes to warm ___43___(he) by sleeping in the sun. Though Jonathan is still very active(for a tortoise), he does have some health problems. He’s blind, ___44___ he can no longer smell things, so he needs to be fed by hand. But he’s got a good appetite. His sense of hearing is also still strong. He ____45____(recognize) Mr. Hollins’s voice and responds to it. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 你校将于下周六组织一次“科技进校园”活动。请你用英语为学生会写一则通知，内容包括： 1.活动时间、地点； 2.活动内容； 3.欢迎前往参加。 注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Notice ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ The Student Union 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 During winter, Leo noticed that of all the houses on the block, there was one with a messy, dirty yard that looked unattended. One day, after all the snow had melted and the trees were starting to bloom (开花) just in time for spring, Leo couldn’t help but stare at his neighbor’s messy yard a little longer. The melted snow showed all the buried leaves and other trash. He went back home and brought the tools he needed. It took Leo the entire afternoon to clear the yard. He moved the melting snow out of the pathway and swept the leaves from the ground. He also trimmed (修剪) the bushes and left them as neat as he could. The following morning the old woman, Abigail, opened her door with joy. She had quietly watched the young man clean up the yard the day before, much to her relief. Abigail had not left her house in months. She relied totally on her caregiver for her basic needs and was eager to get fresh air. After sitting in her wheelchair in her front yard for a couple of minutes her neighbors started to notice her. They walked toward her to say hi, and soon, the crowd grew. “It’s so lovely to see you outdoors, Abigail! How have you been?” one of them asked. “I’m so happy to be breathing some fresh air for a change. I couldn’t leave the house for months because of the snow. It was too deep, and I couldn’t afford to hi re someone to help me with it,” Abigail admitted. “But yesterday, I saw a kind young man cleaning my yard the entire afternoon. I wanted to thank him, but I had no food to offer him because my caregiver had not arrived yet,” she shared. “He is such a blessing. I couldn’t believe my eyes when I saw him!” When Abigail praised the “kind young man” who helped her, they immediately knew it was Leo. The neighbors looked at each other, with guilty all over their faces. They realized they had been so blind to Abigail’s problems that no one thought to help her by cleaning her yard. 注意：1.续写词数应为 150个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 They decided to thank Leo by visiting his house. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ When he opened his front door, Leo was surprised to see his neighbors bearing gifts. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 答案1~5 CABCA 6~10 CBBCA11~15 CBACA 16~20ABCAB 2023~2024学年下学期高二年级第二次阶段测试 英语 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分 150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：人教版必修第一册~选择性必修第四册Unit 3。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What does the man mean? A. He doesn’t have to work today. B. He forgot to set an alarm clock. C. He slept late last night. 2. What is the woman? A. An actress. B. A broadcaster. C. A boss. 3. When will the man have an appointment? A. At 7: 30 am. B. At 8: 30 am. C. At 9: 00 am. 4. What will the woman probably do tonight? A. See a film. B. Cook an Italian dinner. C. Meet with Maggie. 5. Why does the woman ask for a leave sometimes? A. To look after Lily. B. To find a babysitter. C. To visit her friend. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题， 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What does the woman say about the part of Hard Times? A. Exciting. B. Interesting. C. Confusing. 7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Teacher and student. B. Friends. C. Author and reader. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What does the man think of space travel? A. It is not dangerous. B. It can be harmful. C. It makes astronauts famous. 9. What can help people learn something new according to the woman? A. Robots. B. Computers. C. Risks. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What is the purpose of the campaign? A. To raise money for animal shelters. B. To push people to adopt animals. C. To build a shelter for animals. 11. How much money has the man spent in helping animals? A. $20,000. B. $10,000. C. $5,000. 12. What is the woman doing? A. Advertising a website. B. Doing an interview. C. Making a speech. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. What is the woman looking for? A. Mushrooms. B. Rubbish. C. Bamboo grass. 14. What do we know about the man? A. He likes drawing. B. He is an art teacher. C. He hates eating mushrooms. 15. In which aspect is bamboo grass similar to mushrooms? A It has a single root system. B. It is easy to get rid of. C. It grows very slowly. 16. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In the forest. B. In the speakers’ home. C. In the classroom. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. On what occasion is the speaker making the speech? A. A welcoming party. B. A graduation ceremony. C. A memorial ceremony. 18. What was delivered to the speaker? A. A book. B. Some money. C. A letter. 19. What kind of person was Alvin James? A. Generous. B. Brave. C. Selfish. 20. What is the speaker doing in the end? A. Doing a promotion. B. Making a suggestion. C. Asking for information. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. C 3. D B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. A 6. C 7. C C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. B 9. B 10. C 11. D D. 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. A 13. D 14. C 15. A 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. C 17. G 18. E 19. A 20. D 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. D 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. A 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. was celebrated 37. as 38. who 39. taken 40. to become 41. older 42. generally 43. himself 44. and 45. recognizes##recognises 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】One possible version: Notice In order to allow students to experience the charm of science and technology up close, our school will organize a “Science and Technology into the Campus” event in the school hall at 8: 00 am next Saturday morning. In this activity, scientists will be invited to showcase amazing performances through various scientific devices. For example, you will see bowling balls floating in the air. A drone show will also be displayed on the spot. I’m sure the activity will be of great benefit to you. Be sure to come on time! The Student Union 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】One possible version: They decided to thank Leo by visiting his house. One neighbor offered to push Abigail’s wheelchair on the sidewalk. When they arrived, Leo was still asleep. He was awakened by a choir of voices calling out his name from outside. Leo was frightened, thinking he might have done something wrong. He tried to recall whether or not he had done something to anger his neighbors, but he could not remember anything. When he opened his front door, Leo was surprised to see his neighbors bearing gifts. They handed him pastries, fruits and a huge pie. “We’re here to thank you, dear. Thank you for helping me clean my yard.” Abigail said, reaching out to touch Leo’s hand. Other neighbors chimed in, thanking him for reminding them what it meant to be a good neighbor. “You helped Abigail out when non e of us did. Thank you for reminding us to be mindful of what other people are going through so we can help where we can,” one of them told Leo. 答案1~5 CABCA 6~10 CBBCA11~15 CBACA 16~20ABCAB 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$